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CDCs > Vol 3 UREs > Flashcards

Vol 3 UREs Flashcards

(100 cards)

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1
Q

Which principle is not an EW tenet?

A

Command

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2
Q

What is the first step in EW that is essential to develop an accurate EOB?

A

Detection

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3
Q

The major components of EW are

A

Electronic attack, support, and protection

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4
Q

The EW component used to locate intentional and unintentional radiated electromagnetic energy for threat recognition is called electronic _____

A

Support

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5
Q

To control an adversary’s C2 capabilities, C2W integrates:

A

Destruction, EW, military deception, OPSEC, and PSYOP

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6
Q

This best describes the degradation or interference with the enemy’s C2 capabilities

A

Disruption

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7
Q

Using precision-guided munitions, cruise missiles, or gunships is an example of

A

Physical attack

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8
Q

What support system provides detection and low-level aircraft control beyond coverage of ground-based radars?

A

AWACS

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9
Q

Normal SEAD targets include radars for:

A

ACQ, AAA, EW/GCI, and SAM

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10
Q

The division of EW that involves weapons using electromagnetic or directed energy as their primary destructive mechanism is electronic _____

A

Attack

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11
Q

The primary missile used to destroy enemy radar-equipped air defense systems is the

A

AGM-88

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12
Q

What missile uses an electro-optical or infrared imaging system to perform EA?

A

AGM-65

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13
Q

Transmitting a simulated unique system signature from a non lethal platform is an example of

A

Manipulative deception

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14
Q

A repeater jamming technique that copies enemy radar pulses and returns incorrect target information to the enemy radar is an example of

A

Imitative deception

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15
Q

EMCON is important because it

A

Limits incidental or accidental emissions

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16
Q

The actions to locate intentional and unintentional radiated EM energy sources is best described as electronic _____

A

Support

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17
Q

The panoramic receiver is the heart of the electronic system because it detects

A

Electromagnetic energy

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18
Q

The pulse analyzer does not measure

A

Magnetic energy

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19
Q

The RC-135 aircraft provides theater commanders all of the following except how to

A

determine when a schedule of events will happen

Locate enemy forces, warn of threatening activity, determine the intentions of enemy forces

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20
Q

The major subdivision of electronic reconnaissance collects information pertaining to the patterns, codes, and sites used for communications

A

COMINT

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21
Q

The pulse analyzer does not analyze this component during manual radar analysis.

A

Frequency pulse

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22
Q

What order are the four radars in an air defense network used?

A

Early warning, height finder, acquisition, and terminal defense

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23
Q

What type IADS radar can obtain the general location of an attacking force?

A

Early warning

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24
Q

What type IADS radar is a lethal threat to attacking aircraft?

A

Terminal defense

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25
Because of its range capabilities, the AI is generally ____
first of the air defense weapon systems to pose a problem for an approaching force
26
What three phases do SAM systems function in to target attacking aircraft?
Acquisition, target tracking, and command guidance
27
What SAM system tracking technique uses two radars?
Track-while-scan
28
What type of fuse is vulnerable to EW?
PRX
29
This is an important part of the C2 system
Computer
30
The AWACS is the most effective C2 addition to the basic air defense system because it adds air defense ______
System detection range
31
Which of these four metric frequency prefixes designate the smallest radar propagation quantity?
Pico | Nano, Mega, Giga
32
Which military frequency band designator, of the 4, denotes the highest frequency radar propagation range over the others?
G | C, E, F
33
Using radar propagation, how long does it take RF energy to travel a radar mile?
12.36 microseconds
34
When determining a radar's azimuth, the wider the HBW,
the poorer the resolution
35
What three properties are common to both visible light and IR energy?
Absorption, reflection, refraction
36
The amount of IR energy is emitted by an object's absolute temperature that is
directly proportional to its 4th power
37
In relation to land and water, thermal crossover means both objects ________
have the same temperature
38
Most IR missiles operate in the region of this range of microns
1 to 5
39
What type IR seeker system uses many detectors where each one detects a small portion of a scene?
Staring
40
What IRCM tactic is used to reduce an engine's IR signature?
Introducing smoke into the engine exhaust
41
In what frequency region or spectrum do MAWSs detect energy?
Infrared
42
What feature of a MAWS relates to timeliness?
Rapid identification of infrared missile threats
43
What is one disadvantage of an active MAWS?
It can be tracked by passive detection
44
The process of combining two signal frequencies in a nonlinear device and producing frequencies equal to the sum and the difference describes
Heterodyning
45
What type of circuit is used to select the new frequencies from the heterodyning process?
Tank
46
What is the panoramic receiver operator allowed to do with expanded capability?
Separate signals that are close together on an RF band
47
What feature of a panoramic receiver prevents the on-board transmitters' output from displaying?
Receiver blanking
48
What range of coverage does the RWR's antennas provide?
360 degrees
49
What component of the RWR identifies radar signals?
Signal processor
50
The RWR does not display a signal's
amplitude
51
What RWR component selects the mode of operation?
Interface control unit
52
All of the following are techniques used by geolocation receivers except _____
amplitude comparison | triangulation, interferometry, time of arrival
53
Which geolocation technique involves an equation solving for the distance that the emitter is away from the receiver?
Time of arrival
54
Altering a carrier wave in accordance with a signal voltage is called
modulation
55
The process where the carrier wave's frequency and phase vary according to the signal wave's amplitude and frequency variations is called this type of modulation.
Frequency
56
What determines the amount of deviation from the carrier wave?
The modulation index
57
The major disadvantage of using a waveguide is its
Size restrictions
58
The main consideration for effective electronic jamming is
Sufficient power
59
When a radio noise jammer provides radiated power output, the wider the bandwidth,
the lesser the power density
60
The point where a radar's return is stronger than the jamming signal is called the
Crossover point
61
What type of noise jammer jams one frequency, then a second, then a third, for a predetermined period and at a rapid rate?
Sequential
62
Which type noise jamming predicts when the next radar pulse arrives, and then transmits a signal?
Cover pulse
63
This noise jamming technique causes jamming strobes to appear on the radarscope
TWS modulated
64
What radar tracking circuit can deception jamming be used to deceive?
Velocity (or range/azimuth) | Phase, amplitude, frequency
65
One advantage a deception jammer has over a noise jammer is that it requires
less power
66
What type of deception jamming technique is related to a time delay?
Range
67
What type of deception jamming uses the Doppler shift?
Velocity
68
What type deception jamming technique is used at low altitude against missiles?
Terrain bounce
69
From an applied signal, input pulses are collected in binary from, and then converted into decimal form for a digital readout. This describes the operation of a
frequency counter
70
What piece of test equipment uses electromagnetic waves pulses to test cables?
Time domain reflectometer
71
Using a TDR, the distance to the discontinuity of a cable is determined by the reflected
amplitude of the reflected pulse
72
What is not a TDR precaution?
Do not select test cable propagation velocity constant
73
Damage to the sampling gate or tunnel diode of a TDR indicates voltages were applied exceeding
5 V
74
When determining distance from the TDR to the discontinuity, count the number of CRT divisions between the incident pulse's
leading edge and the leading edge of the reflected pulse
75
Which type discontinuity problem is indicated when a TDR display starts in the upper left corner of the screen, drops down at mid screen, and departs in the lower right screen?
A short
76
A spectrum analyzer is a receiver with this type output
Cathode-ray tube display instead of a speaker
77
The span of the display, on a spectrum analyzer, is the size of the band of frequencies that are displayed and adjusted with this control
FREQUENCY SPAN
78
The power sensor is used to establish the active frequency and power range within the design parameters of the
Power meter
79
Each graticule marking division on the oscilloscope faceplate is
One centimeter square
80
The horizontal divisions of an oscilloscope faceplate are calibrated to these settings
TIME/DIV control
81
What is the most commonly used wiring diagnostic tool to determine if a circuit is open or closed?
Digital multi-meter
82
How many pieces of test equipment are contained in the fiber optic test set?
2
83
The maximum wavelength, in nm, the light source in a fiber optic test set can produce is
1550
84
What class laser would you test using the MEON tester?
4
85
What is the frequency range of the RSS/PLM-4?
0.5 to 18 GHz
86
What RFLTS test is based on a ratio of power out of a UUT to the RFLTS power fed into the UUT?
Insertion loss
87
When a fault is suspected in a RF transmission path, because of unacceptable insertion loss, you should perform
DTF measurements
88
What type test equipment is used to check multiple aircraft chaff and flare dispensing systems?
CDT
89
In a CMDS, the specific type of payload and magazine presence are simulated by
Coding plunger pins
90
What CDT functional check measures the firing pulse amplitude and pulse duration?
fire
91
How many sections make up a network analyzer?
4
92
A network analyzer has this number of keys for standard data entry
10
93
What type message describes in detail how an EWIR change affects an EWS?
RIM
94
Which step is not a part of the EWIR process?
Determine the impact of the threat system | Determine the threat, reprogram the EW system's software, field the change
95
What is not part of the EWIR exercise?
Evaluate routine operational change request | Train people, smooth comms, threat readiness
96
What type of directed exercise evaluates the entire EWIR process?
Air Force
97
What is the Air Force electronic warfare reprogramming exercise called?
SERENE BYTE
98
Which two primary reprogramming exercises will you probably be involved in as an EW technician?
SERENE BYTE and PACER WARE
99
The CAPRE is powered by
An AC adapter and a lithium-ion rechargeable battery
100
The CAPRE requires visual inspection of components how often?
Annually

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