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Flashcards in Vol 3 UREs Deck (100):
1

Which principle is not an EW tenet?

Command

2

What is the first step in EW that is essential to develop an accurate EOB?

Detection

3

The major components of EW are

Electronic attack, support, and protection

4

The EW component used to locate intentional and unintentional radiated electromagnetic energy for threat recognition is called electronic _____

Support

5

To control an adversary's C2 capabilities, C2W integrates:

Destruction, EW, military deception, OPSEC, and PSYOP

6

This best describes the degradation or interference with the enemy's C2 capabilities

Disruption

7

Using precision-guided munitions, cruise missiles, or gunships is an example of

Physical attack

8

What support system provides detection and low-level aircraft control beyond coverage of ground-based radars?

AWACS

9

Normal SEAD targets include radars for:

ACQ, AAA, EW/GCI, and SAM

10

The division of EW that involves weapons using electromagnetic or directed energy as their primary destructive mechanism is electronic _____

Attack

11

The primary missile used to destroy enemy radar-equipped air defense systems is the

AGM-88

12

What missile uses an electro-optical or infrared imaging system to perform EA?

AGM-65

13

Transmitting a simulated unique system signature from a non lethal platform is an example of

Manipulative deception

14

A repeater jamming technique that copies enemy radar pulses and returns incorrect target information to the enemy radar is an example of

Imitative deception

15

EMCON is important because it

Limits incidental or accidental emissions

16

The actions to locate intentional and unintentional radiated EM energy sources is best described as electronic _____

Support

17

The panoramic receiver is the heart of the electronic system because it detects

Electromagnetic energy

18

The pulse analyzer does not measure

Magnetic energy

19

The RC-135 aircraft provides theater commanders all of the following except how to

determine when a schedule of events will happen

(Locate enemy forces, warn of threatening activity, determine the intentions of enemy forces)

20

The major subdivision of electronic reconnaissance collects information pertaining to the patterns, codes, and sites used for communications

COMINT

21

The pulse analyzer does not analyze this component during manual radar analysis.

Frequency pulse

22

What order are the four radars in an air defense network used?

Early warning, height finder, acquisition, and terminal defense

23

What type IADS radar can obtain the general location of an attacking force?

Early warning

24

What type IADS radar is a lethal threat to attacking aircraft?

Terminal defense

25

Because of its range capabilities, the AI is generally ____

first of the air defense weapon systems to pose a problem for an approaching force

26

What three phases do SAM systems function in to target attacking aircraft?

Acquisition, target tracking, and command guidance

27

What SAM system tracking technique uses two radars?

Track-while-scan

28

What type of fuse is vulnerable to EW?

PRX

29

This is an important part of the C2 system

Computer

30

The AWACS is the most effective C2 addition to the basic air defense system because it adds air defense ______

System detection range

31

Which of these four metric frequency prefixes designate the smallest radar propagation quantity?

Pico

(Nano, Mega, Giga)

32

Which military frequency band designator, of the 4, denotes the highest frequency radar propagation range over the others?

G

(C, E, F)

33

Using radar propagation, how long does it take RF energy to travel a radar mile?

12.36 microseconds

34

When determining a radar's azimuth, the wider the HBW,

the poorer the resolution

35

What three properties are common to both visible light and IR energy?

Absorption, reflection, refraction

36

The amount of IR energy is emitted by an object's absolute temperature that is

directly proportional to its 4th power

37

In relation to land and water, thermal crossover means both objects ________

have the same temperature

38

Most IR missiles operate in the region of this range of microns

1 to 5

39

What type IR seeker system uses many detectors where each one detects a small portion of a scene?

Staring

40

What IRCM tactic is used to reduce an engine's IR signature?

Introducing smoke into the engine exhaust

41

In what frequency region or spectrum do MAWSs detect energy?

Infrared

42

What feature of a MAWS relates to timeliness?

Rapid identification of infrared missile threats

43

What is one disadvantage of an active MAWS?

It can be tracked by passive detection

44

The process of combining two signal frequencies in a nonlinear device and producing frequencies equal to the sum and the difference describes

Heterodyning

45

What type of circuit is used to select the new frequencies from the heterodyning process?

Tank

46

What is the panoramic receiver operator allowed to do with expanded capability?

Separate signals that are close together on an RF band

47

What feature of a panoramic receiver prevents the on-board transmitters' output from displaying?

Receiver blanking

48

What range of coverage does the RWR's antennas provide?

360 degrees

49

What component of the RWR identifies radar signals?

Signal processor

50

The RWR does not display a signal's

amplitude

51

What RWR component selects the mode of operation?

Interface control unit

52

All of the following are techniques used by geolocation receivers except _____

amplitude comparison

(triangulation, interferometry, time of arrival)

53

Which geolocation technique involves an equation solving for the distance that the emitter is away from the receiver?

Time of arrival

54

Altering a carrier wave in accordance with a signal voltage is called

modulation

55

The process where the carrier wave's frequency and phase vary according to the signal wave's amplitude and frequency variations is called this type of modulation.

Frequency

56

What determines the amount of deviation from the carrier wave?

The modulation index

57

The major disadvantage of using a waveguide is its

Size restrictions

58

The main consideration for effective electronic jamming is

Sufficient power

59

When a radio noise jammer provides radiated power output, the wider the bandwidth,

the lesser the power density

60

The point where a radar's return is stronger than the jamming signal is called the

Crossover point

61

What type of noise jammer jams one frequency, then a second, then a third, for a predetermined period and at a rapid rate?

Sequential

62

Which type noise jamming predicts when the next radar pulse arrives, and then transmits a signal?

Cover pulse

63

This noise jamming technique causes jamming strobes to appear on the radarscope

TWS modulated

64

What radar tracking circuit can deception jamming be used to deceive?

Velocity (or range/azimuth)

(Phase, amplitude, frequency)

65

One advantage a deception jammer has over a noise jammer is that it requires

less power

66

What type of deception jamming technique is related to a time delay?

Range

67

What type of deception jamming uses the Doppler shift?

Velocity

68

What type deception jamming technique is used at low altitude against missiles?

Terrain bounce

69

From an applied signal, input pulses are collected in binary from, and then converted into decimal form for a digital readout. This describes the operation of a

frequency counter

70

What piece of test equipment uses electromagnetic waves pulses to test cables?

Time domain reflectometer

71

Using a TDR, the distance to the discontinuity of a cable is determined by the reflected

amplitude of the reflected pulse

72

What is not a TDR precaution?

Do not select test cable propagation velocity constant

73

Damage to the sampling gate or tunnel diode of a TDR indicates voltages were applied exceeding

5 V

74

When determining distance from the TDR to the discontinuity, count the number of CRT divisions between the incident pulse's

leading edge and the leading edge of the reflected pulse

75

Which type discontinuity problem is indicated when a TDR display starts in the upper left corner of the screen, drops down at mid screen, and departs in the lower right screen?

A short

76

A spectrum analyzer is a receiver with this type output

Cathode-ray tube display instead of a speaker

77

The span of the display, on a spectrum analyzer, is the size of the band of frequencies that are displayed and adjusted with this control

FREQUENCY SPAN

78

The power sensor is used to establish the active frequency and power range within the design parameters of the

Power meter

79

Each graticule marking division on the oscilloscope faceplate is

One centimeter square

80

The horizontal divisions of an oscilloscope faceplate are calibrated to these settings

TIME/DIV control

81

What is the most commonly used wiring diagnostic tool to determine if a circuit is open or closed?

Digital multi-meter

82

How many pieces of test equipment are contained in the fiber optic test set?

2

83

The maximum wavelength, in nm, the light source in a fiber optic test set can produce is

1550

84

What class laser would you test using the MEON tester?

4

85

What is the frequency range of the RSS/PLM-4?

0.5 to 18 GHz

86

What RFLTS test is based on a ratio of power out of a UUT to the RFLTS power fed into the UUT?

Insertion loss

87

When a fault is suspected in a RF transmission path, because of unacceptable insertion loss, you should perform

DTF measurements

88

What type test equipment is used to check multiple aircraft chaff and flare dispensing systems?

CDT

89

In a CMDS, the specific type of payload and magazine presence are simulated by

Coding plunger pins

90

What CDT functional check measures the firing pulse amplitude and pulse duration?

fire

91

How many sections make up a network analyzer?

4

92

A network analyzer has this number of keys for standard data entry

10

93

What type message describes in detail how an EWIR change affects an EWS?

RIM

94

Which step is not a part of the EWIR process?

Determine the impact of the threat system

(Determine the threat, reprogram the EW system's software, field the change)

95

What is not part of the EWIR exercise?

Evaluate routine operational change request

(Train people, smooth comms, threat readiness)

96

What type of directed exercise evaluates the entire EWIR process?

Air Force

97

What is the Air Force electronic warfare reprogramming exercise called?

SERENE BYTE

98

Which two primary reprogramming exercises will you probably be involved in as an EW technician?

SERENE BYTE and PACER WARE

99

The CAPRE is powered by

An AC adapter and a lithium-ion rechargeable battery

100

The CAPRE requires visual inspection of components how often?

Annually