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Flashcards in Volume 1 URE Deck (79):
1

1. (001) What is outlined in Air Force Instruction (AFI) 36–2101, Classifying Military Personnel
(Officer and Enlisted)?
a. Duties and responsibilities for the Air Force Reserve and Air National Guard only.
b. Duties and responsibilities for each Air Force career field or specialty.
c. Career progression for the materiel management career field.
d. Career progression for each military service agent.

b. Duties and responsibilities for each Air Force career field or specialty.

2

2. (001) Materiel management specialists are not responsible for
a. providing support to maintenance activities.
b. directing policy and guidance for career field.
c. researching and identifying materiel requirements.
d. preparing, analyzing, and evaluating reports, procedures, and policy data.

b. directing policy and guidance for career field.

3

3. (002) The purpose of the Air Force Logistics Career Broadening Program is to promote a better
understanding of the whole materiel management system through the cross-utilization of training,
knowledge, experience, and
a. interfaces.
b. processes.
c. perspectives.
d. provisioning.

c. perspectives.

4

4. (002) To be eligible for the Logistics Career Broadening Program, you must be a technical sergeant
or master sergeant with less than how many years of time-in-service?
a. 9.
b. 11.
c. 13.
d. 15.

d. 15

5

5. (002) What two organizations provide wholesale logistics experience for selected materiel
management noncommissioned officers (NCO)?
a. Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC) and General Services Administration (GSA).
b. Defense Logistics Agency (DLA) and AFMC.
c. GSA and Materiel Management System.
d. Materiel Management System and DLA.

b. Defense Logistics Agency (DLA) and AFMC

6

6. (003) Which Expeditionary Logistics 21st Century (eLog21) effect ensures logistics decisions are
made and actions are taken with an understanding of their impact across the entire Air Force?
a. One: Enterprise View.
b. Two: Integrated Processes.
c. Three: Optimized Resources.
d. Four: Integrated Technology.

a. One: Enterprise View.

7

7. (003) In support of the Expeditionary Logistics 21st Century’s (eLog21) Integrated Processes,
which is not a resource?
a. Financial.
b. Acquisition.
c. Technology.
d. Infrastructure.

c. Technology.

8

8. (004) Which source of supply provides wholesale support to all government agencies?
a. General Services Administration (GSA).
b. Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC).
c. Defense Logistics Agency (DLA).
d. Local manufacturers

a. General Services Administration (GSA).

9

9. (004) Local manufacture is a term that describes an item
a. designed by a local commodity center.
b. sourced from another branch of service.
c. fabricated by a maintenance activity on base.
d. purchased by an organization using the government purchase card (GPC).

c. fabricated by a maintenance activity on base.

10

10. (004) Which section gives maintenance repair functions in a single facility?
a. Local purchase (LP).
b. Local manufacture (LM).
c. Defense Logistics Agency (DLA).
d. Centralized repair facility (CRF).

a.Centralized repair facility

11

11. (004) Who serves as the primary point of contact for interfacing with the Air Force Sustainment
Center (AFSC) on behalf of maintenance customers?
a. Flight Service Center.
b. Centralized Repair Facility.
c. Defense Logistics Agency (DLA).
d. Decentralized materiel support (DMS).

d. Decentralized materiel support (DMS).

12

12. (004) Who is required to notify the flightline expediter of all back ordered parts in accordance
with AFI 21–101?
a. Decentralized materiel support (DMS) personnel.
b. Individual Protective Equipment (IPE) personnel.
c. Document Control personnel.
d. Storage and Issue personnel.

a. Decentralized materiel support (DMS) personnel.

13

13. (004) Which references govern the Repair Network Integration (RNI) process?
a. Air Force Instruction (AFI) 21–177 and Air Force Manual (AFMAN) 21–188.
b. AFI 20–117 and AFMAN 20–118.
c. AFMAN 21–112 and AFI 21–113.
d. AFMAN 20–122 and AFI 20–133.

b. AFI 20–117 and AFMAN 20–118.

14

14. (005) What best describes supply Class I items?
a. Petroleum, oil, and lubricants (POL).
b. Subsistence.
c. Construction.
d. Ammunition.

b. Subsistence.

15

15. (005) Which class of supply includes weapons?
a. II.
b. IV.
c. VI.
d. VIII.

a. II

16

16. (005) Which class of supply consists of ammunition?
a. III.
b. V.
c. VII.
d. IX.

b. V.

17

17. (005) What best describes supply Class III items?
a. Subsistence.
b. Ammunition.
c. Construction.
d. Petroleum, oil, and lubricants (POL).

d. Petroleum, oil, and lubricants (POL).

18

18. (005) What best describes supply Class VI items?
a. Ammunition.
b. Major end items.
c. Medical materiel.
d. Personal demand items

d. Personal demand items.

19

19. (005) Which class of supply consists of major end items?
a. II.
b. IV.
c. VI.
d. VII.

c. VII

20

20. (005) Which class of supply consists of medical materiel?
a. VII.
b. VIII.
c. IX.
d. X.

b. VIII.

21

21. (005) What best describes supply Class X items?
a. Repair parts.
b. Major end items.
c. Medical materiel.
d. Materiel to support nonmilitary programs.

d. Materiel to support nonmilitary programs.

22

22. (005) What provides a unique framework that links performance metrics, processes, best
practices, and people into a unified structure?
a. Supply-chain operations reference (SCOR).
b. Air Expeditionary Forces (AEF).
c. Unit type code (UTC).
d. Operation plan.

a. Supply-chain operations reference (SCOR).

23

23. (006) Which specialized center is the hub for the integration and management of
maintenance/supply chain capabilities?
a. Air Force Test Center (AFTC).
b. Air Force Research Laboratory (AFRL).
c. Air Force Sustainment Center (AFSC).
d. Air Force Nuclear Weapons Center (AFNWC).

c. Air Force Sustainment Center (AFSC).

24

24. (006) The Air Force Sustainment Center’s (AFSC) mission is to
a. provide research and technology development.
b. validate and improve weapon system capabilities.
c. provide acquisition management for weapon systems.
d. sustain weapon system readiness to generate airpower for America.

d. sustain weapon system readiness to generate airpower for America.

25

25. (006) How many primary subordinate units (PSU) make up the foundation of the Air Force
Installation & Mission Support Center (AFIMSC)?
a. Six.
b. Seven.
c. Four.
d. Five.

a. Six.

26

26. (007) Which maintenance process updates various basic and support records, such as item
records, routing identifier records, and warehouse locations?
a. Interchangeable and substitute group (I&SG).
b. Miscellaneous file maintenance.
c. Follow-up.
d. Status.

b. Miscellaneous file maintenance.

27

27. (007) Which type of reports provide information about the overall management of the supply
system?
a. Daily.
b. Monthly.
c. Quarterly.
d. Utility.

a. Daily.

28

28. (008) Which Department of Defense (DOD) publication implements requirements and procedures
for materiel managers and others who work within the supply system?
a. 4100.39-M, Management.
b. 4120.24-M, Defense Management System.
c. 4140.01, DOD Supply Chain Materiel Management Procedures.
d. 4500.9-R, Defense Logistics Systems Manual.

c. 4140.01, DOD Supply Chain Materiel Management Procedures.

29

29. (008) The Defense Logistics Manual (DLM) 4000.25, Defense Logistics Management Standards,
does not pertain to which functional area?
a. Maintenance.
b. Finance.
c. Supply.
d. Safety.

d. Safety.

30

30. (008) What process governs logistics functional business management standards and practices?
a. Defense Logistics Management Standards.
b. Supply Management Activity Group.
c. Degraded operations.
d. Mission capable

a. Defense Logistics Management Standards.

31

31. (009) Which key on a keyboard do you press after typing in a word or phrase using the Find tool
for research?
a. Backspace.
b. Insert.
c. Home.
d. Enter.

d. Enter.

32

32. (010) What two entities make up the national stock number (NSN)?
a. National item identification number (NIIN) and materiel management code (MMC).
b. Federal supply classification (FSC) and NIIN.
c. FSC and MMC.
d. MMC and commercial and government entity (CGE).

b. Federal supply classification (FSC) and NIIN.

33

34. (011) Which code on an item record inquiry in the materiel management system is used to obtain
specific information?
a. Record retrieval.
b. Supply management.
c. Type record account.
d. Transaction exception.

a. Record retrieval.

34

35. (011) Which record retrieval code in the materiel management system gives you the transaction
history when processing an inquiry?
a. One.
b. Two.
c. Three.
d. Four.

a. Four

35

36. (011) What information prints out after processing an item record inquiry?
a. Reject notices.
b. Data element names.
c. Management notices.
d. Consolidated transaction history.

b. Data element names.

36

37. (011) What releveling flag is used on a requirements computation inquiry in the materiel
management system to provide a summary of information about a given stock number?
a. C.
b. D.
c. F.
d. R.

d. R.

37

38. (012) Users can query the materiel management computer system consolidated transaction history
(CTH) records as far back as
a. one month.
b. three months.
c. six months.
d. one year or more.

d. one year or more.

38

38. (012) Users can query the materiel management computer system consolidated transaction history
(CTH) records as far back as
a. one month.
b. three months.
c. six months.
d. one year or more.

d. one year or more.

39

39. (012) Under the consolidated transaction history (CTH) system, which type inquiry allows you to
select records using the national stock number (NSN) and transaction date?
a. Stock number.
b. Transaction serial number.
c. Batch miscellaneous option.
d. Batch transaction date and serial number.

c. Batch miscellaneous option.

40

40. (013) Who is responsible for ensuring all rejects are corrected from computer records?
a. Flight chief.
b. Logistics manager.
c. Operations officer.
d. Logistics readiness squadron (LRS) commander.

a. Flight chief.

41

41. (013) Which chapter in Air Force Handbook (AFH) 23–123, Materiel Management Handbook,
Volume 2, Part 2, identifies the action required to correct the materiel management system’s
rejects created during processing?
a. Three.
b. Five.
c. Six.
d. Seven.

d. Seven.

42

42. (013) What letters, preceding the management code and phrase, readily identifies management
notices?
a. MAN.
b. MGT.
c. MNT.
d. MMT.

b. MGT

43

43. (013) Which product of the materiel management system is used to ensure rejects are processed in
a timely manner?
a. D818.
b. D097.
c. D043.
d. D019.

a. D818.

44

44. (013) What listing shows all force-deleted rejects processed through the reject processor program?
a. D04.
b. D20.
c. Q09.
d. Q10.

b. D20.

45

45. (013) Which individual must ensure force deletions from the reject processor program are
processed for valid reasons only?
a. Logistics readiness squadron (LRS) commander.
b. Squadron superintendent.
c. Operations officer.
d. Flight chief.

d. Flight chief.

46

46. (014) Who, in coordination with the flight chief, determines who will process controlled
transaction identification codes (TRIC) and informs the computer operations terminal security
manager which controlled TRICs each user identification (user ID) is authorized to process?
a. Computer operations supervisor.
b. Terminal security monitors.
c. Accountable officer.
d. Logistics manager.

b. Terminal security monitors.

47

47. (014) Who is responsible for reviewing Part 8 of the D20 when an unauthorized user attempts to
process a controlled transaction identification codes (TRIC)?
a. Flight chief.
b. Logistics manager.
c. Data processing center.
d. Management and systems officer.

b. Logistics manager.

48

48. (015) The annotated forecast listing of all computer requirements is returned to the computer
room production scheduler by which workday of the same month it is received?
a. 30th.
b. 20th.
c. 15th.
d. 10th.

c. 15th.

49

49. (016) The operating principle of no-profit/no-loss best describes the
a. management analysis programs.
b. Office of Management and Budget (OMB).
c. Air Force working capital fund (AFWCF).
d. Supply Management Activity Group-Retail (SMAG-R).

d. Supply Management Activity Group-Retail (SMAG-R).

50

50. (016) When the cost of an item is transferred from the customer’s funds into the Supply
Management Activity Group-Retail (SMAG-R) account, what type of fund is created?
a. Debit.
b. Saving.
c. Storing.
d. Revolving.

d. Revolving.

51

51. (016) Which is not a division within the Supply Management Activity Group-Retail (SMAG-R)?
a. Medical-Dental.
b. General Support.
c. United States Air Force Academy.
d. Air Force working capital fund (AFWCF).

d. Air Force working capital fund (AFWCF).

52

52. (016) Which item falls under the scope of the Consolidated Sustainment Activity Group-Supply
(CSAG-S)?
a. Base-managed expense items.
b. Wholesale-managed items.
c. War reserve materiel (WRM).
d. Classified materiel.

b. Wholesale-managed items

53

53. (017) The quality assurance (QA) program helps identify any area, program, or equipment and
system that is not compliant with
a. guidelines.
b. principles.
c. standards.
d. quality.

c. standards.

54

54. (017) Which section has oversight of the self-inspection program?
a. Training.
b. Quality assurance (QA).
c. Customer support.
d. Resource management.

b. Quality assurance (QA).

55

55. (017) Who selects highly experienced materiel management personnel for customer support
visits?
a. Logistics readiness squadron (LRS) leadership.
b. Supply Management Activity Group (SMAG).
c. Customer support section.
d. Training section.

a. Logistics readiness squadron (LRS) leadership.

56

56. (018) When the materiel management system does not process or update transactions as it should,
which Air Force form is used to report the problem?
a. 1810, Assurance Activity.
b. 1815, Difficulty Report (DIREP) Worksheet.
c. 1820, Supply Management Report.
d. 1825, Supply Command.

b. 1815, Difficulty Report (DIREP) Worksheet.

57

57. (018) Which activity within the Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC) supply chain management
–retail (SCM-R) community is responsible for submitting, controlling, and monitoring difficulty
reports?
a. Stock control.
b. Quality assurance (QA).
c. Computer operations.
d. Information technology.

b. Quality assurance (QA).

58

58. (018) A category III difficulty report does not stop computer system processing and is corrected
a. as workload permits.
b. in the next scheduled release.
c. on an Air Force suggestion form.
d. over the phone with the materiel management system control center.

b. in the next scheduled release.

59

59. (019) Which analysis method do you use most often for recurring reports or for comparing
statistical data with standards and norms?
a. Trend analysis.
b. Special studies.
c. Problem analysis.
d. Document analysis.

a. Trend analysis.

60

60. (019) Which analysis method do you use most often to satisfy a one-time requirement or solve a
specific problem?
a. Trend analysis.
b. Special studies.
c. Problem analysis.
d. Document analysis.

b. Special studies.

61

61. (019) Who works with logistics readiness squadron (LRS) quality assurance (QA) to develop
local programs for solving problems identified by management?
a. Training.
b. Stock control.
c. Customer service.
d. Resource management.

a. Training.

62

62. (019) What section of the materiel management analysis program is tasked with assigning
meaning to raw data and providing information that can be used to determine the account’s
effectiveness?
a. Training.
b. Customer service (CS).
c. Quality assurance (QA).
d. Resource management (RM).

c. Quality assurance (QA).

63

63. (019) What is used to help logistics readiness squadron (LRS) leadership know what an
organization has done in the past and how it is doing at the present before directing future efforts?
a. Analysis program.
b. Difficulty reports (DIREP).
c. Training requirements.
d. Customer support visits.

a. Analysis program.

64

64. (020) Which is not an example of a source document?
a. Issues.
b. Receipts.
c. Reports.
d. Returns.

c. Reports.

65

65. (020) Which is not required when comparing information between the document control record
(DCR) and source document?
a. System designator.
b. Nomenclature.
c. Stock number.
d. Quantity.

b. Nomenclature.

66

66. (020) How often does document control perform a validation of who is authorized to receipt for
classified property?
a. Monthly.
b. Quarterly.
c. Semiannually.
d. Annually.

c. Semiannually.

67

67. (020) What type of materiel management source documents are not placed in a permanent
document file?
a. Transaction identification codes (TRIC) FIC and FCU.
b. Source documents with file indicator D.
c. TRIC FCU.
d. TRIC FIC.

b. Source documents with file indicator D.

68

68. (020) How long are transactions retained when documents are processed through the materiel
management automated tracking system?
a. 12 months.
b. 24 months.
c. 48 months.
d. 75 months.

d. 75 months.

69

69. (020) When does a document become delinquent after processing the information from the
document control record (DCR) document?
a. 6th calendar day.
b. 10th calendar day.
c. 6 months.
d. 1 year.

a. 6th calendar day.

70

70. (020) How often does document control hold a meeting to discuss document delinquent status?
a. Daily.
b. Monthly.
c. Quarterly.
d. Annually.

a. Daily.

71

71. (021) Which materiel management register may be prepared to replace the Daily Transaction
Register (D06)?
a. Consolidated Inventory Adjustment Document (IAD) (M10).
b. Daily Document Control (D04), part 1.
c. Consolidated Transaction (M19).
d. Conversion Audit List (R22).

c. Consolidated Transaction (M19)

72

72. (021) Which materiel management register lists information from the transactions stored in the
daily transaction history area of the materiel management database?
a. Priority Monitor Report (D18).
b. Daily Document Control (D04).
c. Consolidated Transaction (M19).
d. Consolidated Inventory Adjustment Document (IAD) (M10).

b. Daily Document Control (D04).

73

73. (021) The Consolidated Inventory Adjustment Document (IAD) Register (M10) must contain an
entry for each adjustment transaction appearing on what two registers?
a. D04 and D05.
b. D04 and D06.
c. D05 and D08.
d. D06 and D08.

b. D04 and D06.

74

74. (022) What is the purpose of the Shipment-Suspense Program?
a. Hold an item that has not been confirmed.
b. Determine whether an item is lost.
c. Ensure an item has been shipped.
d. Put an item on backorder.

c. Ensure an item has been shipped.

75

75. (022) All shipments and transfers processed through the logistics readiness squadron (LRS)
produce what type of detail?
a. Registered Equipment Management (REM) vehicles-only or special-spares.
b. Special-purpose recoverables authorized maintenance (SPRAM).
c. Shipment-suspense or shipped not credited (SNC).
d. Shipment inventory.

c. Shipment-suspense or shipped not credited (SNC)

76

76. (022) Which transaction identification code is used to update the shipment-suspense detail?
a. SSC.
b. SSG.
c. SCG.
d. SCS.

a. SSC.

77

77. (022) Which listing is used to manage delinquent shipment suspense details?
a. R04.
b. R23.
c. R40.
d. R43.

c. R40.

78

78. (023) Which transaction identification code is used for an automated reverse-post (RVP)
transaction?
a. 1AM.
b. 1CC.
c. 1TK.
d. 1WC.

a. 1AM.

79

79. (023) What information is required to process an automated reverse-post (RVP) input?
a. Transaction serial number, quantity, and type transaction phrase code (TTPC).
b. Transaction serial number, quantity, and date.
c. Transaction serial number, TTPC, and date.
d. Quantity, TTPC, and date.

c. Transaction serial number, TTPC, and date.