VTNE questions Flashcards

1
Q

Using the Triadan system, the proper way of describing a dog’s first upper left premolar is:
a. 205, b.105, c.306, d.502

A

a.205

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The normal adult canine mouth has how many permanent teeth?

a.40, b.42, c.48, d.52

A

b.42

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

You have an instrument in your hand that has two sharp sides, a rounded back, and a rounded point, you are holding a…
a.sickle scaler, b.morris scaler, c.universal curette, d.sickle currette

A

c. universal curette

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which of the following statements is false with respect to polishing an animal’s teeth following scaling?

a. the polishing paste used should be of medium or fine granularity
b. polishing acts to remove microscopic grooves left by the scaling process
c. the polishing instrument should be moved from tooth to tooth to prevent thermal damage to the pulp
d. polishing is a means for removing stubborn plaque that occurs below the gumline

A

d. Polishing is a means for removing stubborn plaque that occurs below the gumline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Apical means “toward the _____”

a. root tip, b.crown, c. cheeks, d. tongue

A

a. root tip

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Wry mouth refers to which of the following types of oral malocclusions?
a. elongation of the head on either the left or right side, b. elongation of the maxilla in comparison to the mandible, c. elongation of the mandible in comparison to the maxilla, d. loss of maxillary incisors

A

a. elongation of the head on either the left or right side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

A bulldog would be described as having what type of head shape?
a. brachycephalic, b. dolichocephalic, c. mesaticephalic, d. prognacephalic

A

a. Brachycephalic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which of the following is a proper dental term for describing a tooth surface?
a. mesial- farthest from the midline, b. mesial- nearest the front, c. distal- nearest the midline, d. distal-farthest from the midline

A

D. distal- farthest from the midline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The cat has which of the following numbers of maxillary and mandibular premolars in one half of the mouth?
a. 3 and 2, b. 3 and 3, c. 2 and 3, d. 2 and 2

A

a. 3 and 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which of the following is a proper dental term for describing a tooth surface?
a. palatal-facing the cheek teeth, b. labial- facing the tongue, c. buccal- facing the cheek, d. rostral- toward the back

A

c. buccal- facing the cheek

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Topical fluoride…
a. will stain remaining calculus red, b. helps desensitize teeth and slows the rate of plaque formation, c. should never be used on feline teeth, d. enhances osteoclastic activity and helps desensitize teeth

A

b. helps desensitize teeth and slows the rate of plaque formation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the directional term for “toward the root”?

a. apical, b. rostral, c. furcation, d. buccal

A

a. apical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

The dental formula for the permanent teeth in the dog is 2 (I 3/3 and C 1/1) plus…

a. P 3/4 and M 3/2= 40
b. P 3/4 and M 3/3=42
c. P 4/4 and M 2/3=42
d. P 4/4 and M 3/2=42

A

c. P 4/4 and M 2/3 =42

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

A client wants to know what chew toy would be safest for her dog’s teeth. You suggest that she is best to give Fido a…
a. dried cow hoof, b. nylon rope toy, c. dense rubber exerciser, d. large knuckle bone

A

c. Dense rubber exerciser

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The heaviest calculus deposition in dogs and cats is typically located on the…
a. lingual surfaces of the lower cheek teeth, b. lower canine teeth, c. incisor teeth, d. buccal surfaces of the upper cheek teeth

A

d. Buccal surfaces of the upper cheek teeth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

When using hand instruments to clean teeth,
a. use a modified pen grasp with a back-and-forth-scraping motion, b. use a modified pen grasp with overlapping pull strokes that are directed away from the gingival margin, c. use the sickle scaler for subgingival curettage, d. the curette is best used supragingivally

A

b. Use a modified pen grasp with overlapping pull strokes that are directed away from the gingival margin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the main purpose of premolar teeth?

a. holding and tearing, b. cutting and breaking, c. grinding, d. gnawing and grooming

A

b. cutting and breaking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

As a dentifrice for use in small animals, baking soda..
a. is an excellent choice, b. should be mixed with salt and water to form a paste, c. should be mixed with fluoride gel to form a paste, d. should not be used as a dentifrice for animals

A

d. should not be used as a dentifrice for animals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The thin film covering a tooth that comprises bacteria, saliva, and food particles is…
a. plaque, b. attrition, c. calculus, d. erosion

A

a. plaque

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Dentin is covered by…

a. enamel and bone, b. bone and pulp, c. cementum and enamel, d. pulp and cementum

A

c. cementum and enamel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What teeth on each side of the mouth in a dog have three roots?

a. maxillary third and fourth premolars and first molar
b. maxillary fourth premolars and first and second molars
c. mandibular fourth premolars and first and second molars
d. mandibular and maxillary fourth premolars and first and second molars

A

b. maxillary fourth premolars and first and second molars

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

After polishing with a prophylactic paste that contains fluoride, rinsing with diluted chlorhexidine..

a. is less effective, because the fluoride interferes with bonding of chlorhexidine to tissues
b. results in temporary blue staining of the teeth
c. enhances the activity of both fluoride and chlorhexidine
d. may be toxic to the patient

A

a. is less effective, because the fluoride interferes with bonding of chlorhexidine to tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Normal scissor occlusion is when the maxillary fourth premolars occlude…
a. level with the mandibular fourth premolar, b. buccally to the mandibular first molar, c. buccally to the mandibular fourth premolar, d. lingually to the mandibular first molar

A

b. buccally to the mandibular first molar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

The permanent canine and premolar teeth in dogs generally erupt at about what age?
a. 3 to 5 months, b. 4 to 6 months, c.5 to 7 months, d. 6 to 8 months

A

b. 4 to 6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

A ventral-dorsal view in which the x-ray bean passes from the bottom of the jaw through the teeth is..
a. rostral maxillary, b. distal mandibular view, c. rostral mandibular view, d. rostral oblique view

A

c. rostral mandibular view

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Prevention of periodontal disease involves all of the following except…
a. daily teeth brushing or mouth rinsing, b. regular exercise, c. routine professional scaling and polishing, d. proper diet

A

b. regular exercise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

The most common mistake made in treating periodontal disease is…
a. inadequate removal of supragingival calculus, b. inadequate root planning, c. insufficient polishing, d. iatrogenic trauma to subgingival tissues

A

b. inadequate root planing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

For dental radiography of the canine tooth, you should use what size of dental film to ensure that the whole tooth is included?
a. 0, b. 2, c. 4, d. 8X10 screen film

A

c. 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Free or marginal gingiva..

a. occupies the space between the teeth
b. is the most apical portion of the gingiva
c. forms the gingival sulcus around the tooth
d. is tightly bound to the cementum

A

c. forms the gingival sulcus around the tooth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Enamel, which is the hardest body substance..

a. contains living tissue
b. covers the tooth and root
c. continues production by the ameloblasts after eruption
d. is relatively nonporous and impervious

A

d. is relatively nonporous and impervious

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

The crown of a tooth is defined as…

a. the portion above the gum line and covered by enamel
b. the most terminal portion of the root
c. the portion below the gum line
d. the layer of bony tissue that attaches to the alveolar bone

A

a. that portion about the gum line and covered by enamel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

The periodontium includes the periodontal ligament and all of the following except…

a. gingiva
b. cementum
c. alveolar bone
d. enamel

A

d. enamel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

A scaler is used to..

a. check the tooth’s root surface for any irregularities
b. measure the depth of gingival recession
c. scale large amounts of calculus from the tooth’s surface
d. scale calculus from the tooth surface located in the gingival sulcus

A

c. scale large amounts of calculus from the tooth’s surface

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Using the Triadan system, the proper way of describing a cat’s first lower right molar is…
a. 407, b. 409, c. 109, d. 909

A

b. 409

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

To prevent the pulp tissue from thermal damage during ultrasonic scaling, which of the following should be done…
a. use constant irrigation, b. change tips frequently, c. use slow rotational speed, d. use appropriate amounts of paste

A

a. use constant irrigation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

The pulp canal of a tooth contains…

a. nerves, b. blood vessels, c. connective tissue and blood vessels, d. blood vessels, nerves, and connective tissues

A

d. blood vessels, nerves, and connective tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Brachygnathism is a genetic defect best characterized as…
a. a maxilla that is longer than the mandible, b. a mandible that is longer than the maxilla, c. lack of incisors, d. polydontia

A

a. a maxilla that is longer than the mandible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

As part of normal tooth growth, what part of the tooth thickens?
a. enamel, b. pulp, c. dentin, d. gingiva

A

c. dentin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Feline cervical line lesions/feline neck lesions/feline resorptive lesions are of great concern to veterinarians. Which of the following statements regarding these lesions is false?

A: Feline resorptive lesions are aggressive dental caries that result in resorption of roots and subsequent tooth loss.
B: Feline resorptive lesions often present with a raspberry seed type sign at the base of the tooth where it meets the gingival margin.
C: Feline resorptive lesions are effectively managed with steroid administration.
D: It is common to find more than one feline cervical line lesion in the oral cavity.

A

c. feline resorptive lesions are effectively managed with steroid administration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q
Another term for neck lesions on feline teeth is..
a. odontogenic fibroma, b. feline internal odontoclastic resoptive lesions, c. feline external odontoclastic resoptive lesions, d. class 1 enamel fracture
A

c. feline external odontoclastic resoptive lesions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Fluoride acts to accomplish all but which of the following?

a. desensitize the tooth
b. provide antibacterial activity
c. strengthen the enamel
d. strengthen the periodontal ligament

A

d. strengthen the periodontal ligament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

The most common benign soft tissue tumor of the oral cavity is

a. epulide tumor
b. fibrosarcoma
c. malignant melanoma
d. squamous cell carcinoma

A

a. epulide tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

The term that best describes a dog with an abnormally short mandible is

a. prognathism
b. brachygnathism
c. mesaticephalic
d. dolichocephalic

A

b. brachygnathism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is the proper dilution of chlorhexidine solution for use in the mouth?

a. 20%
b. 2.0%
c. 0.2%
d. 10%

A

c. 0.2%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

The carnassial teeth in dogs are

A: P4 and MI
B: P4 and P4
C: M¹ and MI
D: C¹ and CI

A

a. p4 and Mi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Dry socket is more likely to occur when one
A: Ensures there is an increased blood supply to the area
B: Practices good surgical technique
C: Allows a blood clot to form so that fibroblasts are formed
D: Overirrigates the tooth socket so that no clot can form

A

d. overirrigates the tooth socket so that no clot can form

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

In veterinary dentistry, chlorhexidine solutions are used because they
A: Prevent cementoenamel erosion
B: Have antibacterial properties
C: Remove enamel stains and whiten teeth
D: Are used to treat gingival hyperplasia in brachycephalic breeds

A

b. have antibacterial properties

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Pocket depth is measured from the
A: Cementoenamel junction to the bottom of the pocket
B: Current free gingival margin to the bottom of the gingival sulcus
C: Cementoenamel junction to the current free gingival margin and then adding 1 to 2 mm
D: Cementoenamel junction to the apical extent of the defect

A

b. current free gingival margin to the bottom of the gingival sulcus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q
Between patients, it is best to use the following order for maintaining instruments:
A: Use, sharpen, wash, and sterilize 
B: Use, wash, sterilize, and sharpen 
C: Use, wash, sharpen, and sterilize 
D: Wash, sterilize, use, and sharpen
A

c. use, wash, sharpen, and sterilize

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q
Using the modified Triadan system, the right maxillary teeth would be in the \_\_\_\_\_\_ series.
A: 100 
B: 200 
C: 300 
D: 400
A

a. 100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q
Malocclusion in which the canines erupt in an overly upright position, or the mandible is narrowed
A: Posterior crossbite 
B: Base-narrow mandibular canines 
C: Wry mouth 
D: Anterior crossbite
A

b. base-narrow mandibular canines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q
What tooth has three roots?
A: Upper canine 
B: Lower first premolar 
C: Lower first molar  
D: Upper fourth premolar
A

d. upper fourth premolar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q
In patients with severe, chronic periodontal disease and possible osteomyelitis, antibiotics are often begun before a dentistry is performed. What is the most common antibiotic chosen for these animals?
A: Clindamycin 
B: Amoxicillin 
C: Trimethoprim sulfa 
D: Cephalexin
A

a. clindamycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Prognathism is a normal condition in brachycephalic breeds but is considered a genetic defect in other breeds. It is best characterized as
A: A mandible that is longer than the maxilla
B: A maxilla that is longer than the mandible
C: One side of the head is longer than the other
D: An overly long soft palate

A

a. a mandible that is longer than the maxilla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q
When performing dental prophylaxis, minimal safety equipment includes
A: Gloves only 
B: Gloves and mask only 
C: Safety glasses only 
D: Safety glasses, mask, and gloves
A

d. safety glasses, mask, and gloves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q
Malocclusion in which the upper fourth premolar lies palatal to the first molars
A: Posterior crossbite 
B: Base-narrow mandibular canines 
C: Wry mouth 
D: Anterior crossbite
A

a. posterior crossbite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q
When polishing teeth using an air-driven unit, the speed of the hand piece that should be used is the
A: High 
B: Low 
C: Either high or low is acceptable  
D: Finishing
A

b. low

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Which statement concerning the polishing aspect of dental prophylaxis is least accurate?
A: A slow speed should be used.
B: Adequate prophy paste is needed for lubrication and polishing.
C: The polisher should remain on the tooth for as long as is needed to polish the tooth.
D: If teeth are not polished, the rough enamel will promote bacterial plaque formation.

A

c. the polisher should remain on the tooth for as long as is needed to polish the tooth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q
Malocclusion in which one side of the mandible or maxilla is disproportionate to its other side
A: Posterior crossbite 
B: Base-narrow mandibular canines 
C: Wry mouth 
D:Anterior crossbite
A

c. wry mouth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

In which of the following species do the teeth fail to continue growing?

a. equine
b. rabbit
c. rat
d. cat

A

d. cat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q
Malocclusion in which one or more of the upper incisor teeth are caudal to the lower incisors
A: Posterior crossbite 
B: Base-narrow mandibular canines 
C: Wry mouth 
D: Anterior crossbite
A

d. anterior crossbite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

A curette is used to
A: Checkthe tooth’s surface for any irregularities
B: Measure the depth of gingival recession
C: Scale large amounts of calculus from the tooth’s surface
D: Scale calculus from the tooth surface located in the gingival sulcus

A

d. scale calculus from the tooth surface located in the gingival sulcus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q
An elongation of one side of the animal’s head results in
A: Anterior crossbite 
B: Wry mouth 
C: Brachygnathism 
D: Prognathism
A

b. wry mouth

64
Q

The buccal surface of the mandibular molars in a dog refers to the
A: Occlusal surface with the maxillary molars
B: Most rostral surface
C: Surface in contact with the tongue
D: Surface in contact with the cheek tissue

A

d. surface in contact with the cheek tissue

65
Q

What tissue is not part of the periodontium?

a. periodontal ligament, b. alveolar bone, c.root, d. gingiva

A

c. root

66
Q

Gingivoplasy is the..

a. addition of more gingiva to the site
b. binding of the loose teeth together to stabilize them during a healing process
c. removal of hyperplastic gingival tissue
d. removal of a portion of the tooth structure

A

c. removal of hyperplastic gingival tissue

67
Q
To protect the pulp tissue of teeth from thermal damage during ultrasonic scaling, one should 
A: Use constant irrigation. 
B: Change tips frequently. 
C: Use slow rotational speed. 
D: Use appropriate amounts of paste.
A

a. use constant irrigation

68
Q

When scaling gross calculus from the teeth,
A: Hold the scaler using a modified pen grasp
B: Hold the scaler using a modified screw driver grasp
C:Use long controlled strokes toward the gums D: Hold the curette using a modified pen grasp

A

a. hold the scaler using a modified pen grasp

69
Q
What term identifies the instrument used to detect subgingival calculus?
A: Periodontal probe 
B:Explorer 
C: Scaler 
D: Curette
A

b. explorer

70
Q
Dental film should be placed in the mouth with the dimple 
A: Up and pointing rostrally 
B: Up and pointing caudally 
C: Down and pointing rostrally 
D: Down and pointing caudally
A

a. up and pointing rostrally

71
Q
The correct dental formula for an adult dog is
A: 2(l 3/3 C 1/1 P 3/4 M 3/3) = 42 
B: 2(l 3/3 C 1/1 P 4/4 M 3/2) = 42 
C: 2(l 3/3 C 1/1 P 4/4 M 2/3) = 42 
D: 2(l 4/4 C 1/1 P 3/4 M 3/3) = 46
A

c.

72
Q
The most common dental procedure performed on a horse is 
A: Quidding 
B: Curettage 
C: Scaling 
D: Floating
A

d. floating

73
Q
The space between two roots, where they meet the crown, is called 
A: Crook 
B: furcation 
C: Apex 
D: Fissure
A

b. furcation

74
Q

Stomatitis is the
A: Bad breath evident when dental work must be completed
B: Inflammation of the mouth’s soft tissue
C: Inflammation of the stomites found in bones
D: Inflammation of lesions found in the gastrointestinal tract

A

b.inflammation of the mouth’s soft tissue

75
Q

The flap side of the dental film should be facing
A: Any direction, because it does not matter
B: Toward the tube head
C: Away from the tube head
D: The caudal side of the animal

A

c. away from the tube head

76
Q

The bisecting angle principle states that the plane of an x-ray beam should be 90 degrees to the
A: Long axis of the tooth
B: Plane of the film
C: Imaginary line that bisects the angle formed by the tooth’s long axis and the film plane
D: Imaginary line that bisects the angle formed by the animal’s head and the film plane

A

c. imaginary line that bisects the angle formed by the tooths long axis and the film plane

77
Q
A complication that may develop if subgingival plaque is improperly removed is 
A: Etched tooth enamel 
B: Torn epithelial attachment 
C: Overheated tooth 
D: Bitten technician
A

b. torn epithelial attachment

78
Q
You are looking at your dental radiograph and notice that the tooth is elongated. This happened because the beam was perpendicular to the
A: Film 
B: Tooth 
C: Bisecting angle 
D:Wrong tooth
A

b. tooth

79
Q
What mineralized tissue covers the root of the tooth?
A: Calculus 
B: Enamel 
C: Cementum 
D: Dentin
A

c. cementum

80
Q
The nerve and blood vessel of a tooth is located in the
A: Sulcus  
B: Pulp cavity  
C: Marrow cavity 
 D. calculus
A

b. pulp cavity

81
Q
When performing dental prophylaxis, you should be sure to wear
A: Cap, mask, gloves 
B: Gown, gloves, mask 
C: Cap, eye protection, gloves 
D: Mask, eye protection, gloves
A

d. mask, eye protection, gloves

82
Q

The purpose of polishing during the dental prophy is to
A: Massage the gums
B: Smooth out the rough areas and retard plaque formation
C: Apply fluoride
D: Disinfect the surface of the tooth

A

b. smooth out the rough areas and retard plaque formation

83
Q

Ultrasonic scaling
A: Can substitute for hand scaling
B: May cause thermal damage to the tooth if the tip is kept on a tooth for longer than 5 seconds
C: Sprays the tooth with water to wash the tooth clean
D: Sprays the tooth with water to cool the tooth and prevent pulp damage

A

d.

84
Q
Ideally, the cutting edge of the scaler should be held at what angle to the tooth surface?
A: 5 to 10 degrees 
B: 35 to 45 degrees 
C: 15 to 30 degrees 
D: 45 to 90 degrees
A

d. 45 to 90 degrees

85
Q

The following statements are all true except
A: Sulcus depth is measured using a probe.
B: A sulcus depth up to 3 mm is normal in a cat.
C: A sulcus depth greater than 3 mm indicates periodontal disease.
D: The probe is inserted gently into the gingival sulcus parallel to the root of the tooth

A

b

86
Q

An oronasal fistula can often occur secondary to
A: Abscess of the mandibular canine tooth
B: Incisor root abscess
C: Abscess of the maxillary canine tooth
D: Retained deciduous incisors

A

c.

87
Q
What is the minimum age for a cat to have all of its permanent teeth?
A: 6 months 
B: 8 months 
C: 10 months 
D: 1 year
A

a. 6 months

88
Q

An older dog with dental disease is presented to the clinic with a draining tract below his right eye. What is the most likely cause?
A: Right-sided maxillary carnassial tooth root abscess
B: Left-sided maxillary carnassial tooth root abscess
C: Right-sided mandibular carnassial tooth root abscess
D: Maxillary incisor tooth root abscess

A

a

89
Q

The Triadan system is a
A: Tooth identification system designed to aid in dental charting
B: Complete system that includes an ultrasonic scaler and polisher
C: Method for performing radiographs of molars
D: Complete home care dental system for use by clients

A

a.

90
Q

Malocclusions can lead to dental disease for all of the following reasons except
A: Soft tissue trauma from teeth that are abnormally positioned
B: Accelerated development of periodontal disease resulting from lack of normal wear and the normal flushing of teeth with saliva
C: Abnormal wear of teeth resulting from malposition leading to fracture and pulp exposure
D: Presence of resorptive lesions leading to destruction of teeth

A

d.

91
Q
Which of the following teeth are not normally present in the adult cat?
A: P1 and PI and P2 
B: PI and P1 and P2 
C: M2 and MI 
D: M2 and M2
A

a

92
Q

Sometimes a 0.12% chlorhexidine solution is sprayed in the patient’s mouth before beginning dental prophylaxis. What is the benefit of this activity?
A: Sterilizes the patient’s mouth before the procedure
B: Reduces the bacterial load in the mouth to reduce exposure to the technician who performs the procedure
C: Substitutes for prophylactic antibiotic therapy
D: Provides topical anesthetic activity

A

b

93
Q

The furcation is best described as
A: The area between the cementum and enamel
B: The space between two roots where they meet the crown
C: The space between the root and the gingiva
D: The space between two occlusal surfaces

A

B. the space between two roots where they meet the crown

94
Q
Severe stomatitis is a clinical sign commonly associated with which of the following feline disorders?
A: Feline infectious peritonitis 
B: Inflammatory bowel disease 
C: Feline immunodeficiency virus 
D: Toxoplasmosis
A

c. feline immunodeficiency virus

95
Q

Which of the following statements about canine toy breeds is true?
A: Chronic impaction of incisor teeth with hair and debris often results in a chronic osteomyelitis.
B:Malocclusions are rare in toy breeds in comparison with giant-breed dogs.
C: Enamel hypoplasia is a common finding in toy breeds.
D: Prognathism is considered a genetic defect in brachycephalic breeds

A

a.

96
Q

A biopsy report confirms that an oral mass is an acanthomatous epulis; what can be said about this growth?
A: It is a nonmalignant tumor.
B: It is a malignant tumor.
C: It is very likely to metastasized.
D: It is related to the presence of a malocclusion

A

a. it is a nonmalignant tumor

97
Q
Which of the following cardiac diseases is often associated with severe dental disease?
A: Vegetative endocarditis 
B: Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy 
C: Dilative cardiomyopathy 
D: Ventricular arrhythmias
A

a. vegetative endocarditis

98
Q

While performing a routine prophylactic dentistry, the veterinary technician notes a large, red raised lesion on the lip of her feline patient. The client noted that the lesion “comes and goes.” What is a reasonable differential for this lesion?
A: Feline resorptive lesion
B: Trauma-related lesion C: Eosinophilic ulcer
D: Tumor

A

c. eosinophilic ulcer

99
Q

Which of the following statements about eruption of permanent teeth is false?
A: The permanent upper canines erupt mesial to the deciduous canines.
B: The permanent lower canines erupt buccal to the deciduous canines.
C: The permanent incisors erupt distal to the deciduous incisors.
D: The permanent canine teeth erupt at 5 to 6 months of age in the dog

A

b. The permanent lower canines erupt buccal to the deciduous canines

100
Q

The pulp of the tooth has which of the following functions?
A: Anchors the tooth in the alveolar bone with a fibrous ligament
B: Provides the tooth with a protective strong, hard surface
C: Contains blood vessels and nerves that provide nutrition and sensation to the tooth.
D: Develops roots to anchor the tooth into the alveolar bone

A

c. Contains blood vessels and nerves that provide nutrition and sensation to the tooth

101
Q

When the pulp cavity of a tooth is exposed, what is the appropriate procedure(s) that should be performed?
A: Tooth extraction or pulp capping
B: No procedure is required.
C: Filing of the crown leaving roots behind
D: Prophylactic dentistry to reduce tartar and plaque buildup on the tooth

A

a. tooth extraction or pulp capping

102
Q

Perioceutics refer to which of the following?
A: Procedure to restore the periodontal ligament
B: Application of time-released antibiotics directly within the oral cavity
C: Use of antibiotics before dental procedure
D: Procedure to cap the pulp cavity of the tooth

A

b. application of time-released antibiotics directly within the oral cavity

103
Q

The bisecting angle technique is a method for radiographing the oral cavity. The description that adequately describes this technique is
A: The central radiation beam is directed perpendicular to the line that bisects the angle formed by the film and the long axis of the tooth.
B: The central radiation beam is directed parallel to the line that bisects the angle formed by the film and the perpendicular axis of the tooth.
C: The central radiation beam is directed perpendicular to the tooth root.
D: The central radiation beam is directed parallel to the occlusal surface of the tooth.

A

a.The central radiation beam is directed perpendicular to the line that bisects the angle formed by the film and the long axis of the tooth

104
Q

Which of the following statements is false when performing an ultrasonic scaling during routine dental prophylaxis?
A: The ultrasonic scaler should not be on the tooth for longer than 20 seconds at a time to prevent thermal damage to the pulp cavity.
B: The ultrasonic scaler should be grasped like a pencil.
C: The side of the instrument should be used rather than the tip against the tooth.
D: The ultrasonic scaler can be used for supragingival and subgingival scaling.

A

d.The ultrasonic scaler can be used for supragingival and subgingival scaling.

105
Q

Which of the following statements is false regarding patient safety during a dentistry?
A: An appropriately sized mouth gag is essential to prevent temporomandibular joint damage.
B: The endotracheal tube should be uncuffed so that the tube can be easily manipulated when performing dentistry.
C: Large-breed dogs should be rolled with their legs under to prevent a gastric dilatation and volvulus crisis.
D: One must monitor the patient to ensure that fluids and debris from the dentistry do not gain access to the trachea

A

b.The endotracheal tube should be uncuffed so that the tube can be easily manipulated when performing dentistry

106
Q
Generally speaking, most dental instruments should be held as you would a
A: Knife 
B: Pencil 
C: Hammer 
D: Toothbrush
A

b. pencil

107
Q
A dog that was exposed to distemper perinatally may develop which of the following oral pathologic conditions?
A: Adontia 
B: Polydontia 
C: Enamel hypoplasia 
D: Enamel staining
A

c. enamel hypoplasia

108
Q
The root length of an upper canine is how long compared with the length of the exposed portion of that tooth?
A: One half the length 
B: Same length 
C: Three times the length 
D:One and a half times the length
A

d. one and a half times the length

109
Q
What term identifies the instrument used for removal of supragingival calculus?
A: Periodontal probe 
B: Explorer 
C: Scaler 
D: Curette
A

c. scaler

110
Q
The upper fourth premolar communicates with what sinus?
A: Mandibular 
B: Occipital 
C: Maxillary 
D: Orbital
A

c. maxillary

111
Q
The range for acceptable gingival sulcal measurements in cats is
A: 1 to 3 mm 
B: 0.5 to 1 mm 
C: 1.5 to 4.5 mm 
D: 0.005 to 0.007 mm
A

b. 0.5 to 1 mm

112
Q
Class II malocclusions in which the teeth in the mandible are distal to their maxillary equivalents is termed
A: Mesioclusions 
B:Distoclusions 
C: Neutroclusions 
D: Oroclusions
A

b. distoclusions

113
Q
In what grade of periodontal disease does early pocket formation occur without initial bone loss?
A: Grade I 
B: Grade II 
C: Grade III 
D: Grade IV
A

c. Grade III

114
Q

A curette
A: Is used strictly as a supragingival instrument
B: Can be used either supragingivally or subgingivally
C: Is the most important dental instrument
D: Is used to irrigate the teeth with air or water

A

b. can be used either supragingivally or subgingivally

115
Q
What drug should not be given to pregnant dogs because it may cause discoloration of the puppies’ teeth?
A: Amoxicillin 
B: Tetracycline 
C: Chloramphenicol 
D: Penicillin
A

b. tetracycline

116
Q
The occlusal surface of a caudal tooth is defined as the
A: Surface facing the hard palate 
B: Surface nearer the cheek 
C: Chewing surface of the tooth 
D: Surface nearer the tongue
A

c. chewing surface of the tooth

117
Q
Surface of the tooth toward the lips is
A: Occlusal 
B: Labial 
C: Buccal 
D: Mesial
A

b. labial

118
Q
What term identifies the tooth surface facing the cheeks?
A: Apical 
B: Rostral 
C: Furcation 
D: Buccal
A

d. buccal

119
Q
The instrument used to measure pocket depth is a periodontal
A: Explorer 
B: Scaler 
C: Curette 
D: Probe
A

d. probe

120
Q
What term identifies the wearing away of teeth by tooth-against-tooth contact during mastication?
A: Plaque 
B: Attrition 
C: Calculus 
D:Erosion
A

b. attrition

121
Q
Excessive growth of gingival tissue is termed
A: Gingivitis 
B: Gingival hyperplasia 
C: Gingival hypoplasia 
D: Gingivectomy
A

b. gingival hyperplasia

122
Q
What term identifies the hard, mineralized substance on the tooth surface?
A: Plaque 
B: Attritione 
C: Calculus 
D: Erosion
A

c. calculus

123
Q
What term identifies the loss of tooth structure by chemical means?
A: Plaque 
B: Attrition 
C: Calculus 
D: Erosion
A

d. erosion

124
Q
Of cats and dogs ages 6 years and older, approximately what percentage has periodontal disease?
A: 20% 
B: 35% 
C: 50% 
D: 85%
A

d. 85%

125
Q
The bulk of a tooth is composed of
A: Enamel 
B: Pulp 
C: Dentin 
D: Cementum
A

c. dentin

126
Q
Removal of calculus and necrotic cementum from the tooth roots is called
A: Curettage 
B: Splinting 
C: Root planing 
D: Scaling
A

c. root planing

127
Q

The purpose of fluoride treatment is to
A: Prevent thermal damage and lubrication
B: Strengthen enamel and help desensitize teeth
C: Remove plaque and strengthen the enamel
D: Irrigate and lubricate

A

b. strengthen enamel and help desensitize teeth

128
Q
Mrs. Walker comes to pick up her dog after dental prophylaxis has been performed. Which of the following topics would be least helpful to be discussed as a part of the discharge instructions?
A: Chewing exercises 
B: Home care 
C: How to give injections 
D: Dietary concerns
A

c. how to give injections

129
Q
Once plaque has formed on a tooth, how long does it take to mineralize into calculus?
A: About 7 days 
B: 2 weeks 
C:4 weeks 
D: 2 months
A

a. about 7 days

130
Q
The most common dental procedure performed on horses is
A: Quidding 
B: Floating 
C: Repelling 
D: Scaling
A

b. floating

131
Q
The correct dental formula for an adult cat is
A: 2(l 3/3 C 1/1 P 3/2 M 1/1) = 30 
B: 2(l 4/4 C 1/1 P 2/3 M 1/1) = 34 
C: 2(l 3/3 C 1/1 P 2/3 M 1/1) = 30 
D: 2(l 3/3 C 1/1 P 3/2 M 2/1) = 32
A

a

132
Q
What term identifies the space between the roots of the same tooth?
A: Apical 
B: Rostral 
C: Furcation 
D: Buccal
A

c. furcation

133
Q
What is the directional term for “toward the front of the head”?
A: Apical 
B: Rostral 
C: Furcation 
D: Buccal
A

b. rostral

134
Q

Chlorhexidine contributes to dental prophylaxis by
A: Slowly dissolving calculus
B: Bonding to the cell membrane and inhibiting bacterial growth
C: Bleaching stained teeth
D: Decreasing tooth sensitivity

A

b. bonding to the cell membrane and inhibiting bacterial growth

135
Q
Fewer teeth than normal is
A: Polydontia 
B: Oligodontia 
C: Anodontia 
D: Wry mouth
A

b. oligodontia

136
Q
In normal occlusion, the bite is termed
A: Scissor bite 
B: Straight bite 
C: Occlusal bite 
D: Razor bite
A

a. scissor bite

137
Q
What term identifies the instrument used for root planing?
A: Periodontal probe 
B: Explorer 
C: Scaler 
D: Curette
A

d. curette

138
Q

If the lower incisors seem to be excessively loose in a brachycephalic or miniature-breed dog,
A: The teeth should be extracted.
B: The depth of the gingival sulcus should be tested.
C: The dog is calcium deficient.
D: The dog has advanced periodontal disease.

A

b. the depth of the gingival sulcus should be tested

139
Q

The term polyodontia refers to
A: Retained deciduous teeth
B: Supernumerary teeth
C: Supernumerary teeth and retained deciduous teeth
D: Tooth loss as a result of periodontal disease

A

b. supernumerary

140
Q
Fractured deciduous teeth
A: Should be left in place until they are normally shed 
B: Should be repaired 
C: Are insignificant 
D: Should be extracted
A

d. should be extracted

141
Q

The first dental examination should occur when
A: The animal is 2 to 3 years old
B: The client requests it
C: A problem such as drooling or bad breath is noticed
D: The animal is 6 to 8 weeks old

A

d. the animal is 6 to 8 weeks old

142
Q

The deciduous incisors
A: Erupt at 3 1/2 to 4 weeks of age
B: Have roots that are proportionately longer than the roots of permanent incisors
C: Are the most frequently retained teeth
D: Are not usually replaced with permanent incisors until the dog is 6 months old

A

b. have roots that are proportionately longer than the roots of permanent incisors

143
Q
Nerves and blood vessels enter the tooth through the
A: Apical delta 
B:Crown 
C: Pulp 
D: Sulcus
A

a. apical delta

144
Q
When one or more of the upper incisors rest caudally to the lower incisors and the rest of the occlusion is normal, it is called
A: Level bite 
B:Wry mouth 
C: Anterior crossbite 
D:Anodontia
A

c. anterior crossbite

145
Q

In radiographs, an apical abscess appears as a
A: Radiopaque area around the apex of the tooth
B: Radiolucent area around the apex of the tooth
C: Radiopaque area inside the tooth pulp
D: Radiolucent area inside the tooth pulp

A

b. radiolucent area around the apex of the tooth

146
Q

The normal periodontal pocket depth in the dog is
A: 3 mm
D: 5 mm

A

a. <3 mm

147
Q
The shrinkage of free gingiva in the presence of bacteria, plaque, and/or dental calculus is termed
A: Recessional gum disease 
B: Gingival intussusception 
C: Gingival reduction 
D: Gingival recession
A

d. gingival recession

148
Q
Two tooth buds that grow together to form one larger tooth is referred to as
A: Gemini 
B: Fusion 
C: Polydontia 
D: Oligodontia
A

b. fusion

149
Q
The term for a tooth that has one root but two crowns is
A: Gemini 
B: Fusion 
C: Polydontia 
D: Oligodontia
A

a. gemini

150
Q
Surface of the tooth toward the cheek is
A: Occlusal 
B: Labial 
C: Buccal 
D: Mesial
A

c. buccal

151
Q
More teeth than normal is
A: Polydontia 
B: Oligodontia 
C: Anodontia 
D: Wry mouth
A

a. polydontia

152
Q
Surface of the tooth toward the tongue is
A: Lingual 
B: Labial 
C: Buccal 
D: Mesial
A

a. lingual

153
Q
Also called distemper teeth, the name for a condition where sections of the tooth enamel are reduced or missing is
A: Prognathic 
B: Enamel hypoplasia 
C: Erosion 
D: Jaundice enamel
A

b. enamel hypoplasia

154
Q
Class III malocclusions in which the mandibular teeth are occluded mesial to their maxillary equivalents is termed
A: Mesioclusions 
B: Distoclusions 
C: Neutroclusions 
D: Oroclusions
A

a. mesioclusions

155
Q
The carnassial tooth in the cat is also known as
A: Upper first premolar 
B: Upper first molar 
C: Upper last premolar 
D: Upper canine
A

c. upper last premolar

156
Q
A dorsal-ventral view in which the x-ray beam passes from the top of the nose through the teeth is
A: Rostral maxillary 
B: Distal mandibular view 
C: Rostral mandibular view 
D: Rostral oblique view
A

a. rostral maxillary

157
Q
The only radiographic view that can be made with a true parallel technique is
A: Rostral maxillary 
B: Distal mandibular view 
C: Rostral mandibular view 
D: Rostral oblique view
A

b. distal mandibular view