WEEK 14: metabolic disorders, genetic & dev disorders & infectious diseases, & MSK neophasms Flashcards

1
Q

What two systems are involved in metabolic disorders?

A

Endocrine and nervous

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2
Q

Define osteomalacia/adult rickets.

A

Malacia: softening without loss of matrix

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3
Q

Define osteopenia.

A

Penia: low bone mass

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4
Q

Define osteopetrosis.

A

Petrosis: increased density

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5
Q

What two factors is bone strength based on?

A

Density and quality

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6
Q

What increases during growth and development to enhance bone density and quality?

A

Bone mineral density

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7
Q

In osteoporosis, muscle pain and trigger points can occur in lower back paravertebral muscles and which muscles?

A

Rhomboid

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8
Q

Osteomalacia results from deficiency in calcium, vitamin D, and what?

A

Phosphate

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9
Q

What is the second most common metabolic bone disease that has increased bone resorption and excessive unorganized new bone formation?

A

Paget disease

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10
Q

Developmental dysplasia of the hip occurs dynamically in utero until when?

A

First year of life

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11
Q

What signs can be observed in newborns/non-walking children up to 12 months with DDH?

A
  • Ortolani
  • Barlow
  • Galeazzie (asymmetric)
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12
Q

Physical asymmetries in newborns/non-walking children with DDH include limitation of hip what?

A

Abduction

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13
Q

In an ambulating child, uncorrected bilateral dysplasia leads to what type of compensated gait?

A

Trendelenburg (leaning towards weight-bearing side)

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14
Q

In an ambulating child, unilateral dysplasia leads to positive Trendelenburg and flexion contracture on the involved side due to post displacement of hips, resulting in lumbar what?

A

Lordosis

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15
Q

What is the generalized connective tissue disorder that has skeletal fragility and growth deficiency, also called brittle bone disease?

A

Osteogenesis imperfecta

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16
Q

True or False: Lower extremities are more involved in osteogenesis imperfecta than upper extremities.

17
Q

What is the term for inflammation of bone caused by an infectious organism?

A

Osteomyelitis

18
Q

What four areas are most affected by osteomyelitis?

A
  • Spine
  • Pelvis
  • Arms
  • Legs
19
Q

What type of osteomyelitis is a rapidly destructive pyogenic infection often seen in children, older adults, and IV drug abusers?

20
Q

What type of infection occurs around the time of surgery and is caused by contaminated instruments?

A

Perioperative

21
Q

What type of infection occurs because of a primary infection somewhere else?

A

Hematogenous

22
Q

What type of infection occurs secondary to nearby infection?

A

Contiguous

23
Q

What is the term for infection of vertebral spine components?

A

Spondylodiscitis

24
Q

Where is the most common site for spinal infection with annulus, nucleus, or vertebral endplate being affected?

A

Intervertebral disk

25
Where does pain radiate to with spondylodiscitis?
Lower extremities
26
What type of primary tumors are bone island, osteoid osteoma, and osteoblastoma?
Benign bone
27
What type of primary tumors are osteosarcoma, chondrosarcoma, ewing sarcoma, chordoma, giant cell tumor, and multiple myeloma?
Malignant bone
28
What type of primary tumors are lipoma, ganglia, popliteal cyst, nerve sheath, desmoid, enchondroma, and osteochondroma?
Benign soft tissue and cartilage
29
What type of primary tumors are fibrous histiocytoma, leiomyosarcoma, liposarcoma, synovial sarcoma, rhabdomyosarcoma, and chondrosarcoma?
Malignant soft tissue and cartilage
30
Where is the third most common site of metastatic spread after lung and liver?
Skeletal
31
Neoplasm of bone can be a cause of pain in which two areas, especially in men older than 50?
- Lumbar spine - Hip
32
What type of cancer commonly metastasizes to pelvis, ribs, vertebrae, and proximal femur?
Breast
33
What type of cancer is the most common source of skeletal metastases in men?
Prostate
34
What type of cancer commonly metastasizes to vertebrae, pelvis, and proximal femur?
Kidney