WEEK #2 WEEK OF 1/21/13 PART I – SAFETY BULLETINS #7 {CIRS} PART II – TB - FIRES #7 & 8 PART III – AUC’S #259, 266 & 268 PART IV – FFP – TAXPAYERS {Sec. 5.7 – end} PART V – DUNN - CHAPTERS 8 & 10 INSTRUCTOR: DC JIM DIDOMENICO Flashcards Preview

Firetech > WEEK #2 WEEK OF 1/21/13 PART I – SAFETY BULLETINS #7 {CIRS} PART II – TB - FIRES #7 & 8 PART III – AUC’S #259, 266 & 268 PART IV – FFP – TAXPAYERS {Sec. 5.7 – end} PART V – DUNN - CHAPTERS 8 & 10 INSTRUCTOR: DC JIM DIDOMENICO > Flashcards

Flashcards in WEEK #2 WEEK OF 1/21/13 PART I – SAFETY BULLETINS #7 {CIRS} PART II – TB - FIRES #7 & 8 PART III – AUC’S #259, 266 & 268 PART IV – FFP – TAXPAYERS {Sec. 5.7 – end} PART V – DUNN - CHAPTERS 8 & 10 INSTRUCTOR: DC JIM DIDOMENICO Deck (77):
1

1. The medical officer must be notified in which situation(s)? (2.1, 2.2)
A. All injuries - Service connected, remainder of the tour, and minor injuries
B. All biological exposure - with or without symptoms
C. All non-biological exposure - with or without symptoms
D. All illnesses - unrelated to an exposure (food poisoning) - that occur on duty

1. A, B

2

2. Which one of the following injuries would be correctly reported as a minor injury?
(2.1.3)
A. A first degree burn
B. A sprain with only minor swelling or discoloration
C. Any degree of conjunctivitis
D. A member who faints for a few seconds - with a resulting minor contusion

2. A

3

3. If a member returns from an incident where he was exposed to a chemical and is now
coughing from the exposure, the company officer would be correct to prepare? (2.2.2)
A. Only an exposure report, indicating the symptoms
B. Only an injury report, indicating the exposure
C. Both an injury report and an exposure report, noting both in each narrative

3. C

2.2 Exposures
2.2.1 Biological Exposures - A member exposed to bloodborne, airborne, or other
infectious pathogens (e.g., bodily fluids). Medical officer notification is required
with or without symptoms.
2.2.2 Non-Biological Exposures - A member exposed to a non-biological hazardous
substance, or possible hazardous substance. Medical officer notification is
required only for symptoms.
Note: If a member exhibits symptoms from a biological or non-biological exposure,
both an Injury and an Exposure Report must be completed.

4

4. An officer preparing an exposure or injury report is incorrect to think? (3.4, 3.5, 3.6)
A. No report can be initiated in the CIRS without first notifying the medical officer
B. An injury report in addition to the exposure report, must always be prepared if there are
symptoms to any type of exposure—biological or non-biological
C. The FDID number found on the lower left of the response ticket must be included when
initiating an injury or exposure report to which a unit responded
D. If an injury or exposure occurred at a non-response, the company officer shall enter all 9’s
in the 16-digit space where the FDID normally is entered

4. A

5

5. A company officer would be correct to think that? (4.1)
A. All available injury and exposure information must be initiated and submitted no later than
7 days from the date of the injury / exposure.
B. An injury / exposure report not initiated within 7 days—cannot be entered into CIRS—
unless a CIRS 1 report is forwarded to the Chief of Operations
C. All Biological & Non-Biological exposures must be entered into CIRS immediately
D. An officer may submit a “Group Report” for any identical biological exposure—provided
there are no symptoms and all members are assigned to the same unit

5. A

4.1 All available injury/exposure information must be initiated and submitted no later
than 7 days from the date of the injury/exposure with or without the member’s signature
and/or narrative.
Any injury/exposure reports that are not initiated and submitted within 7 days from the
date of the injury/exposure cannot be entered into CIRS. If this occurs, the Supervisor is
required to forward a CIRS-1 report, available on the Intranet, through the chain of
command to the Chief of Safety with an explanation of the circumstances

6

6. A multiple member injury report must be forwarded to the? (Add 2)
A. Chief of Operations, whenever two or more members suffer injuries at the same incident,
whether medical leave is required or not
B. Chief of Operations, whenever three or more members suffer injuries at the same incident,
whether medical leave is required or not
C. Chief of Operations, whenever three or more members suffer injuries at the same incident,
resulting in medical leave
D. Chief of Safety, whenever three or more members suffer injuries at the same incident,
resulting in medical leave

6. C

7

1. An officer conducting drill on incinerator and compactor incidents was incorrect when she
stated that? (Communications 8, Fires 7—1.2, 1.3)
A. Extension of fire beyond the chute or shaft is more likely in the case of compactors
B. In city housing projects, the chute door is color coded gray to indicate a compactor
C. A compactor fire is only considered a structural fire if it extends beyond the unit or the
chute.
D. A 10-27 shall only be transmitted for a compactor or incinerator fire that does not extend
beyond the compactor unit or beyond the compactor or incinerator shaft

1. C

1. An officer conducting drill on incinerator and compactor incidents was incorrect when she
stated that? (Communications 8, Fires 7—1.2, 1.3)
A. Extension of fire beyond the chute or shaft is more likely in the case of compactors
B. In city housing projects, the chute door is color coded gray to indicate a compactor
C. A compactor fire is only considered a structural fire if it extends beyond the unit or the
chute.
D. A 10-27 shall only be transmitted for a compactor or incinerator fire that does not extend
beyond the compactor unit or beyond the compactor or incinerator shaft

8

2. When searching for a blockage at incinerator operations, it would be inaccurate to state
that? (2.2, 4.1)
A. If you open a chute door on a floor and smoke comes out, the blockage is generally above
that floor
B. If you open a chute door on a floor and a draft goes inward or only a little smoke comes
out, the blockage is generally below that floor
C. If smoke is present on the uppermost floor, there may be a clogged or blocked spark
arrestor or fly ash collector
D. Engine company members may be used to assist with searching and venting provided that
at least two members from the engine remain in the lobby

2. D

2. When searching for a blockage at incinerator operations, it would be inaccurate to state
that? (2.2, 4.1)
A. If you open a chute door on a floor and smoke comes out, the blockage is generally above
that floor
B. If you open a chute door on a floor and a draft goes inward or only a little smoke comes
out, the blockage is generally below that floor
C. If smoke is present on the uppermost floor, there may be a clogged or blocked spark
arrestor or fly ash collector
D. Engine company members may be used to assist with searching and venting provided that
at least two members from the engine remain in the lobby

9

3. Units operating at an incinerator emergency with a blockage causing a heavy smoke
condition should be guided by all of the following tactics except? (2.3 C, D, E, 2.4 B, 3.3)
A. Do not drop anything down the chute that is not secured with a rope
B. Whenever a blockage cannot be freed, consider burning it off
C. If all else fails, a hoseline can be used from the floor above to extinguish the fire
D. Whenever fire is put out by flooding the shaft with water, the auxiliary gas or fuel burner
must be shut down, and it must be shut before flooding the shaft
E. Members attempting to clear a blockage from the base of the incinerator or between the
incinerator and the 1st floor should first shut off the auxiliary burner

3. D

10

4. A Ladder company operating at an incinerator emergency where a blockage is reported on
the 4th floor of a 6-story building would be incorrect to think that? (2.1, 2.3 F, H, 2.4)
A. Before leaving the lobby, the Roof FF chocked open the stairwell door at the ground floor
level. He also opened and secured the stairwell bulkhead door
B. The LCC was sent to operate the oversized fans to improve ventilation
C. The Officer, FE team and OV operated inside the building searching for the blockage and
chocking open stairwell doors to vertically vent the smoke
D. The Roof FF, believing the blockage was near the top of the incinerator chute, looked for a
means of access into the fly ash collector to clear the blockage. Fly ash collectors are sometimes
equipped with a means of access.

4. D

NOTE: A fly ash collector is an area near top of the incinerator vent shaft for collecting fly ash
that results from incomplete combustion of the waste material. It can be as small as
an enlarged area in the shaft or as large as a small room. It is always equipped with a
means of access cleaning (generally a steel door). Use caution in the larger collectors
because there may be an open hole in the floor large enough to fall into. Also, if the
area is small, hot ash may come down on member when opening door.

11

5. Regarding the fire protection requirements for compactors, it would be incorrect to state
that? (7.1—7.4)
A. The compactor room should be supplied with an automatic sprinkler system. A water outlet
and hose are also required in the compactor room
B. Sprinkler heads are required in compactor units. They should be arranged to be readily
replaced, unless electrically operated.
C. The FDNY does not replace sprinkler heads. It is the responsibility of building
maintenance to put the sprinkler back in service
D. Electrically operated sprinkler heads are open heads that are designed not to be replaced.
They activate at approximately 145 degrees, and flow water until the temperature falls below 145
degrees.
E. An OS & Y valve, controlling both the automatic head in the compactor and heads in the
compactor room is usually found on the water line in or near the compactor room.

5. D

12

6. First alarm units arrive at the scene of a fire in a compactor chute that is located on the 7th
floor of a 26 story high rise multiple dwelling. It would be incorrect for which action to be taken
in this situation? (8.2 A, B, C, D)
A. The first engine should stretch a 2 ½” line off the standpipe & extinguish the fire from the
8th floor. The 1st OV should proceed with the Engine to provide access to the chute
B. The officer and forcible entry team should first locate the electrical shutoff and shut power
to the unit before operations commence. They should not attempt to operate the compactor unit
without qualified building personnel under any circumstances.
C. The compactor unit access door shall not be opened until after the engine has extinguished
the fire and the sprinkler OS & Y has been closed
D. The Roof FF will generally proceed to the roof to vent, then search and vent stairways and
floors as needed

6. B

13

7. First alarm units arrive at the scene of a fire in the compactor unit. The fire is confined to
the unit and has not extended to the compactor room or the chute. In this situation, it would be
correct for the engine to stretch a line to the? (8.3 A)
A. First floor and operate into the chute to extinguish the fire
B. Compactor room and operate into the unit to extinguish the fire

7. A

8.3 Fire in Compactor Unit (no extension to the chute).
A. If the fire has not extended into the room, the engine company stretches a line to first
floor, and operates into chute to extinguish the fire.
B. OV operates with engine to provide access to the chute and to check for extension.
C. The roof firefighter of the ladder company will generally proceed to the roof to vent.
1) After venting roof, this member will search and vent stairways floors, etc., as
needed.
D. The chauffeur's duties will vary and will generally be as directed by the officer to:
1) Provide special tools in the compactor room or assist in search and venting, etc.
E. The officer and forcible entry team of the ladder company will operate in the compactor
room.
1) The officer and forcible entry team must first locate the electrical shut off and
shut power to the unit before operations commence.
NOTE: The shut off will generally be on the wall in the compactor room. The
compactor unit can be operated if there is a need, to help clear the unit;
however, extreme caution must be exercised. Refer to Reference #3.
2) After the engine company has extinguished the fire, the ladder company may
begin overhauling. Before opening the compactor unit access door be sure the
hoseline is shut down and sprinkler OS&Y is closed. If the engine is still using
the line or the sprinkler is still operating, glass and other debris may be driven
out of the compactor unit.
3) Open door to unit and pull garbage to reach fire.
4) Most rooms have a hook up for a garden hose. Use it to wet down debris as it
is pulled from chute.
5) Check for extension.

14

8. The response to incidents on express highways is guided by which one of the following
points? (TB Fires 8—5.1, 5.2)
A. One engine and one ladder from each direction, and a Battalion Chief, will be assigned to
all express highway incidents. This same response will also be assigned to EMS responses to
highways for accidents with injuries and / or pedestrians struck.
B. No fewer than three units shall operate at an incident on an express highway or other
potentially dangerous roadway
C. At least one vehicle, other than the pumper being used to extinguish a fire, shall be used to
divert or block oncoming traffic. The FDNY vehicle blocking traffic must do so for the duration
of the operation even if the PD arrives on scene & assumes traffic control
D. If an engine and ladder are operating at an incident with a handline stretched and
extrication tools in use, only two units are required, and the ladder apparatus shall be used to
divert or block traffic.

8. A

15

9. If an on-scene EMS unit requests a fire unit backup, then one engine company will be
dispatched to the verified incident location to block or divert oncoming traffic, support EMS
operations as needed, and remain for the duration of both Fire and EMS operations: (5.2)
A. Agree or D. Disagree?

9. D

When EMS units are on scene at any other type of highway incident and requests a fire
unit back-up, then a single ladder company will be dispatched to the verified incident
location to divert or block oncoming traffic. Members shall support EMS operations as
needed. A ladder company shall remain on the scene to divert or block oncoming traffic
for the duration of both fire and EMS operations. High Visibility Safety Vests shall be
donned as per Section 7.

16

10. A lieutenant of an Engine Company responding to the scene of a vehicle fire would be
incorrect to think that? (4.4, 5.3, 6.1, 6.2)
A. All fires and emergencies involving motor vehicles on other than express highways shall
receive a minimum response of one engine and one ladder
B. Upon arrival at the scene of an incident on a highway, the dispatcher shall be notified to
request response of the police department, and if required, an authorized tow
C. The engine apparatus shall always be placed to the rear of the incident with the pump panel
placed in the protected area.
D. Apparatus shall be placed at an angle to the incident when feasible to maximize safety
E. The second apparatus, and third if necessary, shall always be placed between oncoming
traffic and the operating forces

10. C

6.2 Where placement of apparatus will expose it to the possibility of fire extension, pumper
may be placed beyond the fire vehicle, but second apparatus, and third if necessary, shall
always be placed between oncoming traffic and the operating forces.

17

11. A company officer arriving at the scene of a motor vehicle incident would be incorrect to
think that? (TB Fires 8—4.2 B, 4.2 C, 4.7)
A. Units may need to use their apparatus to completely stop traffic in all lanes of a highway on
the side where the incident occurred, at least until the arrival of the PD to control traffic
B. The IC shall coordinate with the ranking police officer which lane closures are necessary to
control the scene
C. The greatest danger of secondary collision occurs during periods of moderate to heavy
traffic volume
D. When weather conditions or smoke blowing across a highway limit visibility, the highway
must be closed

11. C

Traffic flow: the volume and speed of the moving traffic on the highway or
street. The greatest danger of secondary collision occurs during periods of
light to moderate traffic volume with the usual accompanying high speed.
During this type of traffic flow we can expect speeds of 70 mph or more,
despite posted speeds of 50 mph on express highways.

18

12. When operating at vehicle fires and emergencies on roadways, it would be inaccurate to
state that? (6.4, 6.5, 6.6, 7.1)
A. Even if the operation occurs off of the roadway, an apparatus must be placed to provide a
safe working environment
B. The blocking apparatus shall be at least 50 feet behind the vehicle involved in fire
C. Members shall avoid standing on a highway pavement to the rear of the second apparatus,
unless placing flares, cones or signs, and traffic is stopped
D. Members are required to wear high visibility safety vests when operating on all highways
at all times, day or night. There are some exceptions to this policy.

12. B

6.5 Blocking apparatus shall be placed at least fifty (50) feet behind the first operating unit to
create a safe working area.

19

13. Which member(s) indicated below are required to wear a high visibility safety vest at a
highway incident? (More than one correct) (7.1.1, 7.1.2)
A. Nozzle & Backup FF’s in the process of extinguishing a fully involved car fire
B. Nozzle & Backup FF’s that completed extinguishing a car fire and have returned to the
engine apparatus to take a blow
C. Member in a Level A chemical protective suit operating to mitigate a tanker spill
D. Member operating in technical rescue PPE for a technical rescue incident
E. Members operating at a highway accident where they were special called to block traffic
and are assisting EMS with the carrying of an obese patient to the ambulance

13. B, E

20

14. When placing flares or cones at motor vehicle incidents, it would be incorrect to state that?
(8.1 B, D, E)
A. Flares shall be used at night or periods of reduced visibility. Cones shall be used during
both day and nighttime operations
B. Flares shall not be used at a gas leak, or a flammable or combustible liquid incident where
their use would create a danger of fire or explosion
C. If available, two members should be used to place flares and / or cones. Otherwise, after all
traffic is stopped, one member may be used.
D. Before leaving the apparatus, the member with the flares should light one flare and carry
the lit flare in a horizontal position while walking to place the flares
E. The furthest flare and / or cone should be placed about 2 feet from the edge of the road,
with each subsequent flare and / or cone placed equidistant, about 2 feet further into the road

14. C

21

15. Units arriving at the scene of a car fire are ordered to place flares to block one lane of
traffic. The fastest speed expected on this roadway is 60 mph. In regards to the placement of the
flares, it would be correct to state that the minimum distance to the furthest flare should be at
least ______ feet? (8.1 E3)
A. 310 B. 360 C. 420 D. 550

15. C

22

16. Units operating at fires on express highways would be correct to think that? (More than
one correct) (9.1 B, C, H, I)
A. If absolutely necessary to operate across a center divider on an express highway, traffic
shall be stopped in both directions and safety warning devices set up
B. When units are operating across a center divider on an express highway, the operation shall
be released as soon as possible to units operating from the incident side
C. If firefighters are operating on / from a service roadway for an incident on an express
highway, warning devices should be placed as soon as possible at both locations
D. Aerial or tower ladders setup to access an elevated roadway should be cantilevered parallel
to the elevated roadway—and not extended beyond the shoulder where they could be exposed to
moving traffic.

16. A, B, C, D

23

17. An engine and ladder arriving at the scene of a van fire on a main artery in the South Bronx
would be correct to take which action(s)? (More than one correct) (11.1)
A. They chocked both their apparatus and the van
B. They operated the line directly through the front grill to knock down a fire in the engine
compartment
C. They used a coarse spray stream - a partially opened nozzle with the tip removed - on
burning magnesium parts
D. They used a fog stream to drive fire away from victims in the van
E. The ladder company operated a second line to protect an extrication procedure
F. The ladder company used a 6’ hook to support the hood once it was opened
G. After the fire was knocked down, they removed the engine cover in the passenger
compartment by standing to the side of the engine cover
H. The battery was disconnected by first removing the positive terminal, then the negative
terminal

17-A, C, D, E, F, G,

17-A, C, D, E, F, G,

24

18. An engine and ladder arriving at the scene of a fire in a hybrid vehicle on a divided
boulevard in Brooklyn would be correct to think? (11.6)
A. Hybrid vehicle shutdown is indicated by the fact the vehicle is silent. Avoid the front and
rear of such hybrid vehicles until they are disabled.
B. Some hybrid vehicles have a safety switch or disconnect mechanism to disconnect the
battery from the vehicle’s electrical system
C. Never cut any high voltage cables on hybrid vehicles. High voltage cables are usually
color-coded to warn of their danger. Most high voltage cables are color-coded BLUE
D. Inside the hybrid vehicle, make sure the READY light is not on. Also insure the ignition is
OFF and the key or key fob is at least 10 feet away from the vehicle
E. Always make sure that the high voltage battery case is cooled down to prevent re-ignition
at hybrid vehicle fires

18. E

C. Hybrid Vehicle Safety Considerations:
• To avoid being in the path of a moving vehicle do not approach from the front
or rear until the vehicle has been disabled. Hybrids may appear as if they are
shut down but may actually be in “Ready Mode”. Never assume the vehicle is
off simply because it is silent. The vehicle makes virtually no noise when the
drive system is powered.
• NEVER cut any high voltage cables. High voltage cables in hybrid vehicles are
usually color-coded to warn you of their potential danger. On most, the high
voltage cables are color-coded ORANGE. Although some cables are colorcoded
BLUE. Avoid contact with these cables unless the high voltage battery in
the back of the vehicle has first been disconnected.
• All hybrid batteries have a safety switch or disconnect mechanism to
disconnect the battery from the vehicle's electrical system. The location of the
battery disconnect safety switch and the disconnect procedure will vary from
one application to another.
• Many hybrid vehicles use a keyless start system. Make sure the ignition is
OFF and the key or key fob is at least 15 feet away from the vehicle.
• Make sure the READY light is not on. If the power is on, the high voltage
system is live and poses a shock hazard should you come into direct contact
with any of its uninsulated electrical components (such as the inverter under
the hood).
• At a hybrid vehicle fire, ALWAYS make sure that the high voltage battery
case is cooled down to prevent re-ignition.
• Always chock the vehicle, put transmission in park, shut off ignition, remove
key, and engage parking brake.

25

Utilize the following information to answer questions 1 - 3
You are an office working in Reserve Apparatus - Engine 522, which is normally kept at
the quarters of E329. Engine 522 is being established in service for the 9x6 tour at the
quarters of E268, and will be responding to CFR-D responses.
1. When calling the Queens dispatcher on the Department radio, it would be correct for you to
state? (5.2)
A. “Reserve 522 acting E268 to Queens, K”
B. “RE-522 acting E268 to Queens, K”
C. “Engine 522 to Queens. K”
D. “Engine 522 acting E268 to Queens, K”

1. D

5.2 Reserve apparatus shall be assigned as if it were a relocator in the quarters where needed.
It will, therefore, take a standard relocator's identity for the period in service at the
particular quarters.
Example: Eng. 506 (a reserve apparatus) is established in the quarters of Eng. 219. It
would be identified as "E 506 acting E 219". NOTE: The terminology 2nd or 3rd, etc.,
section is. not acceptable.

26

Utilize the following information to answer questions 1 - 3
You are an office working in Reserve Apparatus - Engine 522, which is normally kept at
the quarters of E329. Engine 522 is being established in service for the 9x6 tour at the
quarters of E268, and will be responding to CFR-D responses.

2. You would be incorrect to think that during your tour of duty with Engine 522?
(6.4, 9.2, 9.6, 9.7)
A. A third copy of Engine 522’s riding list shall be posted at the housewatch desk
B. You must have a complement of at least 2 CFR-D trained FF’s
C. Your initial stock of CFR-D equipment to start the tour will be picked up at the Battalion
Depot
D. During the tour, you should exchange out of service medical equipment and procure
additional medical supplies from the Battalion Depot

2. C

27

Utilize the following information to answer questions 1 - 3
You are an office working in Reserve Apparatus - Engine 522, which is normally kept at
the quarters of E329. Engine 522 is being established in service for the 9x6 tour at the
quarters of E268, and will be responding to CFR-D responses.

3. At the end of the 9 x 6 tour, you return the apparatus to the quarters of E329. The Officer of
E329 then determines that there is a missing nozzle. In this situation, as the officer in charge of
the Reserve Apparatus for that tour, you are responsible to? (7.5.3)
A. Immediately notify the Administrative Battalion about the loss
B. Record the loss in the journal of E329
C. Forward a report to the Chief of Department documenting the missing items and explaining
the circumstances of the loss
D. Forward a Lost Property Report

3. D

28

4. Which point concerning transformers is incorrect? (3.2.1, 5.2.1A)
A. Combustible materials must not be stored within a “PCB Transformer” enclosure or within
5 meters of a “PCB Transformer” or an unenclosed “PCB Transformer”
B. The trade name “Askarel” indicates a dielectric fluid which contain PCB’s in the hundreds
of thousands of PPM
C. A transformer cooled by “Air” will have no PCB’s
D. The FDNY considers a transformer with at least 50 PPM or more of PCBs as a PCB
Transformer

4. D

"PCB TRANSFORMER" (500 or more ppm of PCB)

"PCB-CONTAMINATED TRANSFORMERS" (50-499 ppm of PCB)

29

5. Units arrive at the scene of a transformer incident in a Hi-Rise Office Building, where an
energized electrical transformer needs to be deactivated. The dispatcher advises units that Con
Ed is reporting a one hour ETA. Regarding the deactivation of the transformer, it would be
correct to state that? (6.4.2)
A. A knowledgeable firefighter familiar with the procedure, with proper PPE, may perform
deactivation. Otherwise, wait for Con Ed to deactivate
B. An engineer of the premises familiar with the procedure may perform deactivation.
Otherwise, wait for Con Ed to deactivate
C. An on-site electrician familiar with the procedure may perform deactivation. Otherwise,
wait for Con Ed to deactivate
D. Only Con Ed personnel may perform deactivation

5. B

30

6. While operating at an incident where there is burning transformer, members shall assume
that the oil is PCB until proven otherwise. In that regard, it would be correct to state that?
(6.4.7, 6.4.8, 6.4.12, 7.1, 8.1)
A. Use of SCBA is mandatory, even in areas of light smoke. SCBA shall be used at all times,
until the IC confirms the area is free of toxic gases
B. Evacuation of the fire floor and all areas exposed (even with a light haze of smoke) shall be
given prime consideration
C. A Staging Area shall be established by the IC
D. Decontamination procedures shall be implemented when members or equipment are
exposed to any levels of PCB’s

6. A, B, C

8.1 Decontamination procedures outlined in the Emergency Response Plan: Hazardous
Materials shall be implemented only when members or equipment are exposed to levels
of PCB's of 50 PPM or higher. Federal regulations consider transformers containing a
PCB level of less than 50 PPM to be non-PCB transformers.

31

7. The use of railroad cars transformers containing fluids with a PCB concentration greater
than ____ ppm is prohibited by the EPA? (Add 2—section 2)
A. 250 B. 500 C. 750 D. 1000

7. D

32

8. First alarm units arrive at the scene of a transformer incident on a Metro North M2 car,
where they find a rail car with a burning transformer. In this situation, it would be correct for
them to think? (Add 2 3.2—3.4)
A. The “A” cars have odd numbers and the “B” cars have even numbers
B. The “A” and “B” cars will both have pantographs
C. The “A” and “B” cars will both have a PCB containing transformer with an EPA approved
label
D. The best way to identify M2 cars is the orange stripe on each side of the car and the
pantograph on the roof of the “B” car

8. C

33

9. A Battalion Chief operating at the scene of a 1st floor fire in a 2-family private dwelling is
notified by a civilian that a FF has just stolen an “Ipad” from the second floor apartment and
placed it on the apparatus. It is 0645 hours when the allegation is made and the fire is still
doubtful. In this situation, the BC would be most correct to direct an immediate search of the?
(AUC 268 2.1.10)
A. Second floor, then if the Ipad is not found, notify the IG directly by department phone
immediately upon return to quarters
B. Second floor, then if the Ipad is not found, notify the IG’s on-call supervisor by calling
FDOC by cell phone from the scene as soon as conditions permit
C. Apparatus, then if the Ipad is found, immediately notify the IG’s on-call supervisor by cell
phone from the scene
D. Second floor and the apparatus, then if the Ipad is not found, notify the IG by department
phone during normal business hours

9. B

2.1.10 Any allegation concerning thefts by employees during fire and emergency
operations, inspectional activities or from quarters, requires immediate (as soon as
fire or emergency operations permit) notification to the Inspector General. This
notification will be made by the Incident Commander at the scene via cellular
phone to the Fire Operations Center at (718) 999-2094. The FOC will relay the
information to the Inspector General's Office

34

10. Which notifications below are properly made? (More than one correct)
(AUC 268 1.5, 2, 2.1.5, 2.1.7, 3.1, 3.1.1, 3.1.3, 4.1.4)
A. Monday - 1300 hours: BC is told by aide that the new 50 inch flat screen TV just mounted
in his office, was accepted by members as a gratuity last week for nice job at a major water leak
in P.C. Richard. IG is notified immediately by phone
B. Tuesday - 2300 hours: FF informs Captain that another FF submitted false on-duty injury
claim 3 days ago. IG notified by phone during normal business hours at 0900
C. Wednesday - 0200 hours: Captain notified that an off-duty member has been arrested.
BITS immediately notified in writing—no phone call
D. Thursday - 1330 hours: Lieutenant decides to prefer charges against a member for
insubordination. BITS notified in writing—no phone call
E. Friday - 1900 hours: Chief conducting Roll Call decides to prefer charges against a
member for use of alcohol on-duty. BITS immediately notified by phone via FDOC
F. Saturday - 1300 hours: Lieutenant finds on duty member using cocaine in basement. IG
on-call supervisor immediately notified by phone via FDOC
G. Sunday - 2330 hours: Captain is offered a bribe while inspecting an overcrowding
complaint in a club. IG on-call supervisor immediately notified by phone via FDOC
H. Monday - 1200 hours: Unusual event between members where Company Officer is not
sure whether to call IG or BITS. BITS immediately contacted by phone to clarify

10-A, B, D, E, G

35

1. An Engine Company Officer arriving at the scene of a taxpayer fire before any other
responding units should know that it would be appropriate to transmit a second alarm in which
situation(s)? (More than one correct) (5.7.4)
A. A store fire with extension to the cockloft
B. A store fire with extension to an adjoining occupancy
C. An advanced fire in the cellar
D. An advanced fire in a store where 2 hand lines will be operating

1-A, B, C,

5.7.4 When two handlines are operating on an advanced fire in a store, special call an
extra engine and ladder. Transmit a second alarm for extension to the cockloft,
adjoining occupancy or for an advanced fire in the cellar. The need for additional
ladder companies at these operations is great, anticipate such and special call as
needed.

36

2. Ladder companies responding to a fire in a 1-story taxpayer, with no attached exposures,
would be correct to believe that, at a minimum, there should be how many portable ladders
placed to the roof of that building? (5.7.7, 5.7.8)
A. 3 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6

2. C

37

3. When stretching hose lines at taxpayer fires, it would be correct to state? (7.1.2,
7.1.3, 7.1.4)
A. Supplying a sprinkler system is to be given a high priority before the establishment of the
first line
B. If a heavy fire condition exists, the initial line should be 2 ½”. If a medium fire condition
exists, the initial line may be 1 ¾”
C. If fire conditions require a 2 ½” line in a store fire, then a 2 ½” line must be stretched to
any exposure stores
D. If the striking power and water capability of a 2 ½” line is not required after the initial
attack, the line can then be reduced to 1 ¾” for subsequent operations

3. D

7.1.4 When compatible with fire conditions, 1-3/4 inch lines may be used in exposures

38

4. First alarm engines arriving on the scene of a cellar fire in a taxpayer would be correct to take
all of the following actions except? (7.2.2 D, F, G, H, I)
A. If there is an interior stair to the cellar, and conditions permit, the first line must be
stretched to this point
B. A hose line stretched to the cellar should be flaked out, charged, and have kinks removed
before advancing down the cellar stairs.
C. If the first line can advance down the cellar stairs, it should do so and a second line must
then be stretched to the top of the stairs for protection and to prevent extension
D. An Officer should monitor heat conditions, using an ungloved hand if necessary, to insure
that members are not caught in a rollover or flashover
E. The last member on the line in the cellar and a member at the interior entrance to the cellar
on the first floor should both be monitoring conditions for danger that may develop

4. D

39

5. If it is impossible to stretch a line to a cellar fire via the interior stairs, lines must then be
operated from front or rear cellar entrances. Advancing two lines into the cellar simultaneously
may also be attempted to control the fire. However, if an interior attack is not possible; other
strategies will need to be attempted. The last resort strategy at taxpayer cellar fires is?
(7.2.2Q)
A. Operating lines from adjoining cellars through holes made in partitions
B. Flooding the first floor with a Stang Nozzle or Tower Ladder Pipe
C. Use of a cellar pipe or distributor through holes in the first floor
D. Use of High Expansion Foam

5. B

40

6. At taxpayer cellar fires where the cellar is protected by a sprinkler system, it would be
incorrect to state that? (7.2.3 A, B, C)
A. The first engine should stretch a line into the occupancy above the fire and if staffing and
conditions permit, stretch a second line to feed the sprinkler system
B. The second engine should assist the first engine with the initial line, and if staffing and
conditions permit, stretch a second handline.
C. The second engine may be requested to stretch a second line to supply a cellar pipe or
distributor
D. If the second engine is committed to assisting the first engine, the third engine will stretch
the second handline
E. The 3rd engine is the unit that is responsible to ensure that the sprinkler system is supplied
at cellar fires

6. E
This is obviously incorrect as per new documents

C. Third engine company: - Ensure sprinkler system is supplied. When
second engine is assisting with first line, stretch a second line which may
be used as in section B, subsections 1 through 4 above.

41

7. First alarm units arrive at the scene of a taxpayer fire at 1400 hours. The taxpayer has seven
stores and the fire is located in the rear of the middle store, an occupied pizzeria with civilians
still inside. A heavy smoke condition is issuing from exposure 02, a bakery that has been
evacuated. A medium smoke condition is also issuing from exposure 04, an occupied hair salon.
In this situation, it would be most correct for the first handline to be stretched to and through the
pizzeria? (7.3.1 A, B)
A. Exit door; and the second handline stretched to the bakery
B. Exit door; and the second handline stretched to the pizzeria as a backup line
C. Store front window; and the second handline stretched to the hair salon
D. Store front window; and the second handline stretched to the pizzeria as a backup line

7. B

7.3.1 Tactics (store fires)
A. At taxpayer fires during business hours, there may be major life hazards.
The first arriving engines must position their lines if possible, between the
people and the fire. Break the store front windows for line advancement
and leave the exit doors free for the people to use.
B. The first two hand lines should be stretched to the store involved. Refer to
Section 7.1.2 for hose sizes and operating procedures.

42

8. At a store or cockloft fire when the building is protected by a sprinkler system, it is correct
to state the ____ is responsible to insure that the sprinkler system is supplied? (7.3.5 C)
A. First engine company C. Third engine company
B. Second engine company D. Fourth engine company

8. C

43

9. The last resort strategy to extinguish a cockloft fire in a taxpayer is? (7.3.3 F, G, H, I)
A. Use of an exterior stream via a multiversal, deckpipe, or tower ladder
B. Use of a cellar pipe, distributor, or bent tip from the roof
C. Operating a hoseline directly into a roof opening only after all interior operations are
ceased or personnel are withdrawn to a safe area

9. A

F. Operate from the roof with cellar pipes, distributors or New York bent
tips. Protective lines should be stretched to protect members operating
these appliances.
G. Operate hoselines directly into roof openings. This generally is not a good
practice but in some cases may be the only way of hitting the fire and
controlling it.
Note: Before lines are operated into the roof all interior operations
must cease or personnel withdrawn to a safe area. It must be
remembered that the primary purpose of roof lines is to
protect members operating on the roof and prevent fire
extension to exposures.
H. As a last resort:
When roof or interior operations are dangerous, personnel shall be
withdrawn and the use of tower ladder, multiversal and deckpipe streams
resorted to.

44

Answer Questions 10 - 11 based on the following scenario:
First alarm units arrive at 0845 hours at the scene of a fire in a one-story taxpayer that has
9 stores. They find a heavy fire condition in the cockloft in a Radio Shack, the very last
store to the right, on the “4-side” of the structure. The store owner, who has just opened
the store, tells you there was an electrical problem in the ceiling when he closed the store
yesterday. Some of the other stores on the “2-side” are being opened up by store owners
who have also just arrived on scene. The first OV now gives an “Urgent” message
indicating that there is heavy fire showing through the roof in the rear, seriously
threatening Exposure 4, a 6-story occupied H-type.
10. In this situation, it would be most correct for the 1st line to be stretched to? (7.3.5 A)
A. Exposure 4 C. Exposure 02A
B. Exposure 02 D. The Radio Shack Store

10. A

45

Answer Questions 10 - 11 based on the following scenario:
First alarm units arrive at 0845 hours at the scene of a fire in a one-story taxpayer that has
9 stores. They find a heavy fire condition in the cockloft in a Radio Shack, the very last
store to the right, on the “4-side” of the structure. The store owner, who has just opened
the store, tells you there was an electrical problem in the ceiling when he closed the store
yesterday. Some of the other stores on the “2-side” are being opened up by store owners
who have also just arrived on scene. The first OV now gives an “Urgent” message
indicating that there is heavy fire showing through the roof in the rear, seriously
threatening Exposure 4, a 6-story occupied H-type.

11. In this situation, it would be most correct for the 2nd line to be stretched to? (7.3.5 A)
A. Exposure 4 C. Exposure 02A
B. Exposure 2 D. The Radio Shack Store

11. C

B. Cockloft Fires
First engine company: - When fire has control of the cockloft and the
need for exposure protection is critical, position the engine to utilize the
deckpipe. In-line pumping will give good positioning and allow room for
placement of a tower ladder.
1. Stretch a handline into the most seriously exposed
occupancy/building, depending on life hazard and the location and
severity of the fire.
2. Refer to Section 7.1.2 and 7.1.4 for hose sizes and operating
procedures.
3. When exposures are not an immediate problem, then the first line
should be stretched into the store under the main body of fire and
operated to extinguish the fire.

46

12. An Officer conducting drill on Ladder Company operations at taxpayer fires stated that
prompt ventilation of the roof is very important for the safety of occupants and to enable search
and rescue operations. She was then incorrect when she further stated that?
(8.1.3, 8.1.5, 8.1.7, 8.1.10, 8.1.18, 8.1.19)
A. Tower ladders should be positioned in front of the building in preference to aerial ladders.
B. Tower ladders can be used for carrying portable ladders to the roof if access to the rear is
limited.
C. It is the responsibility of the first ladder to arrive to locate and identify the fire. Nothing
shall deter the first arriving ladder from carrying out this task.
D. Roof access should never be attempted from the interior

12. C

8.1.7 It is the responsibility of the first ladder company to arrive to locate and identify
the fire. There may be times when attending to the life hazard may prevent the
carrying out of these assignments. At such times, the second ladder company will
carry out the assignment.

47

13. The officer continued her drill and began discussing ladder company operations at cellar
fires. This time she was correct when she stated? (8.2.1 B, D, H, I, N)
A. Suspect a fire in the walls or the cockloft when smoke shows in many stores and there is a
high heat condition on the first floor with no visible flame
B. Cellars must always be checked. When sending a member into a cellar to shut down
utilities, the member should be teamed up, if possible, with another member
C. When cutting holes on the first floor at a cellar fire, always cut the hole over the main area
of involvement
D. At cellar fires, the floor should not be cut until a hoseline is in position to protect personnel
and prevent extension

13. D

48

Answer questions 14 - 16 based on the following scenario:
At 0345 hours, first alarm units arrive at the scene of a fire in a one-story taxpayer on the
corner of Hillside Avenue and Francis Lewis Boulevard. The taxpayer faces on both of
these streets. Sizeup indicates the building has 9 stores, and is detached from exposures on
all sides of the building. The building is 180 feet wide by 60 feet deep.
Eight stores have their main entrance on Hillside Avenue, and the corner store has its
entrance on the Francis Lewis Boulevard side (the Exposure 2 side). On arrival, units find
a heavy fire condition in the cellar of the 7th store (counting stores from the left to right on
Hillside Avenue). The first two ladder companies are both tower ladders.
14. Regarding the duties of the first and second ladder FE Teams, it would be correct to state
that the? (More than one correct) (8.2.2 A-1, B-1)
A. 1st FE Team should proceed to the store occupancy above the fire and force entry to both
the store entrance and the cellar entrance.
B. 1st FE Team should only remove the show windows to the store when authorized by the IC,
and only when a charged line is in position
C. 2nd FE Team should proceed to adjacent stores and cellar entrances.
D. 2nd FE Team is responsible to shut the utilities in the cellar of the 7th store

14. A, B, C

49

Answer questions 14 - 16 based on the following scenario:
At 0345 hours, first alarm units arrive at the scene of a fire in a one-story taxpayer on the
corner of Hillside Avenue and Francis Lewis Boulevard. The taxpayer faces on both of
these streets. Sizeup indicates the building has 9 stores, and is detached from exposures on
all sides of the building. The building is 180 feet wide by 60 feet deep.
Eight stores have their main entrance on Hillside Avenue, and the corner store has its
entrance on the Francis Lewis Boulevard side (the Exposure 2 side). On arrival, units find
a heavy fire condition in the cellar of the 7th store (counting stores from the left to right on
Hillside Avenue). The first two ladder companies are both tower ladders.

15. Regarding the duties of the Roof and OV of the 1st and 2nd ladder companies, it would be
correct to state which points? (8.2.2 A-2 & 3 B-2 & 3)
1. The 1st Roof FF should raise a PL to the roof and bring a power saw if it is not required
elsewhere
2. The 2nd Roof FF should raise a PL to the roof and bring a power saw if it is not required
elsewhere
3. The 1st OV and 2nd OV’s should provide ventilation at the rear and attempt entry when
teamed up, paying particular attention to the cellar area
A. 2 B. 1, 2 C. 1, 3 D. 2, 3 E. 1, 2, 3

15. A

2. 1st Roof Firefighter
a. Place and raise portable ladder to the roof.
b. After communicating and coordinating with Ladder
Company officer inside the fire area to be vented, provide
necessary roof ventilation of scuttles, skylights, etc.
c. Monitor the roof, unless otherwise directed.

3. Outside Vent Firefighter (OV)
a. Check the rear and sides of the building for access.
b. After communicating and coordinating with Ladder
Company officer inside the area to be vented, provide
ventilation at the rear for the cellar and store above the fire.
c. If access in the rear is available, attempt entry when teamed
with the 2nd Ladder OV (or another available member).
Notify the company officer, and conduct searches with
particular attention given to the first floor rear.

50

Answer questions 14 - 16 based on the following scenario:
At 0345 hours, first alarm units arrive at the scene of a fire in a one-story taxpayer on the
corner of Hillside Avenue and Francis Lewis Boulevard. The taxpayer faces on both of
these streets. Sizeup indicates the building has 9 stores, and is detached from exposures on
all sides of the building. The building is 180 feet wide by 60 feet deep.
Eight stores have their main entrance on Hillside Avenue, and the corner store has its
entrance on the Francis Lewis Boulevard side (the Exposure 2 side). On arrival, units find
a heavy fire condition in the cellar of the 7th store (counting stores from the left to right on
Hillside Avenue). The first two ladder companies are both tower ladders.

16. Regarding the actions of the 1st and 2nd LCC’s, it would be correct to state that the first
arriving tower ladder should be setup on Hillside Avenue in front of the? (8.2.2 A-4)
A. 5th store—the middle occupancy, and the 2nd tower ladder setup on Francis Lewis
Boulevard. Unless otherwise directed, the LCC should operate with the FE Team.
B. 7th store—fire occupancy, and the 2nd tower ladder setup on Francis Lewis Boulevard.
Unless otherwise directed, the LCC should operate with the FE Team.
C. 7th store—fire occupancy, and the 2nd tower ladder setup on Hillside Avenue towards the
Exposure 2 side. Unless otherwise directed, the LCC should stay with the TL apparatus.
D. 7th store—fire occupancy, and the 2nd tower ladder setup on Hillside Avenue toward the
Exposure 2 side. Unless otherwise directed, the LCC should operate with the FE Team.

16. D

 If the taxpayer faces on two streets and the front of the
building is covered by tower ladder(s), then place the
additional tower ladder(s) to cover the other street
front.

c. Join the forcible entry team, if not directed otherwise

51

17. An officer conducting drill on roof operations at cockloft fires was incorrect to make which
statement? (8.3.2 B, C, D)
A. The practicality of trenching at cockloft fires depends on the size of the roof, the volume of
fire, the type of ceilings, and the height of the ceilings
B. Trench cuts should not be utilized at taxpayer fires
C. After cutting a large hole over the fire, examination holes can be made to determine if the
fire has reached other portions of the roof
D. After cutting a large hole over the fire, examination holes also serve to relieve other
portions of the roof of heat and gases and mitigate possible backdrafts

17. B

52

18. Regarding the duties of the first and second ladder FE Teams at store and cockloft fires, it
would be incorrect to state that? (8.3.3 A-1, B-1)
A. The 1st FE Team should proceed to the store occupancy to locate the fire and search the
store and shut the utilities.
B. The 1st FE Team should only remove the show windows to the store when authorized by
the IC, and only when a charged line is in position
C. The 2nd FE Team should proceed to adjacent stores to force entry, open up partitions and
ceilings, and check for extension.
D. The 2nd FE Team is responsible to check the cellar under the fire occupancy for fire

18. D

B. Second ladder company to arrive
1. Forcible Entry Team
a. Force entry into the adjacent stores.
b. Check for fire extension.
c. Perform necessary search.
d. Communicate and coordinate ventilation with Ladder
Company officer in area to be vented.
e. Open up partitions and ceilings for engine companies to
extinguish the fire.

53

19. Regarding the duties of the Roof and OV FF’s at store and cockloft fires, it would be
incorrect to state that? (8.3.3 A-2 & 3 B-2 & 3)
A. The 1st Roof FF should raise a PL to the roof and bring a power saw
B. The 2nd Roof FF should raise a PL to the roof and bring a power saw
C. The 1st OV and 2nd OV should provide ventilation at the rear and attempt entry when
teamed up
D. Both the 1st and 2nd OV should immediately go to the roof at cockloft fires

19. D

3. Outside Vent Firefighter (OV)
a. Check the rear for access.
b. After communicating and coordinating with Ladder officer
in the area to be vented, provide ventilation at the rear.

c. When access in the rear is available, attempt entry when
teamed with the 2nd Ladder OV (or another available
member). Notify the company officer, and conduct
searches.

54

20. First alarm units arrive at the scene of a fire in a 100’ wide by 60’ deep 1-story taxpayer
with 5 stores. The fire is located in a Dunkin Donut’s in the cooking area in the rear. About 5
minutes into the operation, it is determined that the fire has extended to the cockloft. The 1st
arriving ladder company has an aerial ladder and the 2nd arriving ladder company has a tower
ladder. Regarding the duties of both LCC”s, examine statements 1 and 2: (8.3.3 A-4, B-4)
1. The 1st LCC should place the Aerial Ladder away from the fire building, and initially join
the FE Team. Once he learns the fire has extended to the cockloft, he should proceed to the
roof to assist with roof operations
2. The 2nd LCC should place the Tower Ladder in front of the fire building, and initially join
the FE Team. Once he learns the fire has extended to the cockloft, he should proceed to the
roof to assist with roof operations
Which statements are accurate?
A. Only #1 B. Only #2 C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither statement

20. A

55

21. At 4 different taxpayer fires, members took the following tools to their positions:
Fire #1 - The Extinguisher FF took a can and hook to the fire occupancy. She then ran back
to the rig to get a Bam-Bam tool and screwdriver to pull a case-hardened lock
Fire #2 - The FE FF took an ax and halligan. He then went back to the rig to get a power saw
with an aluminum oxide blade to cut security doors
Fire #3 - The 1st OV brought a maul and halligan to the rear of a 1-story taxpayer
Fire #4 - The 2nd OV brought a hook and halligan to the rear of a 1-story taxpayer
At which fires did members take the correct tools? (8.4.3 A, B)
A. 2, 3 B. 2, 4 C. 3, 4 D. 1, 2, 3 E. 2, 3, 4

21. A

2. The Bam-Bam tool and screwdriver are used to pull padlock
cylinders. Brass padlock cylinders are being replaced by "case
hardened" materials. The Bam-Bam tool is ineffective on these
locks.

2. Obstructions which may be encountered in the rear are doors
sealed with wood or metal and bricked up windows. The tools
taken must be commensurate with goals. The maul and halligan
are required. A hook, pike head or flat head ax will be inadequate
in this situation.

56

22. The two Roof FF’s operating at a cockloft fire both brought power saws to the roof. In this
situation, it would be correct for the 1st Roof FF to also bring a/an? (8.4.3 C)
A. 6’ hook, and the 2nd Roof FF to bring a halligan
B. 6’ hook, and the 2nd Roof FF to bring a 6’ hook
D. Ax or halligan, and the 2nd Roof FF to bring a 6’ hook

22. A

57

23. The anticipated use of longer hooks at taxpayer operations necessitates that besides their
normal tool complement, the? (8.4.4)
A. 1st and 2nd ladder companies report in with 10 and 12 foot hooks
B. Trucks, other than the 1st and 2nd ladders, report in with 10 and 12 foot hooks
C. 1st and 2nd ladder companies report in with 12 and 15 foot hooks
D. Trucks, other than the 1st and 2nd ladders, report in with 12 and 15 foot hooks

23. B

58

24. An officer conducting drill on fires on the first floor in a 2-story taxpayer was incorrect to
state that? (9.1)
A. The 2nd floor must be completely laddered with both portable and aerial ladders
B. A large hall on the second floor may mean roof girders and a deep cockloft
C. Ventilation holes may be cut on the second floor to vent the first floor
D. A large open stairway may exist if the second floor occupancy is a meeting hall

24. A

9.1.2 Completely ladder the second floor. Utilize portable ladders

59

25. Units operating at a fire on the second floor of a two-story taxpayer should know that these
fires may be treated as a fire originating on the first floor of a 1-story taxpayer with additional
considerations. Which considerations below are correct? (9.2)
1. An aerial ladder is needed to the roof.
2. If the 2nd floor has a meeting or dance hall, the ceiling beams span greater distances, the
cocklofts may be deeper, and 10’ or longer hooks may be needed for higher ceilings.
A. 1 B. 2 C. 1, 2 D. Neither

25. C

60

26. Regarding the construction of mercantile occupancies (taxpayers) that were built under the
1938 Building Code, it would be incorrect to state that? (Appendix A)
A. The maximum permitted area for a building that faced on 1 street, was 10,000 square feet if
unsprinklered; and 20,000 square feet if it was sprinklered
B. The maximum permitted area for a building that faced on 2 streets, was 14,500 square feet
if unsprinklered; and 29,000 square feet if it was sprinklered
C. The maximum permitted area for a building that faced on 3 streets, was 17,500 square feet
if unsprinklered; and 35,000 square feet if it was sprinklered
D. Concealed roof spaces were required to be cut into areas of 2,500 square feet or less

26. D

1.1 Maximum permitted area of structure is 10,000, 14,500 or 17,500 square feet depending
whether the building faces upon one, two or three street fronts. The area of the structure
is the area between exterior walls or between fire walls. This area may be doubled if the
area is sprinklered. (C26-254)
1.2 Concealed roof space areas to be cut into areas of 3,000 square feet or less by fire stops.
(C26-685)

61

27. Regarding the construction of mercantile occupancies (taxpayers) that were built under the
1968 Building Code, it would be incorrect to state that? (Appendix A)
A. The maximum permitted area for an unsprinklered building is 7,500 square feet, and is
15,000 square feet for a sprinklered building
B. Concealed roof spaces were required to be cut into areas not exceeding 3,000 square feet,
unless they are sprinklered
C. If a building is greater than 7,500 square feet, the required sprinkler system also requires a
siamese
D. In construction group II (example—brick and joist), an existing suspended ceiling must be
completely removed before a new ceiling may be suspended
E. If a structure is over 22 feet high and the roof consists of combustible materials, then the
exterior walls must contain parapets that are at least 2 feet high

27. A

62

1. Timber truss roofs can be built in a variety of shapes including a Gable roof—with an
Inclined Plane Truss, a Flat roof with a Parallel Chord Truss, and an Arch roof that is found with
a Bowstring Truss—the most common timber truss roof. Regarding bowstring truss roofs, it is
inaccurate to state that? (Dunn—Chapter 8)
A. Bowstring roofs have 4 bearing walls - 2 sidewalls supporting the trusses; and front and
rear walls supporting sloping hip rafters or roof joists.
B. Its rear wall will suffer a secondary collapse more often than its front wall
C. Its mounded (arch) roof shape gives warning from the outside of its presence.
D. The large space created by its arched underside will act as a heat sink
E. A large open floor space without columns is a size-up indicator of truss construction.
F. Certain type occupancies frequently use truss construction in the roof - like supermarkets,
bowling alleys, garages, theaters, places of worship…

1. B

63

2. At a fire in a building with a bowstring truss roof, where the IC is getting conflicting
reports regarding the seriousness of the fire from the inside members versus the roof level
members, the successful chief should be guided by the report from? (Dunn—Chapter 8)
A. The inside B. The roof level

2. B

• Given conflicting reports from the inside versus the roof level, the successful chief should be
guided by the report from the roof level.

64

3. First alarm units arrive at the scene of a fire in a supermarket that has a bowstring timber
truss roof that is concealed by a ceiling. On arrival, the first ladder officer determines that there
is a serious fire in the truss attic area above the ceiling. In this situation, it would be correct to
believe that? (Dunn—Chapter 8)
A. The chances are usually good of finding the ladder in a closet which leads to the trap door
that provides access to the attic.
B. Extinguishing the attic fire from below the burning truss through the trap door in the ceiling
has a moderate chance of being successful
C. A good option is to open up 1st floor ceilings and control the truss fire with a hose line from
below. This method avoids hitting the purlins with the hose line
D. Extinguishment of this fire may only be accomplished from above the trusses
E. A defensive outside attack and protecting the exposures is the only correct strategy

3. E

65

4. Units respond to an alarm for an odor of smoke in a commercial building. On arrival, they
find a huge warehouse that has a bowstring timber truss roof that is not concealed by a ceiling.
The 1st officer inside finds the building is evacuated and a large pile of rubbish is burning in the
rear, with flames starting to extend upward. In this situation, it would be most correct to state that
the 1st line stretched should be a? (Dunn—Chapter 8)
A. 2 ½” and attack the main body of fire. If it does not control the flames within the first
minute, interior firefighting shall be discontinued.
B. 1 ¾” and attack the main body of fire. If it does not control the flames within the first few
seconds, interior firefighting shall be discontinued
C. 2 ½” and attack the main body of fire. If it does not control the flames within the first few
seconds, interior firefighting shall be discontinued
D. 2 ½” and maintain a defensive position, operating the line from an area just outside the
front or rear entrance door. If the roof collapses, members will be in a safe area

4. C

66

5. While operating at a fire in a huge commercial building with a bowstring timber truss roof,
which point(s) below would be correct to consider? (Dunn—Chapter 8)
A. A truss roof concealed by a ceiling is much more dangerous to firefighters than a truss roof
without a ceiling
B. When truss web members are enclosed, if a serious fire threatens collapse of the roof, the
timber trusses will fail one truss section at a time
C. Even if the roof stability is unaffected from the fire conditions, firefighters should not be
committed to the roof at all for any type of roof ventilation
D. In a building without a ceiling, where fire at the floor level or in a single timber truss is
successfully controlled, and the fire appears it will not spread, a second large diameter line
should be stretched to sweep the underside of the roof area

5. A

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6. In a structure with a bowstring truss roof, ventilation openings may be made in the sloping
front or rear portion of the roof to provide? (More than one correct) (Dunn Ch 8)
A. Cross ventilation of the entire roof space—if the web members are not enclosed
B. Quick access to the enclosed attic area for a small fire—like an overheated motor
C. An exterior hose line operation thru the ventilation opening
D. An exterior view into the roof area to see if the fire has spread to that area

6. All

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7. Units arrive at a building fire with a bowstring truss roof with no ceiling. The web areas of
all 8 trusses are enclosed, and fire is found in a bay between truss #4 & #5. Only truss #4 is
involved in fire. In this situation, which tactic(s) are correct? (Dunn Ch 8)
A. A FF operating on the roof and ordered to evacuate, should evacuate towards the closest
sidewall, even if a front or rear wall is closer
B. Firefighters attempting the initial attack should use the reach of the stream and may safely
position themselves directly behind truss #5 (the area between trusses 5 & 6)
C. Firefighters attempting the initial attack should use the reach of the stream and may safely
position themselves just inside truss #3 (the area between trusses 3 & 4)

7. B

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8. Regarding the collapse concerns at church fires, it would be incorrect to state that?
(Dunn Ch 8)
A. The portion of a place of worship that is the most unstable is the tower or steeple
B. A steeple on top of a tower is more stable than a dome at the top of a tower
C. At a church fire where there is a peak roof and there is also a steeple or tower, the wall that
presents the least danger is the Exposure 3 wall
D. At attic fires in churches, the ceiling may collapse before the roof collapses

8. B

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9. First alarm units arrive at the scene of a fire in a church and the responding two ladder
companies are both tower ladders. Regarding operations at this incident, it would be correct to
make which point(s)? (More than one correct) (Dunn Ch 8)
A. The first hose line should be taken only through the front door. Side doors of churches
should not be used for the first line
B. The first and second lines stretched into the church should both be 2 1/2” as
maneuverability is not a factor
C. If two hose lines cannot extinguish the fire via an interior attack, withdraw FF’s and fight
the fire from the outside
D. A defensive attack from the inside of the church may be conducted only if the fire is in the
rear of the church
E. The 1st tower ladder should be positioned in a corner safe area, supplied with water and
raised to the Rose Window. Subsequent master streams should be positioned around the structure
to protect exposures.
F. Primary venting should be the Rose Window at the front of the church. When venting the
Rose Window from the bucket—vent the entire window.

9. B, C, E, F

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10. Regarding the ventilation of stained glass windows at church fires, it would be incorrect to
state? (Dunn Ch 8)
A. During the initial hose line attack, venting may not be necessary, because the rising smoke
and heat may allow FF’s to see or approach the fire.
B. Side stained glass windows may not need to be vented. If stained glass window ventilation
is required, place portable ladders against the church, upwind of the windows to be vented.
C. The first venting of stained glass windows should be nearest to the fire on only one side of
the building—the leeward side
D. Venting side stained glass windows will not vent smoke stratifying at the upper reaches of
the building—where wood timber trusses are located

10. C

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11. When fire reaches the attic in a church, the ceilings or truss beams can collapse on
members. In most places of worship, an attic fire can? (Dunn Ch 8)
A. Generally be extinguished with a handline
B. Generally not be extinguished with a handline and requires withdrawal of members and an
exterior attack

11. B

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12. Regarding the characteristics of steel, it would be incorrect to state that? (Dunn Ch 10)
A. Steel has greater tensile and compressive strength than wood or masonry
B. The failure temperature of steel is in the range of 1000-1100 degrees
C. Thin steel reaches the critical temperature for collapse faster than thick steel
D. Steel begins to melt at 1500 degrees

12. D

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13. Regarding the three most common methods used to protect steel from fire—Concrete
Encasement, Membrane Ceilings, and Spray-On Fire-Retarding Material, it would be incorrect to
state? (Dunn Ch 10)
A. Concrete encasement is the best method from a firefighter’s point of view
B. The collapse hazard of a membrane ceiling is the ceiling panels
C. Spray On Fire-Retarding Material is the least effective method
D. The three criteria necessary for Spray On Fire-Retarding Material effectiveness are
adhesion, consistency & thickness

13. B

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14. If Spray On Fire-Retarding Material is applied onto a steel surface that has been previously
painted with primer paint, the adhesion of the SFRM will be? (Dunn Ch 10)
A. Reduced by one-fourth to one-third C. Increased by one-fourth to one-third
B. Reduced by one-third to one-half D. Increased by one-third to one-half

14. B

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15. First alarm units arrive at a fire in a 1-story commercial building where the CIDS indicates
the roof is supported by unprotected steel bar joists. There is a serious fire condition, the building
is unoccupied, and the building has large rectangular windows at its upper portions. In this
situation, members would be correct to think? (Dunn Ch 10)
1. The steel bar joist may collapse after only 5 - 10 minutes of fire exposure
2. It is faster & safer to vent the large rectangular windows than to send FF’s to the roof
3. The IC should consider a strategy of horizontal ventilation & defensive exterior attack

15. D

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16. An officer conducting drill on the causes of failure of unprotected steel was incorrect when
he stated that? (Dunn Ch 10)
A. Steel heated to 1100 degrees loses 50% of its load carrying capability
B. The heavier the load is placed on heated steel roof beams, the faster they will collapse
C. A large solid steel I-beam absorbs heat and takes a relatively long time to reach its failure
temperature.
D. There is little heat sink capacity in thin lightweight steel structural supports. They can be
heated to failure temperature much faster than larger, thicker sections of steel
E. A large area fire where flames involve much of the steel beam in a shorter period of time
will heat the steel beam to its critical temperature more quickly

16. A

Decks in Firetech Class (61):