WEEK #6 WEEK OF 10/21/13 PART I – FFP – MD’s {Sec. 1 – 5} PART II – ERP {Pgs 24 – to the end} PART III – TB – TOOLS #24, 26, 27 & 28 PART IV – COMMUNICATION MANUAL – CHAP. #10 ADD #2 INSTRUCTOR: BC PAT SHERIDAN Flashcards Preview

Firetech > WEEK #6 WEEK OF 10/21/13 PART I – FFP – MD’s {Sec. 1 – 5} PART II – ERP {Pgs 24 – to the end} PART III – TB – TOOLS #24, 26, 27 & 28 PART IV – COMMUNICATION MANUAL – CHAP. #10 ADD #2 INSTRUCTOR: BC PAT SHERIDAN > Flashcards

Flashcards in WEEK #6 WEEK OF 10/21/13 PART I – FFP – MD’s {Sec. 1 – 5} PART II – ERP {Pgs 24 – to the end} PART III – TB – TOOLS #24, 26, 27 & 28 PART IV – COMMUNICATION MANUAL – CHAP. #10 ADD #2 INSTRUCTOR: BC PAT SHERIDAN Deck (64):
1

PART I – FFP – MD’s {Sec. 1 – 5}:
1. FDNY Firefighting Procedure Bulletins often begin by reinforcing the provisions of FDNY
Procedures dealing with the Safety Team (Two-In Two-Out). Which one of the following
choices is incorrect concerning these procedures? (1.1.4)
(A) When a fire progresses past the incipient stage, the fire area must be considered an IDLH
atmosphere.
(B) Every member entering the IDLH must be equipped with personal protective equipment
and a SCBA.
(C) No member shall enter an IDLH atmosphere unless the member teams-up with at least one
other member and remains within voice and visual contact with that member.
(D) If a known life hazard is found and immediate action could prevent the loss of life,
appropriate action (rescue activity) may be taken by the individual member. If such action is
taken, the IC must be immediately notified and appropriate adjustments made.

1. C

2

2. Old Law Tenements (OLTs) are multiple dwellings built before 4/12/01. These buildings
are 3 to 7 seven stories in height, 20’to 25’ wide, and 50’ to 85’ deep. Which one of the
following is an incorrect description of these buildings? (Sec. 2.1, FFP Tenements 7.2.6)
(A) Class 3, non-fireproof construction (brick walls, wood floor beams and wood floors). Steel
columns and beams will not be found in Old Law Tenements, including buildings that have been
renovated.
(B) Originally the stairs and stairway enclosures were wood with wood lath and plaster
partitions. In 1934 most of these buildings were required to fire retard the stairway enclosure.
(C) Two means of egress from each apartment almost always consisting of an interior stairway
and a fire escape. To provide light and air to each room, shafts of different shapes and sizes are
provided between adjoining buildings.
(D) Stairway to the cellar is located inside the building, usually beneath the interior stairway.

2. A

3

3. New Law Tenements (NLTs) are Multiple Dwellings built after 4/12/1901. These
buildings are larger than Old Law Tenements and usually contain several apartments on each
floor. NLTs are generally six or seven stories high, 35’ to 50’ wide, 85’ deep, with five to six
apartments per floor. Of the following choices, which one does not correctly describe NLTs?
(2.2.1)
(A) The first floor (cellar ceiling) is of fireproof construction and unpierced.
(B) The entrance to the cellar is by way of an exterior stair.
(C) The interior stairs are fireproof and enclosed in partitions of fireproof construction.
Apartment doors are constructed of fire resistant materials.
(D) All interior walls and furred partitions are required to be fire stopped at each story.
(E) Steel “I” beams were introduced to carry floor joists which couldn’t span enlarged floor
areas. These steel beams generally were supported by steel columns.

3. E

 The second means of egress is either another stairway or an exterior fire escape. The
fire escape is more generally found in these buildings.
 All interior walls and furred partitions are required to be fire stopped at each story.
 Steel "I" beams were introduced to carry floor joists which couldn't span the enlarged
floor areas. These steel beams generally were supported by masonry walls.

4

4. Newer types of NLT’s erected between 1916 and 1929 included several features that
distinguished them from earlier NLTs. These buildings had a much larger floor area (e.g.
150’x200’) than the earlier NLTs. Which one of the following features of these buildings is
described correctly? (2.2.2)
(A) To avoid being required to be built of fireproof construction, the floor areas were broken up
into units of 3000 square feet or less. This means that between some apartments there are brick
or fireproof partitions which effectively limit the horizontal spread of fire.
(B) These brick or fireproof dividing walls only go as high as the underside of the roof boards.
This results in a very large undivided cockloft area. Fire can, and often does, spread throughout
this large cockloft area.
(C) Protected steel beams are used to support some of the wood floor joists. These steel beams
are supported by vertical steel columns which run the height of the building.
(D) Wooden floor joists (beams) run horizontally from brick wall to a steel girder or from a
steel girder to a steel girder.
(E) Entrance to the basement is by a front door at that level via an exterior stair from the first
floor, or through a passageway located in the rear of the building.

4. D

 To avoid being required to be built of fireproof construction, the floor areas were
broken up into areas of 2,500 square feet or less. This means that between some
apartments there are brick or fireproof partitions which effectively limit the
horizontal spread of fire. However, these dividing walls only go as high as the ceiling
of the top floor.

 Unprotected steel beams are used to support some of the wood floor joists. These
steel beams are supported by vertical steel columns which run the height of the
building.

 Entrance to the basement is by a side or rear door at that level, accessed via an
exterior stair from the first floor, or through a passageway located in the front of the
building

5

5. After 4/18/29 the Class “A” apartment type of multiple dwelling were no longer called
“Tenements” and became known as “Apartment Houses.” It must be emphasized that no matter
what protection a law provides, it cannot be depended upon entirely in these NFP buildings due
to renovations, settling of the building, shoddy workmanship originally or repair work. Which of
the following is correct concerning protection found in Class “A” multiple dwellings built after
4/18/29? (2.2.3 C, D, 2.2.2 D)
(A) A NFP building constructed in 1935 would have firewalls required to be carried to the top
of the roof boards and the size of the area enclosed by fire walls is 3000 square feet.
(B) A NFP building constructed in 1941 would have firewalls required to be carried to the
underside of the roof boards and the size of the area enclosed by fire walls is 2500 square feet.
(C) A NFP building constructed in 1930 would have firewalls required to be carried to the
underside of the roof boards and the size of the area enclosed by fire walls is 3000 square feet.
(D) A NFP building constructed in 1933 would have firewalls required to be carried to the top
of the roof boards and the size of the area enclosed by fire walls is 2500 square feet.

5. C

 Between 1930 and 1940, firewalls were required to be carried to the underside of the
roof boards, and after 1940, to the top of the roof boards. These changes were
designed to effectively reduce the size of the cockloft and limit fire spread.
 The size of the area to be enclosed by fire walls is 3,000 square feet. This is larger
than the area of an OLT, and it should be realized that there are several of these areas
under one roof of later built multiple dwellings.

6

6. Engine operations are similar in Old Law Tenements, New Law Tenements, and NFP Class
“A” Multiple Dwellings erected after 4/18/29. Which is the only correct choice concerning
engine operations in these buildings? (3.2.1, 3.2.2, 3.2.6)
(A) The front suction inlet is not to be used in order to ensure that arriving ladder apparatus are
not blocked out.
(B) In most cases, the first line is stretched via the interior stairs to the location of the fire. An
exception to stretching the first line up the interior stairs may be made when flame is issuing
from windows opening onto the fire escape and endangering people trying to come down the fire
escape. In this case, the first line may be operated from the street to protect people on the fire
escape.
(C) If the entrance door to the building is self-closing and equipped with a locking device the
first officer entering the building should use a chock, rug or other means of preventing the door
from locking and thereby delaying other members trying to enter the building.
(D) In order to provide a reliable and uninterrupted flow of water, all arriving engine and squad
companies (when assigned as an engine or squad) shall locate and connect to a positive water
source (hydrant, drafting, etc.)

6. B

3.2.1 Exercise caution when using the front suction inlet so as not to block out arriving
ladder apparatus. Place the apparatus as close to parked cars as possible and use
the side suction inlet. This will permit an aerial ladder or tower ladder to get in
front of the fire building if necessary.

If the entrance door to the building is self-closing and
equipped with a locking device, the first member entering the building should use a
chock, rug or other means of preventing the door from locking and thereby delaying
other members trying to enter the building.

3.2.6 In order to provide a reliable and uninterrupted flow of water, all arriving engine
and squad companies (assigned as an engine) shall locate, test and confirm a
positive water source (hydrant, drafting, etc.).

7

7. How many of the following indicate correct uses of a roof line in Multiple Dwellings?
(3.2.10)
1. Engine 100 operates a hoseline into a ventilation hole from the roof at a severe cockloft fire
which cannot be extinguished from below.
2. Engine 400 operates a roof line to prevent fire from extending past a trench that has been
cut in the roof.
3. Fire is observed blowing out two windows on the top floor, threatening to extend to
Exposure 2. The IC orders Engine 100, who is on the roof with a hoseline, to operate their
line to prevent the fire from extending to Exposure 2.
4. BC Jones, the Roof Sector Supervisor, orders Engine 200 to use their hoseline that is
standing fast on the roof to extinguish fire in the cornice below them, due to the units on
the top floor being unable to extinguish this fire.
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

7. C (2,3,4)

3.2.9 Hoselines should not be operated into ventilation holes from the roof as this
decreases ventilation and nullifies the action of lines operating on the top floor.
A roof line should be used only to prevent fire from extending past the trench, to
protect exposures, or to extinguish fire that cannot be reached from below, such
as fire in a cornice.

8

8. The proper stretching of hoselines on the initial alarm is critical to a successful operation.
Which of the following is incorrect concerning hoseline stretching and placement at fires in
Multiple Dwellings? (3.2.12)
(A) The first line stretched for a fire in a multiple dwelling should be stretched by way of the
interior stairs. The primary purpose of this line is to safeguard the stairway so that it can be used
by the escaping occupants. Rapid positioning and operation of this line requires the door to the
fire apartment to be opened as soon as the hose line is charged and positioned at the door. The
hose line can be operated immediately into the fire apartment to protect people coming down the
stairway from the floors above.
(B) The second hoseline is also usually stretched by way of the interior stairs to the same floor
as the first line. It is meant to augment the first line, if necessary. If not needed on the original
fire floor it is then advanced to the floor above.
(C) The third line in the building should usually be stretched via the fire escape. This is
especially true in Old Law Tenements because the stairway is narrow and the stretching of a
third line via the interior stairs would result in congestion and inability to move any of the
hoselines.
(D) In some cases, the second or third lines may be urgently needed in one of the exposures.
The decision as to the location to which these lines shall be stretched rests with the IC and is
based on his/her size-up of the fire situation.
(E) At a fire in an Old Law Tenement it is often necessary to stretch the second line or the third
line into Exposure 2 or 4 because fire has extended or is about to extend across the narrow shaft
or shafts between buildings.

8. A

3.2.11 Stretching of hoselines on the first alarm:
 The first line stretched for a fire in a multiple dwelling should be stretched by
way of the interior stairs. The primary purpose of this line is to safeguard the
stairway so that it can be used by the escaping occupants. The door to the fire
apartment must not be opened while people are coming down the stairway
from the floors above. When the safety of the stairway is assured, this first
line may be advanced to extinguish the fire.

9

9. Ladder Companies have many duties and responsibilities at Multiple Dwelling fires.
Which one of the following choices is a correct action for Ladder companies to perform?
(3.3.3, 3.3.4, 3.3.9)
(A) Discretion should be used in the breaking of windows in apartments not involved in fire.
Efforts should be made to open these windows where possible and necessary. Windows should
be opened 1/3 from the top and 2/3’s from the bottom to allow heat and smoke to vent and cool
air to enter the room.
(B) If there is a medium smoke condition and moderate heat in the apartment and the windows
cannot be opened, they should be left intact after a search has been made.
(C) Officers must not permit any material to be thrown out of windows unnecessarily. A
member should always be posted in the yard or street below, if available, to prevent injuries to
anyone from falling material. If time permits, examination of yard shall be made before
discarding any material into the yard to assure that no occupant has jumped into the yard prior to
the arrival of Fire Department Units.
(D) When fire is on the top floor or in the cockloft, sufficient firefighters with hooks must be
sent to the top floor to pull ceilings, especially for the larger non-fireproof multiple dwellings. It
may be necessary to use engine companies for this purpose or to special call additional ladder
companies.

9. D

Windows should be opened 2/3's from the top and 1/3 from the
bottom to allow heat and smoke to vent and cool air to enter the room.

If there is
a tolerable smoke condition and very little heat in the apartment and the windows
cannot be opened, they should be left intact after a search has been made.

Examination of yard must be made before
discarding any material into the yard to assure that no occupant has jumped into
the yard prior to the arrival of Fire Department units. No material shall be thrown
onto roofs of building setbacks or into narrow shafts.

10

10. Who is responsible to make known to the IC and other members the manner in which the
floors and apartments are designated, i.e., whether numerically or alphabetically? (3.5.5)
(A) The first FF inside the fire building.
(B) The officer of the first unit that is 10-84.
(C) The first officer inside the fire building.
(D) The Roof FF of the first arriving ladder company.

10. C

11

11. Gas meters are usually in the cellar but they may also be found in apartments and in public
hallways. Which of the following is a proper procedure to follow if these gas meters are found?
(3.5.9)
(A) If gas meters are burning they should be extinguished as soon as possible to prevent the gas
concentration from reaching its’ lower explosive limit.
(B) If fire at the meter is not extinguished immediately, gas will continue to discharge and an
explosion or flash fire may occur when the gas comes in contact with a source of ignition.
Combustible material near the burning meter is not an immediate threat and no action is
necessary while waiting for the gas supply to be shut off.
(C) If gas is leaking without being ignited, the gas supply should be shut off and the area
ventilated as much as possible. Members should be moved away from the area of leaking gas.
Fog lines may be used for venting.
(D) A leak or break in the piping should be allowed to discharge freely and ventilated as much
as possible while waiting for the gas to be shut off. Rags or paper should not be stuffed into the
break, as this will cause a dangerous increase in pressure in the piping.

11. C

 If gas is leaking without being ignited, the gas supply should be shut off and
the area ventilated as much as possible. Members should be moved away
from the area of the leaking gas. Fog lines may be used for venting. A leak
or break in the piping may be stopped or greatly diminished by stuffing rags,
paper, etc., into the break.

12

12. As a general rule, outside streams should not be directed into occupied buildings.
Occupants should be removed first. However, in some cases, life safety or fire conditions may
require that outside streams be used in occupied buildings. For example, to protect people on a
fire escape or for heavy fire in a store. All of the following are incorrect statements about
outside streams except which one? (3.5.10)
(A) Some of the situations which may call for the use of outside streams are: To protect life by
putting a stream between the fire and the occupants, to protect exposures, to confine the fire, or
to diminish heavy fire so that an interior attack can be made.
(B) Only a Chief Officer may order the use of outside streams. For example, the first arriving
BC may order the deckpipe used for a store fire.
(C) The air movement resulting from the use of large caliber streams must be considered. The
air movement caused by the stream will, at times, drive the fire, heat, combustible gases and
smoke into uninvolved areas of the building. At large area building fires, a careful positioning of
apparatus and operation of outside streams should be attempted so that fire and heat will be
driven away from the point of origin in order to adequately ventilate the fire area.
(D) The use of outside streams into a building can cause injuries to members operating inside
the building. Members inside the building must be warned, and moved outside the building
before outside streams are directed into the building. This exterior location must be verified by
personal contact, by the Incident Commander of the fire.

12. A

Some of the
situations which may call for the use of outside streams are:
 To protect life by putting a stream between the fire and the occupants.
 To protect exposures.
 To confine the fire.
 To diminish heavy fire so that an interior attack can be made.
C. Only the Incident Commander may order the use of outside streams. This
may be the first arriving officer. For example, the IC may order the
deckpipe used for a store fire.
D. The air movement resulting from the use of large caliber streams must be
considered. At large area building fires, a careful positioning of apparatus
and operation of outside streams should be attempted so that fire and heat
will be driven away from uninvolved areas and back toward the point of
origin of the fire.

13

13. The severe life hazard in Old Law Tenements because of the crowded living conditions and
the ease with which fire can spread requires prompt and efficient stretching of hoselines by
engine companies. Choose the incorrect point about Old Law Tenements. (4.1.2,
4.1.4, 4.1.5, 4.1.6)
(A) At least the first length of hose should be brought up to the floor below the fire and the
hose strap attached to prevent hose from slipping back down the well hole of the stairway. When
performing the well hole stretch, it is important that the hoseline is removed from the well on the
floor below the fire.
(B) If people are out on the fire escape when the first engine company arrives, and it appears
that those people are in danger because of fire coming out the windows, then two lines should be
stretched. One line is to remain in the street to protect people on the fire escape and the other
line to be taken into the building.
(C) Engine companies with lines in exposures can extinguish a great deal of fire in the fire
building by operating across a shaft. However, this should not be done without permission of the
IC as it may drive the fire at members advancing from the interior.
(D) The absence of a fire escape on the front of an OLT will usually indicate that the
apartments are railroad flats. Corner buildings may be exceptions to this general rule.

13. A

4.1.2 At least the first length of hose should be brought up to the fire floor and the hose
strap attached to prevent hose from slipping back down the well hole of the
stairway.

14

14. Engine 200 responds 1st due to a fire in the cellar of 100 Smith Street, which is a 5 story
OLT. Radio reports from Ladder 100, the first arriving ladder, confirm that there is a major fire
in the cellar, and there are no outside cellar entrances at the front or rear. Which of the following
is an incorrect procedure for units to follow at this fire? (4.2.1)
(A) The first line should be stretched to the cellar entrance door which is located inside the
building, under the interior stairway on the first floor.
(B) The first hand line should not be advanced down the cellar stairs. This line should remain
at this position to provide protection for people coming down the stairway, and to extinguish fire
which may be extending upwards from the cellar via partitions, dumbwaiter shafts and other
voids.
(C) Ventilation must be provided at the roof over the stairway, at the top of the dumbwaiter
shaft and other shafts and vertical openings. Ventilation must also be provided via the cellar
windows, doors, trap doors, and by intermittently opening and closing the door at the top of the
interior cellar stairs after all of the occupants have been evacuated.
(D) Ladder companies check for extension on the upper parts of the building since OLTs do not
have the advantage of a fireproof cellar ceiling such as is found in buildings erected at a later
date. This spread of fire may be via combustible ceilings, partitions, shafts, pipe recesses and
other voids.

14. B

The only thing i see wrong with B is is doesn't say "unless the fire is minor" but the truck confirms a major fire.

What am I missing ?

15

15. If the building in Question # 14 had a front or rear outside cellar entrance, where would the
second hoseline be stretched? (4.2.1 C)
(A) Into the front door on the first floor, to act as a back up line to the 1st hose line.
(B) Advanced into the cellar by way of the front or rear entrance to the cellar.
(C) To an upper floor to stop the spread of fire via combustible ceilings, partitions, shafts, pipe
recesses and other voids.
(D) To Exposure 2, to prevent the spread of fire via common cellar beams.

15. B

4.2.3 The second hoseline stretched should be advanced into the cellar by way of the
front or rear entrance to the cellar.

16

16. When should a 2 ½” line be stretched in an Old Law Tenement? (4.2.2 A)
(A) A serious cellar fire.
(B) A large volume fire in a store
(C) Fire in the cockloft
(D) Never. Due to the need for speed and maneuverability in Old Law Tenements, all interior
hand lines shall be considered 1 ¾”.

16. B

4.3.1 Store fires in OLTs may involve a large amount of combustible material. A 2 ½"
line should be stretched for large volume fires and a second line stretched to the
entrance hallway. When assured that the second line is not needed on the first
floor, it may be advanced to the floor above the fire.

17

17. Store fires in Old Law Tenements may involve a large amount of combustible material and
a present many challenges to members. Which of the following is an incorrect consideration at
these store fires? (4.2.2)
(A) A charged hoseline must be ready before the store is ventilated. It is especially important
that no plate glass windows be broken without a charged line being ready.
(B) Stores in Old Law Tenements may have a door which opens into the public hallway on the
first floor. The first floor public hallway should be examined immediately to determine whether
the means of egress for the occupants of the building is in danger from the store fire. If so, a
hoseline should be positioned to protect the interior stairs.
(C) Store owners may use the rear of the store as their living quarters, so it is important to
search the rear of stores as soon as possible. Access to the rear will be extremely difficult
because of iron bars on windows and the interior hall door possibly nailed shut.
(D) Due to the potential for serious fires caused by the large amount of combustible material, a
second hose line should be stretched as soon as possible to back up the first hoseline. The
second hoseline will advance into the store with the first hoseline if necessary, or will stand fast .
If a hoseline is needed on the floor above the fire, a third hoseline shall be stretched.

17. D

When assured that the second line is not needed on the first
floor, it may be advanced to the floor above the fire.

18

18. The stairway in Old Law Tenements is the primary means of egress for occupants. If the
fire has extended into the stairway from an apartment, it is possible that the fire escape exit may
also be cut off by flame from the apartment windows. Which one of the following choices is an
incorrect tactic to consider at these serious stairway fires? (4.2.4)
(A) The first hoseline should be stretched up the stairway, operated to extinguish fire, shut
down and advanced further up the stairway. When possible, the line should be operated up the
wellhole to cool off the hall and stairs above.
(B) The first hoseline should remain on the floor below the top floor in case the fire extends to
an apartment.
(C) A second line should follow up extinguishing operations and to serve as protection for
members advancing the first line. Apartments must be checked for possible extension of fire in
them.
(D) Ventilation at the roof over the stairway is extremely important so that hoseline can
advance up the stairway.
(E) It is important that members do not overload the stairway in these old buildings. Those not
immediately necessary to the operation should remain on the floors below.

18. B

4.5.2 The first hoseline should be stretched up the stairway, operated to extinguish fire,
shut down and advanced further up the stairway. When possible, the line should
be operated up the well hole to cool off the hall and stairs above. This procedure
should be repeated until line is advanced to the top floor.

19

19. Air, Light and Dumbwaiter shaft fires may result in fire extending into a building or into
two buildings through window openings. Which of the following is a correct action to take at
these shaft fires? (4.2.6)
(A) The first hoseline should always be stretched to the base of the shaft. Sufficient hose must
be stretched to reach the upper floors of the building.
(B) A hoseline should be stretched to the nearest point from which water can be directed onto
fire in the shaft. Sufficient hose must be stretched to reach the upper floors of the building.
(C) The second hoseline should always be stretched to the top floor of the building to
extinguish fire in the shaft and any fire that has extended to the cockloft.
(D) For fires in rooms in the vicinity of a shaft, the line should be operated up the shaft to
extinguish fire and cool the shaft only when the fire in the room has been completely
extinguished.

19. B

4.7 OPERATIONS AT AIR AND LIGHT AND DUMBWATER SHAFT FIRES:
4.7.1 Windows opening on shafts may provide means for fire to extend into a building
or into two buildings. This is especially true in warm weather, when windows
may be open. Prompt examination must be made to determine if fire has
extended into buildings, and windows must be closed to prevent fire or flying
brands from entering. In some shafts, there are doors at cellar level leading into
cellars of both buildings.
4.7.2 A hoseline should be stretched to the nearest point from which water can be
directed onto fire in the shaft. Sufficient hose must be stretched to reach the
upper floors of the building.
4.7.3 A second hoseline may be necessary if it appears that fire might have extended
into the adjoining building.
4.7.4 In some cases, the base of the shaft may be the roof of a store or ceiling of a cellar
and the fire may burn down into the store or cellar.
4.7.5 Shafts may be open or covered. It is important to ventilate those shafts which
have skylights or any other covering.
4.7.6 For fires in rooms in the vicinity of a shaft, after the fire in the room has been
knocked down, the line should be operated into the shaft in order to knock down
the shaft fire before continuing through the apartment for knockdown and final
extinguishment.

20

20. Because of the short span of floor beams- 25’, and the fact that the floors are not heavily
loaded, the collapse of floors in OLT’s is usually not a problem. However, there have been
instances of collapse, including floors collapsing when there were previous fires and the floor
beams were badly burned. Choose the incorrect point about collapses in Old Law Tenements.
(4.3.1, 4.3.2)
(A) Floor joist which are supported by masonry walls are generally provided with fire cuts.
(B) At times, there have been collapses of older buildings not associated with fires, such as
when adjoining buildings have been torn down or when excavations are being dug on adjacent
land.
(C) Any indication of collapsing floors during fire operations should be promptly reported to
the Incident Commander so that units can be withdrawn to safe positions. These indications of
possible collapse may include plaster ceilings falling, floors or ceilings sagging, and unusual
creaking noises.
(D) When the metal cornice at the roof has been involved by heavy fire for a short period of
time, the cornice or parts of it may suddenly fall. It is important to be aware that this may
happen and to keep members, and other people away from the front of the building.

20. D

4.8.2 Roof Cornices at Front of Building-Possibility of Falling:
When the metal cornice at the roof level has been involved by heavy fire for a
considerable time, the cornice or parts of it may suddenly fall. It is important to
be aware that this may happen and to keep members, and other people, away from
the front of the building. Members stretching lines up the front fire escape or
operating from the front fire escape must also be warned and moved to a safe
position when it appears that the cornice may fall

21

21. Although it is no longer permitted to convert Old Law Tenements to Single Room
Occupancies, thousands of such buildings have been converted and are still being used as Single
Room Occupancies (SRO’s). All of the following are correct except for which point? (4.3.4)
(A) In these SRO’s the individual rooms in each apartment are rented to occupants and the
bathroom and kitchen facilities are used by all of the occupants of the apartment.
(B) These buildings require sprinklers in each room and in the stairway. The sprinkler system
is usually supplied by a roof tank, or more infrequently by supplying the Siamese connection.
(C) Each individual room is equipped with a lock; many with padlocks on the outside. Just
because a door is found padlocked, do not assume that the room is empty. Someone may be
locked in the room. Entry must be made and all rooms searched.
(D) The layout of the rooms must be arranged so that each occupant has access to both means
of egress (stairs and fire escape) without having to go through another person’s room.
(E) These SRO’s also require an interior alarm system to warn the occupants of fire. Exit
lights and signs must be provided.

21. B

E. These buildings require sprinklers in each room and in the stairway. The
sprinkler system has no roof tank; it is supplied from the water main in the
street. The system cannot be supplied by the Fire Department.

22

22. The “H” type design of residence buildings differs from the older tenements and the newer
high rise multiple dwellings in that there are three structural elements to support the structure:
Masonry bearing walls, wood beams that support floors and roof, and structural steel columns,
beams and girders that connect and support sections of the “H” type building. Steel in the “H”
type structure creates three concerns to the fire service. Which of the following is not correctly
listed as one of these concerns? (5.1.1 B, C)
(A) Steel when heated expands, and substantial elongation can occur at a fire. This elongation
can cause a wall to bulge, move, or even collapse if the steel is set within the wall.
(B) Steel when heated to higher temperatures during a fire may fail. Floor beams supported by
such failing steel will fall to the floor below.
(C) Steel columns or girders, generally in an “I” beam shape, transmit fire and heat. The “I”
beam or channel rail, as it is sometimes called, when in the form of a column located in the inner
framework of a building may extend fire from the cellar up to the top floor ceiling and not
beyond.

22. C

 Steel columns are vertical structural members designed in an “H” shape; they
are also known as channel rails. When located in the inner framework of a
building, may extend from the first floor up into the roof space or cockloft
area (Figure 8). The space between the enclosing wood framework and
column leads up into the cockloft and many times spreads fire, heat or smoke
to this roof space (Figure 9).
 Steel girders are horizontal structural members designed in an “I” shape; they
are also known as “I” beams. I” beams will transmit fire, heat or smoke
horizontally into adjoining areas.

23

23. Roof operations are very important at fires in “H” type buildings, especially when fire
extends to the cockloft. Which one of the following choices in not correct concerning roof
construction and operations in “H” type building? (5.1.1 D, 5.3.3 A, B)
(A) The most common roof has the top floor ceiling several feet below the main roof beams.
This provides for a sturdy roof.
(B) In the inverted, raised or reversed roof the main roof beams are at the ceiling level and a
framework is raised above these beams with the roof boards attached. This roof is normally
springy but it permits the roof to be pitched so that water will run off.
(C) If there is a heavy body of fire in the cockloft, expect at least a partial collapse of the
inverted roof. Since the inverted roof is constructed of 2’x4’s, they will burn away faster than
the main roof beams and the roof section will come to rest on these beams.
(D) Top floor fires always present the possibility of fire extending into the cockloft. It is
imperative for the IC to assign a roof sector supervisor early into the operation. The roof sector
supervisor must always be a chief officer due to the critical importance of this position.
(E) When it is necessary to cut holes in the roof, initially, approximately a 3’x6’ coffin cut is
recommended. Two saws should be put into operation promptly to prevent lateral spread of fire
in the cockloft.

23. D

24

24. Interior shafts and voids are found throughout “H” type buildings. The potential for fire
extension is great in these buildings as a result of these voids. Choose the incorrect point about
these voids. (5.1.1 F)
(A) Steel columns, known as channel rails, are erected vertically from the foundation to the
cockloft. Their locations vary according to the architect’s design, and are at times difficult to
find. They are often located in voids behind closets. Our main concern is they are not fire
stopped.
(B) Vertical voids, created by Channel Rails, are about one foot square. These voids may be
larger when the void is built to include waste and water pipes.
(C) When the fire is knocked down and opening up begins, areas where the lath has been
burned must be examined for the presence of steel columns (Channel Rails). If detected,
locations above the fire must be checked immediately.
(D) Waste pipe recesses exist wherever a kitchen or bathroom exists. Their presence may be
picked up first by the roof firefighter who notes the location of exposed waste pipes atop roofs
which line up with the fire below. If the pipe is hot to the touch with an ungloved hand initiate a
ventilation hole with the saw.
(E) Closets’ construction atop one another sometimes provides a vertical artery. Workmanship
may be shoddy in closets creating openings for fire travel. They are usually back to back with
other closets. This may lead to horizontal extension as well as vertical extension.

24. D

Their presence may be picked
up first by the roof firefighter who notes the locations of exposed waste pipes
atop roofs which line up with the fire below. If the pipe is hot to the touch, a
top floor examination is required and notification made to officer and the IC.

note choice C doesn't say above and below like th book does

These vertical voids, about one foot square, may be larger when the void is
built to include waste and water pipes. When the fire is knocked down and
opening up begins, areas where the lath has been burned must be examined
for the presence of these columns. If detected, locations above and below the
fire must be checked immediately. (Figures 8 and 9)

25

Answer Questions #25 - 26 based on the following:
E-100, E-200, E-300 and Aerial Ladder-400 and TL-500 arrive on scene at a fire on the top
floor of a 6 story “H” type NFP Multiple Dwelling. Heavy fire is showing out windows in
the throat, courtyard, and front windows on the 6th floor. Exposures 2 and 4 are attached 4
story NLTs. All stairways in the fire building are transverse stairs. Engine 900 and
Ladder 800 are assigned on the transmission of the 10-75 by the officer of E-100.
25. Which of the following actions taken by the engine companies on scene is incorrect?
(5.2.1)
(A) Engine 100 stretched an 1 ¾” hose line to the lobby and stood fast while waiting for Ladder
400 to determine the exact location of the fire. While the unit waited, the officer of Engine 100
checked the 2nd floor to determine if the wings are connected on the 2nd floor.
(B) Engine 100 and Engine 200 teamed up to stretch the 1st hose line to the top floor.
Simultaneously, Engine 300 stretched a 2nd hose line with the assistance of Engine 900 to back
up the 1st hose line due to the heavy fire condition on the top floor.
(C) The officer of Engine 100 determined that the stairs wrapped around the elevator shaft.
The officer of Engine 100 deployed a rope out the stairway window and ordered the members to
attach the rope to the hose line and pull the rope rather than stretch up the stairs.
(D) The 1st hoseline was pulled via the rope up to the 5th floor. Sufficient hose was pulled into
the 5th floor before the hose line was charged.

25. B

5.3.2 Many times just stretching a line to a fire apartment will prove difficult. It may
require many lengths (five or more) just to reach the building entrance. There
may be large courtyards, often with obstacles such as trees, benches, fences,
shrubbery, etc. Every effort must be made to get the first line in operation before
additional lines are stretched. All available engine companies should be used to
stretch the first line.

26

Answer Questions #25 - 26 based on the following:
E-100, E-200, E-300 and Aerial Ladder-400 and TL-500 arrive on scene at a fire on the top
floor of a 6 story “H” type NFP Multiple Dwelling. Heavy fire is showing out windows in
the throat, courtyard, and front windows on the 6th floor. Exposures 2 and 4 are attached 4
story NLTs. All stairways in the fire building are transverse stairs. Engine 900 and
Ladder 800 are assigned on the transmission of the 10-75 by the officer of E-100.

26. Which of the following indicates a correct action taken by the ladder companies at this fire?
(5.2.2)
(A) Ladder 400 was positioned blocking off the front entrance courtyard in order to rescue any
potential victims that showed at windows on the top floor.
(B) TL-500 was ordered by the IC to use its master stream to extinguish the fire on the 6th
floor. The stream was operated into the courtyard windows first, followed by the throat and
finally into the front windows.
(C) Ladder 400 initially raised the aerial ladder the roof for rapid ascent of the roof and outside
vent firefighter.
(D) The windows in the fire apartment are vented by the aerial as ordered by the IC, Battalion
Chief Smith who has just arrived on scene. After the windows are vented, the aerial ladder
remains at a top floor window in case it is needed for escape.

26. C

5.4.2 Aerial ladders, if first to arrive, should not be positioned so as to block off the front
entrance courtyard. When possible, this position should be taken by a tower ladder.
If rescue operations must be performed, the aerial shall, of course, be positioned to
carry out this function. If the fire is showing out windows in the throat, courtyard
and front windows, and a tower ladder stream is being used, it should be directed at
the windows in the throat first. The stream should then be advanced toward the
front of the building and finally operated into the front windows.

27

27. Engine 333 and Ladder 444 are discussing store fires in “H” type Multiple Dwellings.
After pointing out that many of these buildings contain one or more stores on the 1st floor, and
that the floor above stores is constructed of wood joists, the officers conducting drill discussed
tactical operations. Which operation was not correctly described by the officers? (5.3.1 A,B)
(A) The first line is stretched to the store and extinguishes fire.
(B) The second line should be used to back up the first line. The large size of these stores
requires the second line to remain on the 1st floor to operate on the store fire or to serve as a back
up line.
(C) If two lines are needed in the store, the third line shall be stretched to the floor above.
(D) The second ladder shall proceed to the floor above for forcible entry and search for life and
extension. Areas larger than the actual size of the store must be checked due to the possibility of
horizontal travel of fire as well as smoke.
(E) These buildings have a peculiarity in that many times a fire will bypass intermediate areas
both vertically and horizontally and then when an obstruction is met will set fire to the
surrounding material. The top floor and cockloft must be checked and rechecked at a later time.

27. B

B. The second line should be used to back up the first line. When it is
obvious that the first line can control the store fire, the second line should
be advanced to the floor above the fire. If two lines are needed in the
store, the third line shall be stretched to the floor above.

28

28. Cellar fires in “H” type buildings require close coordination of tactics between Engine and
Ladder companies. Choose the correct point about cellar fires in “H” type buildings.
(5.3.2)
(A) There is fireproof construction throughout the cellar. The cellar ceiling is concrete and
rated at two hour fire resistance.
(B) The first line is stretched by way of the usually numerous exterior approaches, or interior
stairs, to the seat of the fire and extinguished.
(C) The Roof Firefighter proceeds to the roof for vent and examination. This firefighter does
not check the cockloft for possible extension of fire through vertical voids as it is more efficient
to check via the top floor ceilings.
(D) The limited ground level windows found in the rear limits ventilation and preclude
alternate points of attack for the engine company.

28. A

A. The first line is stretched by way of the usually numerous, exterior
approaches to the seat of fire and extinguish.

D. Roof firefighter to roof for vent and examination. This firefighter also
checks cockloft for possible extension of fire through vertical voids.

Numerous ground level
windows are usually available at the sides and rear, a considerable
difference from Old Law Tenements. Due to this, they are more easily
vented and also provide alternate points of attack if interior attack is very
arduous for the engine company.

29

29. Top Floor, Roof and Cockloft fires have resulted in devastating losses of entire “H” type
building in many parts of New York City in recent years. Which tactic is incorrectly described
below in combating these fires? (5.3.3)
(A) When it is necessary to cut holes in the roof, initially, approximately a 3’x6’ coffin cut is
recommended. Two saws should be put into operation promptly to prevent lateral spread of fire
in the cockloft.
(B) Ventilation of the top floor must also be accomplished via the windows. This may be done
from the interior or from the fire escape, ladders or roof.
(C) At these cockloft fires it is very important to have the ceilings pulled to expose the fire. At
times it may be necessary to assign engine companies or individual engine firefighters to pull
ceilings. A charged line must be in readiness to extinguish exposed fire.
(D) One of the most serious problems at these cockloft fires is to determine the extent of the
fire. To accomplish this it will be necessary to get all apartments open on the top floor, and
begin opening up above the original fire area and move further away to determine the extent of
the fire area.
(E) Fire stopping in the cockloft cannot be depended on. Cocklofts may be undivided, as in the
case when fire partitions only come up to the underside of the roof beams, or there may be
openings in the fire stopping because of poor workmanship.

29. D

5.9.5 One of the most serious problems at these cockloft fires is determining the extent
of the fire. To accomplish this, it will be necessary to get all apartments open on
the top floor, make openings to find the extent of the fire, get ahead of the fire,
and work back to the original fire area.

30

30. Although infrequently performed, cutting a trench in the roof is a defensive operation used
to limit the extension of fire in the cockloft. The following choices contain several key points
concerning trenching at “H” type buildings. Which one is incorrect? (5.3.3 I)
(A) A trench may be cut but should not be opened until there is an adequate vent opening
directly over the fire. Ideally, the trench should be precut, but not pulled. Two or more
inspection holes may be cut on the fire side of the trench. When, and if, the fire reaches
inspection holes, the precut trench is pulled.
(B) The trench cut must be at least 3’ wide, and cut from wall to wall or other suitable fire stop
such as a stair or elevator bulkhead. The trench should be cut about 20 feet from the initial vent
hole. It should be cut at the narrowest section of the roof taking advantage of bulkhead
structures, outside walls, skylights, etc.
(C) Keep all personnel off the roof on the fire side of the trench. It is good practice, on larger
buildings, to have two ladders raised to the roof at different ends of the building to provide
egress from the roof.
(D) A charged line should be in position on the roof to protect personnel and the trench
opening. This line may be operated into the trench in a brief sweeping side to side motion to
prevent fire from extending across the cockloft. As a last resort, the hose line may be operated
into the trench to extinguish fire from above due to inaccessibility and ceiling height.
(E) Additional examination holes may have to be made past the trench. A large hole must be
cut over the main area of fire. After this large hole is cut over the fire then the trench cuts can be
made as defensive moves to separate the roof sections. This will not interfere with the thermal
updraft that is venting the main fire.

30. D

H. A charged line should be in position on the roof to protect personnel and
the trench opening. This line may be operated into the trench in a brief,
sweeping, side to side motion to prevent fire from extending across the
opening. Such operations should only be conducted after adequate
precautions are taken to prevent injury to interior operating forces.

31

31. Ladder 100 and Engine 200 respond by themselves to a UCT run for a CO detector
activation in Apartment 2C of a 6 story renovated “H” type Multiple Dwelling. Upon arrival at
the door of Apartment 2C, Ladder 100 notices the door is open and there is a heavy fire in
apartment 2C. A 10-75 is transmitted, and Engine 200 with the assistance of the 2nd and 3rd due
engines extinguishes the fire before the arrival of Ladder 300, the second due ladder who is
delayed due to BISP. Which action taken by Ladder 100 is incorrect? (5.3.4 E, F)
(A) The officer of Ladder 100 orders the Forcible Entry FF and the OV to the floor above,
directly over the fire, to feel all the walls for hot spots, including the walls of closets. These
firefighters must also feel the floors above the fire and of the adjoining rooms.
(B) The Forcible entry FF of Ladder 100 discovers a hot spot on an unusually thick partition
wall in the kitchen of the apartment above the fire area. The Forcible Entry FF notifies her
officer, and makes a small hole in the wall for examination with no hose line present in the
apartment.
(C) Upon making a small hole in the wall on the floor above, the Forcible Entry FF notices fire
in a void containing electrical conduit. The Forcible Entry FF notifies the IC and immediately
proceeds to the top floor to check the termination point of this void for any extension to the
cockloft.
(D) Upon opening the top floor ceiling, no fire is discovered in the cockloft. The Forcible
Entry FF notifies her officer, who calls for a hand line to be stretched to the top floor, and orders
the Roof FF to cut a hole in the roof.

31. D

32

32. What does a fire escape that spans the firewall in the throat indicate? (5.4.4,
5.4.5)
(A) Two (2) separate apartments in the throat.
(B) One apartment in the throat which spans the fire wall.
(C) A fire partition in the throat that extends completely to the rear wall.

32. A

33

PART II – ERP {Pgs 24 – to the end}:
1. Members of the first arriving Ladder Company will be divided into teams. No person
involved in the operational activities of these teams is to work alone. Some members of the
Second Arriving Ladder Company will be divided into teams. Which of the following teams are
correctly indicated? (12.1, 12.2)
(A) 1st Arriving Ladder Team 1: Hazard ID
1st Arriving Ladder Team 2: Information Resources
2nd Arriving Ladder Team 1: Initial Exclusion Zone
2nd Arriving Ladder Team 2: Hazard ID
(B) 1st Arriving Ladder Team 1: Initial Exclusion Zone
1st Arriving Ladder Team 2: Hazard ID
2nd Arriving Ladder Team 1: Information Resources
2nd Arriving Ladder Team 2: Hazard ID
(C) 1st Arriving Ladder Team 1: Hazard ID
1st Arriving Ladder Team 2: Information Resources
2nd Arriving Ladder Team 1: Information Resources
2nd Arriving Ladder Team 2: Initial Exclusion Zone
(D) 1st Arriving Ladder Team 1: Initial Exclusion Zone
1st Arriving Ladder Team 2: Information Resources
2nd Arriving Ladder Team 1: Hazard ID
2nd Arriving Ladder Team 2: Information Resources

1. C

34

2. Which statement is incorrect concerning the duties and operations of the 1st and 2nd
Arriving Ladder Companies? (12.1.4, 12.1.5, 12.1.6, 12.2.1, 12.2.3, 12.2.4, 12.2.5)
(A) The 1st Arriving Ladder is responsible for Hazard Assessment
(B) The 2nd Arriving Ladder Company is responsible for controlling access to the site and for
establishing the initial Exclusion Zone.
(C) Both LCCs position the apparatus out of the hazard area and as a barrier for site access.
Only the 2nd Arriving LCC establishes physical barriers to the area using barrier tape, traffic
cones, traffic signs, etc.
(D) The teams assigned to Information Resources from both the 1st and 2nd Ladder Companies
may be used to provide Back up.
(E) When the Initial Exclusion Zone is established, the 2nd Arriving Ladder Team 2 will remain
outside the Exclusion Zone to deny access until relieved or as ordered.

2. C

12.1.4 Ladder Chauffer: Apparatus placement
A. Positions apparatus out of the hazard area and as a barrier for site access
control as ordered
B. Coordinates apparatus placement with other responding units
C. Remains with apparatus until further ordered
D. Establishes physical barriers to area access using apparatus, barrier tape,
traffic cones, traffic signs, etc
E. Monitors Handie-talkie/radio
12.1.5 First Arriving Ladder Team 1: Hazard identification
A. Identify occupancy and location of hazards, from upwind if possible
B. Identify container shape and approximate size
C. Identify any visible markings, colors, placards/labels, etc
D. Search for shipping documents and MSDS
E. Provide primary search reports for locations entered
F. Report information available and stand-by
G. Monitor Handie-talkie/radio
12.1.6 First Arriving Ladder Team 2: Information resources
A. Back-up Team for Team 1
B. Access Hazard Action Guidebook & D.O.T. Guidebook, locating appropriate
Guide, isolation and evacuation recommendations
C. Confirm Guide Number, isolation distance and evacuation information.
Verify with Second Arriving Ladder Company
D. Report information to Officer
E. Monitor Handie-talkie/radio

12.2 Second Arriving Ladder Company–Site Access Control
12.2.1 The Second Arriving Ladder Company is responsible for controlling access to the
site and for establishing the initial Exclusion Zone. Some members of this
company will be divided into teams.
12.2.2 Officer: Coordinate / limit site access
A. Obtains briefing from IC
B. Assigns and instructs teams regarding hazard assessment activities and
limitations
C. Advises IC regarding the need for police assistance in area security and
control
D. Reports information to IC
E. Monitors Handie-talkie/radio
12.2.3 Second Arriving Ladder Chauffer: Apparatus placement
A. Positions apparatus out of the hazard area and as a barrier for site access
control as ordered
B. Coordinates apparatus placement with other responding units
C. Remains with apparatus until further ordered
D. Establishes physical barriers to area using apparatus, barrier tape, traffic
cones, traffic signs, etc.
E. Monitors Handie-talkie / radio
12.2.4 Second Arriving Ladder Team 1: Information resources
A. Assist First Ladder with site assessment, back-up or information resources
B. Report information to Officer
C. Monitor Handie-talkie/radio
12.2.5 Second Arriving Ladder Team 2: Initial Exclusion Zone
A. On orders of the Officer, establish physical barriers as an initial Exclusion
Zone using RED Haz-Mat barrier tape, utility rope, traffic cones, etc
B. Remain outside Exclusion Zone to deny access until relieved or as ordered
C. Monitor Handie-talkie/radio

35

3. The first arriving engine company has several duties at a Haz Mat incident. Which of the
following choices does not correctly describe these duties? (13.1.2, 13.1.4, 13.1.5, 13.1.6)
(A) The first arriving engine company is responsible for water supply. Members will remain
together as a unit unless otherwise ordered by the IC.
(B) A line should be stretched and placed into operation as soon as it is available to provide
decontamination of victims.
(C) The factors that determine the size and placement of the handline with a fog nozzle include:
Proximity to access/egress control points for decon, protection of exposures, run-off of the
stream and nearby sewers and drains that may be affected.
(D) If necessary, members of the 1st engine may perform CFR-D duties.

3. B

36

4. Which of the following is not a responsibility of the 2nd and 3rd arriving engines?
(13.2.2, 13.2.3, 13.2.4, 13.3.1)
(A) The Second Arriving Engine Company is responsible for assisting and coordinating with
the Second Ladder Company to control access to the site.
(B) Member of the 2nd Engine Company will remain together as a unit unless otherwise ordered
by the IC. This engine company may assist the 1st Engine Company in water supply, line
placement, site control or evacuation.
(C) If necessary, members of the Second Arriving Engine Company may perform CFR-D
duties.
(D) The 3rd Arriving Engine Company’s duties are limited to performing CFR-D for the safety
of Fire Department members as well as victims removed that may have been exposed or injured.

4. D

13.2 Second Arriving Engine—Site Access Control
13.2.1 Officer: Supervise Site Access
A. Obtain briefing from the IC
B. Supervise apparatus placement
C. Instruct members regarding hazard assessment activities, limitations and PPE
D. Coordinate with Second Ladder in Site Access Control
E. Monitor Handie-talkie/radio

13.2.2 The Second Arriving Engine Company is responsible for assisting and
coordinating with the Second Ladder Company to control access to the site.
13.2.3 Members of the Second Engine Company will remain together as a unit unless
otherwise ordered by the Incident Commander to perform duties appropriate to
specific tactical objectives. This may include assisting the First Arriving Engine in
water supply or line placement, site control or evacuation.
13.2.4 If necessary, members of the Second Arriving Engine Company may perform
CFR-D duties.

37

5. Engine 44, a Haz Mat Tech Engine, arrives first on scene of a PCB leak at a Con Ed
Generating Substation. Neither Haz Mat Company 1 nor the Haz Mat Battalion is on scene. As
the 1st arriving Haz-Mat Technician Unit on scene, which action taken by Engine 44 is correct?
(15.2.1, 15.2.2, 15.2.3, 15.3.1 B)
(A) The Entry Team Leader relayed information obtained by the Entry Team to the Haz-Mat
Company 1 Officer via department radio.
(B) The Back-Up Team Leader completed operations in the Exclusion Zone when it was
determined that the Entry Team was unable to complete their assignment.
(C) A Decon Team was established, assisted by an Engine Company in full PPE and SCBA.
The Decon Team set up a Contamination Reduction Corridor to be used by both members and
civilians at the same time.
(D) The Capt. of Engine 44 refused to relinquish his position as the Haz-Mat Group Supervisor
to the Lieutenant from Haz-Mat 1, due to chain of command procedures.

5. B

C. Relay the information obtained by the Entry Team to the HMC1 Resource
Technician via department radio, 800MHz radio, handie-talkie or cell phone
for assistance

D. Set up separate Contamination Reduction Corridors for members and civilians

38

6. Who determines the appropriate level of PPE for responder operations at a Haz-Mat
incident? (15.3.1)
(A) Haz-Mat Company 1 Officer
(B) The IC
(C) The Officer of the 1st Arriving Haz-Mat Technician Unit
(D) The 1st Arriving Battalion Chief

6. A or B

39

7. Engine 100 arrives at the scene of a large explosion and leak at a chemical tank farm. Due
to severe traffic conditions, Engine 100 anticipates operating alone for several minutes. The
officer of Engine 100 is met upon arrival by plant personnel, who tell him that there are several
victims trapped in an underground control room and the ground floor of an office near the
explosion site. The officer of Engine 100 would be correct in which thought? (16.1.3)
(A) Engine 100 may attempt to rescue the victims trapped in the underground control room and
ground floor office immediately due to the known life hazard.
(B) Engine 100 may attempt to rescue the victims from the ground floor office immediately.
Engine 100 should wait for adequate resources to arrive on-scene before attempting below
ground operations.
(C) Only when adequate resources are on-scene should members attempt to rescue the victims
in the ground floor office and below ground control room.
(D) Rescue of victims from belowground and interior locations should not be attempted by
FDNY units, but rather by higher trained DEP personnel.

7. C

40

8. Ladder 200, a CPC Ladder Company, arrives at the scene of a Large-Scale Hazardous
Material Incident by themselves. While awaiting the arrival of additional units, which is an
incorrect action or thought to consider? (16.2.1, 16.2.4)
(A) The officer of Ladder 200 should provide a detailed preliminary report as soon as possible.
(B) Members should don their Level A suits due to the extreme danger caused by the
Hazardous Materials released.
(C) The Officer establishes a Command Post in the Support Zone upwind and uphill of the
hazardous release.
(D) The members of Ladder 200 concentrate on controlling ambulatory victims, and direct selfevacuating
victims to a safe refuge area.

8. B

16.2.1 First Arriving units may need to do the following:
A. Take a “no-rush” approach to the incident
B. Attempt to determine the nature and extent of the hazardous release
C. Direct self-evacuating victims to a Safe Refuge Area
D. Provide a detailed preliminary report as soon as possible
E. Request additional assistance based on initial size-up

16.2.4 If the first units on scene are CPC Ladder Companies or SOC Support Ladder
Companies, these units should not perform haz-mat duties until additional
companies arrive to control ambulatory victims. Scene control may be
compromised if these units take the time to don CPC.

41

9. Several agencies work together at Haz-Mat Incidents. Which duty below is correct?
(18.2.1, 18.2.2, 18.2.4, 18.2.5)
(A) NYPD will function as the On-Scene Coordinator and will arrange private sector
containment, control, clean up and disposal of hazardous materials where necessary.
(B) Department of Sanitation will clean up and dispose of materials (except liquids) rendered
harmless, as determined by DEP and DOHMH.
(C) DOHMH will ensure proper mitigation and disposal of chemical agents.
(D) OEM will perform searches for secondary devices and provide hazardous materials
response personnel if available.

9. B

42

10. Clean up operations are not Fire Department functions. However, the Fire Department is
responsible for ensuring that clean-up operations take place. Which is an incorrect statement
concerning incident termination procedures? (19.1.3, 19.2.1, 19.2.2)
(A) The Fire Department will cooperate with DEP in arranging clean-up activities.
(B) The Hazardous Materials Unit may take samples of materials for testing by DEP or
DOHMH.
(C) Under no circumstances should any Fire Department unit, including the Hazardous
Materials Unit, transport these samples or any hazardous material.
(D) If operations are concluded and DEP or DOHMH has not arrived at the scene, these
samples will remain at the scene for pick up. Haz-Mat Company 1 or a Haz-Mat Tech Unit must
remain with these samples until released to the appropriate agency.

10. D

19.2.2 If operations are concluded and DEP or DOHMH has not arrived at the scene,
these samples will remain at the scene for pick up. A Fire Department unit or Fire
Marshal shall remain with the samples until released to the appropriate agency.

43

11. Units arrive at the scene of a rubbish fire in front of a loading dock in a factory. There is
smoke coming from the roll down gates that are securing the loading dock door. Next to the
loading dock, units notice a NFPA diamond posted. Looking at the diamond posted below,
which is a correct statement?
(A) The Health Hazard would be determined to be Slightly Hazardous.
(B) The Flash Point is above 200 Degrees Fahrenheit
(C) The Reactivity Hazard should not be an issue, as the product is stable.
(D) In the Special Hazards Box, the OX means that there is most likely Oxygen tanks stored
inside.

(NFPA diamond showing with a 3 in the left quadrant, 2 in the top quadrant, 0 in the right, and an "OX" in the bottom quandrant

11. C

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PART III – TB – TOOLS #24, 26, 27 & 28:
TOOLS 24 {Chain Saws}
1. Chain saws can save time and energy. They are also extremely dangerous. Which of the
following is an incorrect statement concerning chain saw usage? (2.1, 2.2, 2.4)
(A) The chain saw is never to be used for the ventilation or overhauling of structural fires.
(B) The chain saw may be utilized at emergencies or non-structural fires only if the safety and
operational procedures of Training Bulletin Tools 24 are followed.
(C) While operating the chain saw, the operator shall wear the following NFPA compliant and
FDNY approved protective equipment: Long sleeve work duty shirt or bunker coat, helmet, eye
protection, ear protection, saw protected gloves, bunker boots, and saw protected chaps.
(D) The control person shall wear the following NFPA compliant and FDNY approved
protective equipment: Long sleeve work duty shirt or bunker coat, helmet, eye protection, ear
protection, saw protected gloves, bunker boots, and saw protected chaps.

1. A

2.1 Except for pier fire operations, the chain saw is not to be used for the ventilation or
overhauling of structural fires.
2.2 The chain saw may be utilized at emergencies or non-structural fires only if the safety
and operational procedures outlined in this bulletin are followed.
2.3 Members are to adhere to AUC 301 "Tree Emergency Operations" while operating at
such incidents.
2.4 While operating the chain saw, the operator and control person shall wear the following
NFPA compliant and FDNY approved protective equipment: Long sleeve work duty
shirt or bunker coat, helmet, eye protection, ear protection, saw protected gloves, bunker
boots, and saw protected chaps.

45

2. There are several general rules that must be followed at all times when using the chain saw.
Which choice is incorrect concerning these rules? (3.1.2, 3.5.5, 3.5.6, 3.7, 3.10)
(A) Keep the body to the left of the chain. Never straddle the saw or lean across the chain.
(B) Do not overextend or cut while off balance. Do not attempt cutting above chest height.
(C) Maintain steady footing while gripping the saw firmly with both hands. When operating on
slopes, the chain saw operator must always stand on the downhill side of the tree/log when
cutting.
(D) When cutting downward you will experience a pulling reaction. When the saw breaks
through the wood the pull will cease. During upward cutting a pushing reaction will be felt.

2. C

3.7 Maintain steady footing while gripping the saw firmly with both hands. When operating
on slopes, the chain saw operator must always stand on the uphill side of the tree/log
when cutting.

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3. Which of the following correctly describes the circle of danger for chain saw operations?
(4.4)
(A) A circle of danger of a diameter of at least 10’ will be established before the
commencement of cutting. The saw operator, control person, and officer will be the only
personnel in this area during cutting.
(B) A circle of danger of a radius of at least 10’ will be established before the commencement
of cutting. The saw operator, control person, and officer will be the only personnel in this area
during cutting.
(C) A circle of danger of a diameter of at least 10’ will be established before the
commencement of cutting. The saw operator and control person will be the only personnel in
this area during cutting. Officer is to monitor conditions and relay orders received from the
officer in command. If possible, the officer is positioned as to permit visual contact with the
control person.
(D) A circle of danger of a radius of at least 10’ will be established before commencement of
cutting. The saw operator and control person will be the only personnel in this area during
cutting. Officer is to monitor conditions and relay orders received from the officer in command.
If possible, the officer is positioned as to permit visual contact with the control person.

3. D

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4. In addition to general rules, there are several operational precautions to follow when using
a chain saw. Which operational precaution is stated incorrectly? (5.2, 5.3, 5.6)
(A) Cutting an object which has fallen against a structure and is now supported by it requires
the object to be stabilized by lashing or shoring prior to cutting it.
(B) If a branch, tree section or other object is hanging, leaning or otherwise damaged, members
are to prevent access to the danger area by unauthorized persons. If practical, the object should
be stabilized by lashing or shoring. Cutting it down is not to be attempted.
(C) Kickback potential of the chain saw is very dangerous. Never make plunge cuts with the
tip of the blade. Never use the tip of the saw blade for cutting.
(D) The most dangerous kickback zone is the upper 90 degree quadrant of the saw blade.

4. A

5.2 Do not attempt cutting an object which has fallen against a structure and is now
supported by it.

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5. The chain saw can be used for a multitude of cutting operations, including cutting logs
resting on one or two fulcrum points, limbing, bucking or cutting trees blown uprooted. Choose
the incorrect point about these operations. (6.2.1, 6.6, 6.7 A, 6.8.5)
(A) When cutting on the overhanging end of log (past the fulcrum point) cut straight through
the log (rip cut). The log will hinge to the ground.
(B) Wood on the ground or standing timber which is under tension has first to be cut on the
tension side. Thereafter the cross-cut must be finished from the compression side.
(C) Limbing is the removing of branches from a fallen tree. Start limbing by leaving the lower
limbs to support the log off the ground. When under bucking freely hanging limbs, a pinch may
results or the limb may fall, causing loss of control.
(D) When cutting trees blown uprooted, start cutting from topside, working towards the stump,
this will help lighten the load on the pressure points.

5. B

6.6 Wood on the ground or standing timber which is under tension has first to be cut on the
compression side. Thereafter the cross-cut must be finished from the tension side.
Otherwise the blade will pinch or the saw may suddenly kick back.

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6. Which safety requirement concerning chain saw usage is incorrect? (7.2, 7.3.1,
7.3, 7.23)
(A) The saw shall not be operated from a ladder.
(B) Chaps must be worn by the operator, control person and officer over shorts, long pants or
bunker pants.
(C) Members must wear saw protective gloves whenever testing or operating the chain saw.
Saw protective gloves are not approved for firefighting purposes.
(D) Do not walk through unstable areas cluttered with brush, logs, vines or heavy underbrush
with a running chain saw. Carry the saw with the guide bar to the rear when climbing uphill and
to the front when going downhill.

6. B

7.3.1 Chaps must be worn over either long pants or bunker pants. Chaps shall not be
worn over shorts.

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TOOLS 26 {Hydra Ram}
7. The Hydra Ram is a hydraulically operated forcible entry tool that does not have the same
usage limitations as the Rabbit Tool. Which point about this tool is correct? (2.2, 2.3,
3.3, 4.2, 4.3, 5.2.2)
(A) Its’ main purpose is for forcible entry of inward doors only. Other applications can be to
provide an opening from the side of a vehicle hood or trunk for placement of an extinguishment
agent.
(B) The Hydra Ram can’t be used under water.
(C) The tool is designed to operate in the horizontal position only.
(D) The Hydra Ram, unlike the Rabbit Tool, can be struck with a tool to gain a purchase.
(E) Once the Hydra Ram reaches its’ maximum opening of 4-inches, additional strokes of the
control arm will cause the piston to overextend which may lead to rupturing the piston seal
causing hydraulic fluid to spray out under pressure.
(F) Both the piston under the operating arm and the working end piston should be lubricated
with “3 in 1” oil (obtained through Technical Services).

7. E

2.2 Its main purpose is for forcible entry of outward and inward opening doors. Other
applications can be to provide an opening from the side of a vehicle hood or trunk for
placement of an extinguishing agent.
2.3 The Hydra Ram can be used under water.

3.3 The tool is designed to operate in any position.

4.2 Never strike the Hydra Ram with a tool to gain a purchase.
4.3 Once the Hydra Ram reaches its maximum opening of 4-inches, additional strokes of the
control arm will cause the piston to overextend which may lead to rupturing the piston
seal causing hydraulic fluid to spray out under pressure.
If the 4-inch opening is not enough, retract the piston and place an axe head or other
substantial spacer flat on the door to provide additional opening distance.

5.2.2 Cleaning and lubricating - The entire tool can be cleaned with soap and water,
including the pistons. It is important that all dirt be removed from the pistons
prior to lubricating. Both the piston under the operating arm and the working end
piston should be lubricated with "3 In 1" oil (purchased through the Firehouse
Expense Fund). The working piston should be extended and retracted several
times, lubricating each time.

51

TOOLS 27 {Thermal Imaging Cameras}
8. Thermal Imaging Cameras (TIC) are carried by Ladder, Rescue, Squad Companies, and
Haz-Mat Company 1. TICs provide a pictorial representation of temperature differences that are
unaffected by smoke. Choose the incorrect point about this tool. (2.1, 2.2, 2.3, 2.4)
(A) Visible light is blocked by the solid carbon particles in smoke. Infrared Energy (IR) wave
length, which is detected by TICs, is unaffected by smoke.
(B) A thermal image is a pictorial representation of temperature differences. Black indicates
the presence of the least amount of heat of the coolest object in the scene.
(C) White indicates the presence of the most heat in the scene. Black and White are relative to
the overall image viewed.
(D) Shades of Gray represent the temperature difference between Black and White. These
shades of White, Black and Gray and their difference in colorization are the only colors that will
be viewed on the TIC.

8. D

9. The operator of the TIC must be familiar with its’ features in order to effectively use the
tool. Which of the following is an incorrect understanding of the TIC? (2.5, 2.6, 2.7)
(A) Low Contrast may occur in cooler areas where images may be difficult to view due to the
lack of heat present, and all objects being close in temperature.
(B) High Contrast will occur where the more heat is present. The more heat present, the clearer
and sharper the image will appear, until the area being viewed reaches the point of thermal
saturation.
(C) When everything in the viewing area is heated to temperatures beyond the capacities of the
TIC being used (Thermal Saturation), the overall area being viewed will lose all contrast and
appear black and featureless.
(D) Changing thermal contrast will cause the image viewed by the TIC to change when
conditions change from cooler to hotter back to cooler. This may be an indication of fire being
in close proximity.

52

9. The operator of the TIC must be familiar with its’ features in order to effectively use the
tool. Which of the following is an incorrect understanding of the TIC? (2.5, 2.6, 2.7)
(A) Low Contrast may occur in cooler areas where images may be difficult to view due to the
lack of heat present, and all objects being close in temperature.
(B) High Contrast will occur where the more heat is present. The more heat present, the clearer
and sharper the image will appear, until the area being viewed reaches the point of thermal
saturation.
(C) When everything in the viewing area is heated to temperatures beyond the capacities of the
TIC being used (Thermal Saturation), the overall area being viewed will lose all contrast and
appear black and featureless.
(D) Changing thermal contrast will cause the image viewed by the TIC to change when
conditions change from cooler to hotter back to cooler. This may be an indication of fire being
in close proximity.

9. C

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10. TICs shall be carried and used at all structural fire operations by all units equipped with
this tool. Choose a correct tactical application or limitation of the TIC. (2.10, 3.3, 4.1,
4.2, 4.3, 4.4, 4.5, 4.8, 4.9)
(A) Operators should begin at the floor and use a side-to-side scanning motion, slowly working
their way to the ceiling.
(B) Thermal imaging does not see through plastic or water. However, it will see through clear
glass. Shiny surfaces will conceal the heat source preventing them from being viewed with the
TIC.
(C) Average field of view of a TIC is approximately 50 degrees. Focal point of a TIC is
approximately 3 feet from the camera lens.
(D) Thermal imaging camera is intrinsically safe, however radio transmissions may cause the
TIC to malfunction.
(E) The TIC is waterproof, however it should not be submerged if possible.

10. C

Operators of TICs should remember to stay low and slowly scan the area. Operators
should begin at the ceiling and use a side-to-side scanning motion, slowly working their
way to the floor area. This will compensate for the narrow field of view of the TIC.

4.1 Thermal imaging does not see through clear glass or plastic. These act as a mirror to IR.
4.2 Shinny surfaces will reflect IR creating a mirror effect. The actual source of the image
may be opposite the reflected surface. Example - Glass, waxed floors, tiled walls, some
painted or polished surfaces or water on the floor.
4.3 Thermal imaging will not see through water.

4.8 Thermal imaging cameras are not rated as intrinsically safe.
4.9 RFI - Radio transmissions may cause the TIC to malfunction

• The TIC is water-resistant, not waterproof. NEVER submerge the camera.

54

TOOLS 28 - {Cordless Rebar Cutters}
11. The Cordless Rebar Cutter is carried by all Ladder, Squad and Rescue companies. Which
of the following can this tool cut? (2)
(A) Window and door gates
(B) Wrought iron fences up to 5/8” in radius
(C) Case hardened steel rods
(D) Case hardened locks

11. A

2. USES
This cutting tool is being distributed to all Ladder, Squad, and Rescue companies as
another option for removing window and door gates. It can also be used to cut wrought
iron fences up to 5/8" in diameter. It is not to be used to cut case hardened steel rods or
locks.

55

12. The Cordless Rebar Cutter is simple to use and requires no lengthy training period to
familiarize the member. However, there are several limitations that the operator should be
familiar with. Which choice is correct concerning this tool? (3.3, 3.4, DS1 Sec. 3.3, 3.8)
(A) Position the tool head parallel to the bar to be cut and secure it by adjusting the screw
provided.
(B) Caution must be exercised when cutting an object with a free unsupported end. To avoid
injury, material being cut should be secured.
(C) The tool can be operated in an explosive atmosphere, e.g. flammable liquids, gases or dusts
as long as proper safety precautions are followed.
(D) The tool will work well in all temperature conditions due to its’ sealed hydraulic assembly.
(E) A fully charged battery will last for approximately 60 cuts.

12. B

3.3 Position the tool head at a right angle to the bar to be cut and secure it by adjusting the
screw provided. This will hold the rebar being cut at a right angle to the cutter.
3.4 An area of safety must be observed. Caution must be exercised when cutting an object
with a free unsupported end. To avoid injury, material being cut should be secured.
Operate only after confirming the surrounding area is safe.

3.3 This tool will not work well when the temperature is BELOW 32°F. It will be necessary
to warm-up the tool prior to use. This can be accomplished by storing the tool in a heated
area or by using the trigger lock to run the tool continuously for five minutes without any
load.

56

PART IV – COMMUNICATION MANUAL – CHAP. #10 ADD #2:
1. Increased use of ICS by FDNY personnel has resulted in sectoring fire operations more
frequently. Which of the following is a correct point about Exposure Identification Sectoring?
(2, 2.1, 5)
(A) This system always uses as a reference point the view as seen by a person standing inside
the building looking at the front of the building.
(B) Buildings separated by more than 30 feet from the fire building should never be identified
as exposures.
(C) Exposure 1 is used to only indicate the street in front of the main fire building.
(D) Exposures 2, 3, and 4 are used only to indicate buildings to the left, rear, or right of the
main fire building.
(E) “O” when used as the first digit, indicates the FIRE BUILDING or FIRE AREA. When
used in any other position, “O” refers to a subdivision of the building which is identified by the
number following the “O” or the letters following the “O”.

1. E

2. The system uses a series of numbers and letters to develop an identification code which is
directly related to the building or occupancy the communicator is talking about. This
system always uses as a reference point, the view as seen by a person standing in front of
and looking at the fire building.

2.1 Buildings separated by more than thirty feet from the fire building, should not be
identified as exposures unless the volume of fire or complexity of the incident causes an
exposure problem.

5.3 "1" - is used to indicate the street in front of the main fire building or the buildings
opposite the front of the main fire building.

5.4 "2" - is used to indicate any building or area to the left of the main fire building.
5.5 "3" - is used to indicate any building or area to the rear of the main fire building.
5.6 "4" - is used to indicate any building or area to the right of the main fire building.

57

2. The exposure ID system used by the FDNY uses a series of numbers and letters to develop
an identification code which is directly related to the building or occupancy the communicator is
talking about. Which choice incorrectly describes this system? (3, 4, 5, 6)
(A) Numbers indicate direction (front, left, rear and right).
(B) Letters indicate distance from the main fire building or area.
(C) The letter A is used to indicate the first building or subdivision from the main fire building
or fire area
(D) The letter C is used to indicate the fourth building or subdivision from the main fire
building or fire area.

2. C

6.1 "A" - is used to indicate the second building or subdivision from the main fire building or
fire area.

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3. Units are operating at a 3rd alarm in a multiple dwelling on 25 Street. The Roof Sector
Supervisor notices that fire has extended to the roof of a building in the rear of the fire building.
The fire on the roof in the rear is beginning to spread to the roofs of two adjoining buildings on
26 St, which runs parallel to 25 St. The IC has designated 25 Street as Exposure 1. What would
be an incorrect way for the IC to designate the 3 buildings on 26 St. that have fire on their roofs?
(7.3 Note)
(A) Designate all 3 buildings as Exposure 3.
(B) Designate the buildings as Exposures 3, 3A, and 3B.
(C) Create a 26 Street Sector and assign a Sector Supervisor to manage the area.
(D) Create a 26 Street Branch and assign a Branch Director to manage the area.

3. B

Note: To eliminate any confusion in identifying rear exposures, all buildings in the rear shall be
referred to as exposure "3". If operations on exposure "3" become too complex, the
Incident Commander should create a sector/branch and assign a
Sector Supervisor/Branch Director to manage this area.

59

4. In an “H” type building, choose the choice which correctly describes the way to designate
wings of the “H” and the connection between these wings (7.4)
(A) Each of the arms will be designated as a Wing. Starting from right to left the wings will be
designated as A wing, B wing, etc.
(B) The connection between the A wing and B wing shall be called the AB throat.
(C) The connection between the A wing and B wing shall be called “the throat between the A
wing and B wing”.

4. C

7.4 Illustration #4 shows how the system builds; it starts with a fire in the taxpayer, "O", that
extends to the right and then out of the taxpayer and into the windows of the top floor of
exposure "4". Exposure "4" is an "H-type" building and because of its size, we will
mentally subdivide it into sections. Each of the arms of the "H" will be identified as
WINGS. In this illustration, the wing closest to the fire building is wing "A", the next
arm is wing "B" and if there is a third or fourth wing they would be identified as wing
"C" and wing "D". Wings are identified from left to right looking from the front of the
building: If necessary, each wing can be further subdivided from front to rear using the
terms FRONT, CENTER, and REAR. The part of the building connecting each wing
shall be designated the throat and shall be referred to as the throat between "A" wing and
"B" wing etc.

60

5. In recent years, it has become accepted to use plain speak exposure identification. How
many of the following are correct concerning this method of exposure ID? (10.1)
1. Plain speak exposure ID can identify buildings and/or occupancies by name, occupancy
type, address, or any other distinctive characteristic.
2. Plain speak is more effective if not used in conjunction with standard alpha-numeric
exposure ID.
3. Plain speak can be used for fireground communications and preliminary and progress
reports to the Borough Dispatcher at FDNY Single Command incidents.
4. Plain speak exposure ID should only be used when it enhances our ability to properly
identify exposures.
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

5. B (1&4)

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Answer Questions #6 – 9 using the diagram below:
6. Looking at the picture above, if the fire originated in the Pizza place, what would the Bank
be designated as? (7.2)
(A) Exposure 4
(B) Exposure 4-O
(C) Exposure O-4A
(D) Exposure 0-4B

6. C

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Answer Questions #6 – 9 using the diagram below:

7. If the fire originated in the Pizza Place, what would the Supermarket be designated as?
(7.3)
(A) Exposure 2
(B) Exposure 2A
(C) Exposure 2-OA
(D) Exposure 2-O

7. A

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Answer Questions #6 – 9 using the diagram below:

8. Assume the fire has originated in the “H” type building and has spread to the Deli. What
would be the correct way to identify the Deli? (8)
(A) 2-O
(B) 2-OB
(C) 2-0C
(D) 2-OD

8. C

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9. If the fire originated in the “H” type building, and then spreads to the Supermarket, what
would the Supermarket be designated as? (8)
(A) 2-O
(B) O-2A
(C) 2-OA
(D) 2A

9. D

Decks in Firetech Class (61):