Week 8 Flashcards

1
Q

How do cerebral aneurysms present?

A

sudden severe headache

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2
Q

What are the risk factors for meningitis?

A

age
pregnancy
skipping vaccines
weakened immune system

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3
Q

What are the symptoms of meningitis? (4/5)

A

headache
fever
stiff neck (meningismus)
signs of cerebral dysfunction (confusion, delirium)

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4
Q

What is encephalitis caused by?

A

viral infection

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5
Q

What is meningitis caused by?

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae and other bacteria

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6
Q

What is a symptom of acute hemorrhagic stroke?

A

sudden headache and pain

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7
Q

Stroke of one side of the cerebral hemisphere will affect which side?

A

contralateral side

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8
Q

What is a risk factor for hemorrhagic stroke?

A

Blood pressure that is high

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9
Q

Cerebral aneurysm can result in what kind of CVA?

A

subarachnoid hemorrhage

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10
Q

Acute hypertension is a risk factor for what kind of CVA?

A

hemorrhagic stroke

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11
Q

Parkinson disease is a deficiency of what chemical?

A

dopamine

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12
Q

What areas of the brain does Parkinson’s have a deficiency of dopamine?

A

Basal ganglia (substantia nigra_
Lewy bodies

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13
Q

Parkinson disease will give what hallmark S/S?

A

rest tremor of skeletal muscle

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14
Q

A hallmark symptom of Multiple myeloma is?

A

bone pain

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15
Q

Why do Multiple myeloma patients have bone pain?

A

MM has a tumor growing in the bone marrow

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16
Q

Migraine presents with what? (3)

A

pounding headache
nausea
photophobia

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17
Q

Characteristics of scoliosis(4)

A

Lateral curvature
increase in periods of rapid growth
uneven shoulders, scapular prominence
respiratory complications

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18
Q

What pervents fractures from forming?

A

Diabetes
smoking
poor diet

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19
Q

Paget’s disease is what followed by what?

A

excessive bone resorption followed by
excessive fragile bone formation

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20
Q

Where is the most common site for Paget’s disease

A

lower spine

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21
Q

What is Osteosarcoma ?

A

malignant bone forming tumor

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22
Q

Osteomalacia happen in adults from lack of what?

A

Vitamin D

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23
Q

Osteomalacia is called what in children?

A

rickets

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24
Q

What is a risk factor for osteoporosis for women?

A

early menopause

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25
What is Malunion?
fracure bones that heals out
26
What are the types of fractures?
communimuted fractures transverse longitudinal olibque spiral greenstick
27
Muscle strains are caused by what?
abnormal contractions
28
Phases of bone healing (cancellous) - (4)
Cancellous fracture healing occurs through development of an internal callus Rich blood supply prevents bone necrosis Osteogenic cells in the trabeculae form the primary woven bone Woven bone eventually replaced by lamellar bone
29
Phases of bone healing (cortical)- (4)
Cortical bone fracture tears blood vessels w/in haversian system​ Clotting occurs at the fracture site​ living bone replaces avascular bone via resorption & bone deposition​ Callus formation makes new bone form at edges of periosteum​ Remodeling occurs with replacement of mature lamellar bone
30
What is the difference between osteoarthritis and rheumatoid athritis?
loss of articular cartilage for osteoarthritis, usually local and degeneative (common) rheumatoid arthritis- malaise, fatigue, and diffue
31
What does SLE stand for?
Systemic Lupus
32
What is a hallmark of SLE?
butterflu rash
33
S/S of Ankylosing spondylitis are ? (4)
inflammation stiffness fusion of spinal joints
34
Gouty arthritis is an inadequate renal excretion of what?
uric acid
35
What causes gouty arthritis?
inadeguate renal excretion
36
What kind of inflammatory condition is rheumatoid arthritis?
systemic inflammatory condition
37
all characteristics of gout (4)
Disturbed uric acid metabolism Crystalline deposits in bony and Connective tissue, cardiac involvement, Renal involvement
38
How is neuronal cell fate determined?
ATP depletion
39
What are two mechanisms of brain cell death?
anaerobic metabolism deterioration of ion gradients
40
what are four types of herniation syndromes of the brain?
Subfalcine Tentorial Uncal Tonsillar
41
What is Decorticate posturing?
abnormal flexion
42
What is decerebrate posturing?
abnormal extension
43
What is the oculovestibular reflex?
rotating head, but eyes rotate counter to direction of head.
44
what is the corneal reflex?
cotton touches cornea to make the eye blink
45
what are the three types of primary injury of TBI
focal polar diffuse
46
what are the three types of Intracranial hematomas
Epidural Subdural Subarachnoid
47
How is a ischemic thrombus caused by?
atherosclerosis coagulations
48
What are ischemic emboli strokes caused by?
Cardiac dysfunction dysrhythmias
49
TIA treatments?
daily aspirin carotid endarterectomy angioplasty
50
what is the functional tissue in the brain that is made up of the two types of brain cell, neurons and glial
brain parenchyma
51
What are the two types of cells that make up the brain parenchyma?
glial and neuronal
52
What are the two types of cells that make up the brain parenchyma?
glial and neuronal
53
What is homonymous hemianopsia?
contralateral field blindness of usually have the field of vision
54
When does homonymous hemianopsia appear?
motor and sensory deficits in strokes
55
Congenital defects of the medial layer of the artery is found where?
circle of Willis
56
What is another name for absences seizures?
grand mal
57
What are five types of seizures?
absence atypical myoclonic atonic tonic- clonic
58
Tonic-clonic is another word for what type of seizure?
grand mal
59
What is a the term for a none and some changes in consciousness during a seizure?
simple- no change complex- change
60
what type of dementia is the most common?
alzheimers
61
what are four problems of alzheimer's
degeneration of neurons in temp and frontal lobes brain atrophy amyloid plaques neurofibrillary tangles
62
what is deficient in the brain with alzheimer's
brain acetylcholine
63
vascular dementia risk factors
stroke, hypertension, and diabetes
64
What are some causes of spina bifida? (2)
environ factors like folate deficits genetics
65
What are some symptoms of cerebellar disorders?
gait-balance problems ataxia hypotonia tremors
66
What are three types of hydrocephalus?
normal pressure obstructive communicating
67
Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis aka
Lou Gehrig
68
What does Guillain-Barré Syndrome affect?
demyelination of peripheral nervous system
69
What cells are Guillain-Barré Syndrome mediated by?
T and B cell mediated
70
What is Bell's Palsy?
Idiopathic neuropathy of the facial nerve; paralysis of the muscles on one side of the face
71
What are three results of spinal cord injury?
spinal shock neurogenic shock autonomic dysreflexia
72
what is another name for a telescoping fracture?
impacted
73
Brodie abscess is caused by what?
Acute, subacute or chronic hematogenous osteomyelitis infection
74
What are early signs of Parkinson disease?
Minimal blinking Loss of facial expression
75
Which is a pathophysiologic change that is consistent with Alzheimer disease?
Amyloid plaques Neurofibrillary tangle
76
A motor vehicle accident has resulted in a fracture where the articular surfaces of the tibial surface and femoral condyles are no longer in contact with one another. Which term best describes this condition?
Dislocation
77
Symptoms such as headache, lethargy, mood alterations, and epigastric sensations occur during which phase of a seizure?
Prodromal
78
Symptoms such as headache, lethargy, mood alterations, and epigastric sensations occur during which phase of a seizure?
B cells
79
A client is diagnosed with ankylosing spondylitis. Which assessment data support this diagnosis? (Select all that apply.)
Low back pain 18-year-old men
80
Which forms of muscular dystrophy are X-linked?
Duchenne
81
A 6-year-old boy presents with polyarthritis. His parents report no past medical history except for a sore throat 6 weeks previously. On physical examination, a murmur is noted. The assessment data support a diagnosis of
acute rheumatic fever
82
intracranial
headache
83
Which of the following is true about ischemic stroke? (Select all that apply.)
Has risk factors that include atherosclerosis Can be a result of a hypercoagulable state
84
Which is a risk factor for cerebral palsy?
Prenatal infection
85
When viewed on x-ray, the bone has a linear fracture that occurs in a straight line across the bone. Which term best describes this type of fracture?
Transverse
86
A 60-year-old client reports pain in the knees. The client denies any previous infection or pain in the spine. The assessment data support a diagnosis of
Osteoarthritis
87
Lyme disease is caused by
Borrelia burgdorferi
88
What is the most common site for Mycobacterium tuberculosis in the bone?
vertebral column
89
A 10-year-old boy has a metastatic lesion in the metaphyseal region of the femur that is referred to as
osteosarcoma
90
Which statement is true regarding systemic lupus erythematosus?
It is a chronic inflammatory disease.
91
A client is diagnosed with systemic lupus erythematosus. Which assessment data support this diagnosis?
African American female Contractures of the fingers Facial butterfly rash noted Swelling and pain in knees
92
What is a common site for bone metastases to occur?
Vertebral bodies
93
What are the criteria for diagnosing rheumatoid arthritis? (Select all that apply.)
Simultaneous symmetric swelling of joints Soft-tissue swelling of at least three joints Subcutaneous rheumatoid nodules Morning stiffness in joints
94
A patient exposed to herpes simplex virus has been exhibiting symptoms that suggest an inflammation of the brain. This type of infection is referred to as
Encephalitis
95
A client is diagnosed with ankylosing spondylitis. Which assessment data support this diagnosis?
Low back pain 18-year-old men
96
A client is diagnosed with ankylosing spondylitis. Which assessment data support this diagnosis?
Low back pain 18-year-old men
96
A client is diagnosed with ankylosing spondylitis. Which assessment data support this diagnosis?
Low back pain 18-year-old men
97
A 60-year-old client reports pain in the knees. The client denies any previous infection or pain in the spine. The assessment data support a diagnosis of
Osteoarthritis
98
Gallstones are most common in who?
women more than men
99
what is a common type of osteomelitis
Hematogenous osteomyelitis
100
what is Hematogenous osteomyelitis?
bone infection that originates from another place such as S. aureus
101
A patient has osteoarthritis. Which principle is important for the clinician to remember?
This is a progressive, noninflammatory disease of weight- bearing joints.
102
Preventing hemorrhagic stroke
smoking and alcohol cessation