Week3_Spring 14_on_line_2_07_14

Question 1

1. All levels of command shall access the Computerized Injury/Exposure Reporting System (CIRS) \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ to provide any required review/recommendations. Please fill in the blank? (Safety Bulletin 7, section 6.1)
A) every tour
B) daily
C) weekly
D) monthly

Answer 1

1. Answer: B

Question 2

2. “A CIRS report missing a member’s signature and/or narrative is not a reason to return for clarification.” Would you agree or disagree with the above statement?
   (Safety Bulletin 7, section 6.2.1)
   A) Agree or D) Disagree

Answer 2

2. Answer: A = Note: Completed CIRS reports may be missing a member’s signature and/or narrative. Reviewer shall forward reports that are missing member’s signature and/or narrative, if satisfied with all other information, by selecting “Save and Approve

Question 3

3. When a member sustains a burn, smoke or heat exhaustion injury, the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is required to prepare a Burn/Smoke/Heat Exhaustion Injury Report. Please fill in the blank? (Safety Bulletin 7, section 5.1)
A) Supervisor
B) Company Commander only
C) Battalion Commander only
D) Division commander only

Answer 3

3. Answer: A

Question 4

4. Please choose an incorrect CIRS procedure from the list below? (Safety Bulletin 7, section 4.1)
   A) All available injury/exposure information must be initiated and submitted no later than 7 days from the date of the injury/exposure with or without the member’s signature and/or narrative.
   B) Any injury/exposure reports that are not initiated and submitted within 7 days from the date of the injury/exposure cannot be entered into CIRS. If this occurs, the Supervisor is required to forward a CIRS-1 report, available on the Intranet, through the chain of command to the Chief of Operations with an explanation of the circumstances.

Answer 4

4. Answer: B = Any injury/exposure reports that are not initiated and submitted within 7 days from the date of the injury/exposure cannot be entered into CIRS. If this occurs, the Supervisor is required to forward a CIRS-1 report, available on the Intranet, through the chain of command to the Chief of Safety with an explanation of the circumstances.

Question 5

5. Please choose the correct CIRS procedure(s) from the list below? (Safety Bulletin 7, section 4.3 to 4.5)
   A) All injuries sustained in quarters require the officer on duty to notify the administrative Battalion Chief.
   B) Within 7 days from the date of the injury/exposure, modifications to the report replace the original submission, and the report will continue to be categorized as original.
   C) After 7 days from the date of the injury/exposure, all modifications to the report will be saved as amendments.
   D) If multiple amendments are made during a calendar day, only the last submitted amendment will be permanently saved.
   E) Amendments made on separate days will be saved separately with the appropriate date.

Answer 5

5. Answer: All of the above

Question 6

6. Minor Injury - is an injury determined by the on duty medical officer. A minor injury does not require the member to be granted the remainder of the tour or be granted a medical leave. The following shall not be classified as Minor Injuries: Please choose the incorrect item from the list below? (Safety Bulletin 7, section 2.1.3)
   A) Burns, other than first degree
   B) Chest pains
   C) Sprains or strains, with no swelling or discoloration
   D) Any injury resulting in fainting, blackout, or loss of memory
   E) Shortness of breath

Answer 6

6. Answer: C = Sprains or strains, with swelling or discoloration No swelling or discoloration is minor.

Question 7

7. In order to collect data on the events that lead to multiple injuries and to prepare strategies to prevent injuries, the Chief of Operations requires the supervisor of a unit to submit a report when; Three or more members suffer injuries at the same incident resulting in medical leave that tour. Please choose an incorrect procedure from the list below? (Safety Bulletin 7 add 2, section 2.1)
   A) The Bureau of Operations will email the unit’s Borough Command a template requesting certain basic and detailed information. The Borough will forward the report to unit via the chain of command.
   B) The officer working during the tour when the injuries occurred will be responsible for the report.
   C) If the officer is on leave, he/she shall prepare the report as soon as possible upon return to work. If the leave extends more then 30 days, a regularly assigned officer shall complete the report.
   D) Once this report is completed, the Company Commander shall review the report and add meaningful comments and suggestions that will help provide for the future safety of his/her members.
   E) Company Commanders shall forward the report via chain of command to the Chief of Safety.
   F) Chief Officers are responsible to ensure that Company Commanders include meaningful comments and suggestions to the report.

Answer 7

7. Answer: E = Company Commanders shall forward the report via chain of command to the Chief of Operations

Question 8

8. A vehicle related occurrence that results in damage to a Department vehicle when the vehicle is properly parked, or damage that is discovered during routine inspection of the vehicle is considered an incident, not an accident. Please choose an incorrect item from the list below as it relates to FDNY incidents? (Safety Bulletin 56, section 4.3)
   A) Minor injuries, serious injuries or fatal injuries to members while operating on a parked apparatus shall also be defined as an incident.
   B) An allegation that a Department vehicle caused damage to a civilian vehicle or property should be treated as an incident.
   C) Damage to a civilian vehicle caused by a properly parked apparatus operating at alarms, (e.g., a tower ladder outrigger damaging a parked car) inspection activities, MUD, should be treated as an incident; however the CD19 and CD19A are not required.

Answer 8

8. Answer: C = Damage to a civilian vehicle caused by a properly parked apparatus operating at alarms, (e.g., a tower ladder outrigger damaging a parked car) inspection activities, MUD, should be treated as an incident; CD19 and CD19A should be prepared.

Question 9

9. If the investigating Battalion Chief deems it appropriate, in questionable cases (e.g., numerous injuries, unusual circumstances), the Battalion Chief shall consult with the ____________________________ prior to making an accident determination. Please fill in the blank? (Safety Bulletin 56, section 5)
   A) Division Chief and a Safety Battalion Chief
   B) Division Chief or a Safety Battalion Chief
   C) Division Chief only
   D) Safety Battalion Chief only

Answer 9

9. Answer: A

Question 10

10. Please indicate which item or items below are correct? (Safety Bulletin 56, section 12.1)
    A) If two (or more) apparatus collide, the occurrence is considered to be two (or more) accidents, and an Apparatus Accident Report is required from each unit.
    B) A properly parked apparatus is not required to forward an Apparatus Accident Report whenever struck by another vehicle or another apparatus

Answer 10

10. Answer: A = B = A properly parked apparatus is always required to forward an Apparatus Accident Report whenever struck by another vehicle or another apparatus

Question 11

11. The CD-19 report shall be forwarded by the apparatus operator/Officer within \_\_\_\_\_ hours of the apparatus accident/incident. Please fill in the blank? (Safety Bulletin 56, section 26.1)
A) 36
B) 48
C) 72
D) 96

Answer 11

11. Answer: D

Question 12

12. From the list below please choose which item represents a 10-60-1 signal? (Communications Chapter 8, 10-60)
    A) Major Emergency Incident with the potential for multiple casualties, e.g. collapse of a private dwelling, derailment of a subway car.
    B) Major Emergency Incident with the potential for multiple casualties, with the need for Enhanced Technical Rescue Resources.
    C) Major Emergency Incident with the potential for multiple casualties, with the need for Enhanced Technical Rescue Resources. Incident is of a larger scale requiring an enhanced 2nd Alarm assignment, e.g. collapse of a 6 story multiple dwelling, an explosion with severe collateral structural damage, airplane crash (except Airport Crash Boxes 37 LaGuardia and 269 JFK).

Answer 12

12. Answer: B = Note: A = 10-60 / C = 10-60-2

Question 13

13. 10-70 - A notification that the first arriving engine does NOT have a positive water source. This shall be an “urgent” message to the dispatcher from the unit transmitting the signal. It will also require an “urgent” HT transmission to all units on the scene. Examples of situations that would require a 10-70 include: Please choose the correct item(s) from the list below? (Communications 8, 10-70)
    A) Dead or Frozen Hydrant
    B) Unable to Access a Hydrant
    C) Unable to Hookup to a Hydrant
    D) Insufficient Hydrant Pressure
    E) No Water/Insufficient Pressure at Standpipe Outlet

Answer 13

13. Answer: All are correct

Question 14

14. EMS resources assigned on a 10-75 are properly shown in which choice(s) below?
(Communications 8, 10-75)
A) 1 - Conditions Officer
B) 1 - BLS ambulance
C) 1 - ALS ambulance
D) 1 - Division Chief

Answer 14

14. Answer: A, B, C

Question 15

15. If you were the 2nd arriving BC on a 10-80-1 you would assume which position below? (Communications 8, 10-80)
A) Operations Chief
B) Site Access Control Leader
C) Safety Chief
D) Planning Section Chief

Answer 15

15. Answer: B

Question 16

1. The area of safe refuge is considered where?
A) Cold Zone
B) Warm Zone
C) Exclusion Zone
D) Hot Zone

Answer 16

1. B (HM 7- 2.3)

Question 17

2. After removing people from the contaminated area, ideally, what should be the first step in the Decon process?
   A) Removal of victims outer clothing
   B) Immediately walking victims through a decon shower
   C) Thorough technical decon
   D) Washing the victims down with water

Answer 17

2. A (HM 7- 2.3)

Question 18

3. What is the recommended operating pressure during mass decon, when using a 2 ½” line equipped with an Aquastream fog nozzle?
A) 25-30 psi
B) 30-35 psi
C) 50-80 psi
D) 90-100 psi

Answer 18

3. C (HM 7 -2.4.3)

Question 19

4. A second decon option involves using two pumpers and greatly increases our decon capabilities. Which of the following statements about this process is incorrect?
   A) Position two pumpers parallel to each other approx 25 ft apart with the control panels facing outside
   B) Place a Turbomaster fog nozzle on each pumper on a selected inside discharge gate
   C) Operate the nozzle in the fog position
   D) Set the operating pressure at 50-80 psi

Answer 19

4. B = Aquastream fog nozzle (HM 7-2.4.4)

Question 20

5. T or F SOC Support Ladders are equipped to perform mitigation activities such as leak stopping, neutralizing, or overpacking a product when operating by themselves
   A) True or B) False

Answer 20

5. B – False = SSL are not trained or equipped for these tasks unless requested to assist an HMTU or HM1 as part of a “Hammer Team” (HM 10-3.1)

Question 21

6. To operate as a SSL, the unit shall be staffed with a minimum of one trained officer or acting trained officer and at least how many trained FF’s?
A) 4
B) 5
C) 2
D) 3

Answer 21

6. D (HM 10-4.1)

Question 22

7. When encountering a high angle response at suspended scaffold emergencies, members of a SSL company made the following statements, which is correct?
   A) SSL companies should utilize the ½” kermantle when lowering a safety line to stranded workers
   B) SSL companies should utilize the rope in addition to the 9/16” LSR when lowering a safety line to stranded workers
   C) SSL companies are to stand fast awaiting Rescue or Squad response at these incidents
   D) SSL companies initial move should be to remove a window and send a trained FF out onto the scaffold for removal

Answer 22

7. A (HM 10- 7.1)

Question 23

8. T or F SSL companies shall not be permitted to attempt any entry that would require the rescuer to leave the direct line of sight of the officer supervising entry at the confined space.
   A) True or B) False

Answer 23

8. A - True (HM 10- 7.2)

Question 24

9. What is the primary consideration at a Trench Cave-In operation?
A) Hazard identification
B) Establishing a safe zone
C) Air monitoring
D) Prevention of a secondary cave in

Answer 24

9. D (HM 10- 7.4)

Question 25

``` 10. Which of the following responses would a Rapid Response Unit respond to during a large scale emergency? (more than one correct) A) Steam Leak B) Scaffold Emergency C) CFRD Response D) Flooded basements ```

Answer 25

10. A, B, C, D (HM 10-8.2)

Question 26

11. You are the officer working in a Rapid Response Vehicle. After repeated attempts to contact the dispatcher by radio to report your availability have failed, what would be your next move? A) Contact the dispatcher via cell phone B) Immediately return to the staging area from which you responded and report “10-8” C) Contact the dispatcher through the voice alarm at the nearest firehouse D) Immediately return to the staging area from which you responded and report “AQ”

Answer 26

11. D (HM 10- 8.3.5)

Question 27

12. C = Arriving at the academy, the officer and members of the assigned company will inspect trailer and tow vehicle for proper connection. When completed, a driver and second member will be assigned the tow vehicle and the remainder of the company will escort them to the incident scene. (HM 9-3.1, 5.2)

Answer 27

12. C = Arriving at the academy, the officer and members of the assigned company will inspect trailer and tow vehicle for proper connection. When completed, a driver and second member will be assigned the tow vehicle and the remainder of the company will escort them to the incident scene. (HM 9-3.1, 5.2)

Question 28

803. Standpipes are required under the 1968 Building Code in residential buildings that are? (Residential Pre-08 Pg 15) A. Exceeding 6 stories B. Exceeding 75 feet C. 2 or more stories in height with a floor area of 10,000 square feet or more on any floor D. Exceeding 3 stories in height with a floor area exceeding 7,500 square feet or more on any floor

Answer 28

803. A, B, C,D

Question 29

804. Regarding tree storage and display in residential buildings, it would be correct to state that? (Residential Pre-08 Pg 20) A. Natural cut trees are prohibited in Group J-1 buildings B. Cut natural trees may be displayed in J-2 apartment house occupancies C. It is unlawful to store natural trees that are conifers in any building D. It is unlawful to display natural trees that are conifers in any building

Answer 29

804. A, B, C, D

Question 30

805. A Fire Safety Director is required in which of the following Residential occupancies? A. All J-1 occupancies, other than college or school dormitories that are 6 stories or less, or 75 feet or less, and have 500 persons or less B. J-2 occupancies occupied by more than 30 lodgers C. J-2 occupancies occupied by more than 15 lodgers above street level D. J-2 occupancies occupied by more than 30 sleeping rooms E. J-2 occupancies occupied by more than 15 sleeping rooms above street level F. Occupied by one or more lodgers on a floor above 75 feet

Answer 30

805. A, B, C, D, E, F

Question 31

806. As per the Housing Maintenance Code, two or more persons related by blood or marriage may occupy a household with no more than ______ boarders, roomers, or lodgers. (Residential Pre-08 pg 26 And 2008) A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four

Answer 31

806. B

Question 32

807. If a tenant rents any part of an apartment in a multiple dwelling to more than _____ boarders, roomers, or lodgers, that constitutes use of the apartment as an SRO? (Residential Pre-08 pg 26 And 2008) A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four

Answer 32

807. B

Question 33

808. If a tenant rents any part of an apartment in a converted dwelling to more than ______ boarders, roomers, or lodgers, that constitutes use of the apartment as a Rooming House? (Residential Pre-08 pg 26 And 2008) A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four

Answer 33

808. B

Question 34

809. Housing Maintenance Code Rules require that every person occupying an APARTMENT in a Class A or Class B multiple dwelling, or a tenant occupied 1 or 2 family private dwelling have a livable area of not less than ______ square feet? (Residential Pre-08 pg 27 And 2008) A. 80 B. 90 C. 110 D. 130

Answer 34

809. A

Question 35

810. Housing Maintenance Code Rules require that every living room in a rooming house shall have a livable area of not less than ______ square feet? (Residential Pre-08 pg 27 And 2008) A. 80 B. 90 C. 110 D. 130

Answer 35

810. C

Question 36

811. Housing Maintenance Code Rules require that every living room in a SRO shall have a livable area of not less than ______ square feet? (Residential Pre-08 pg 27 And 2008) A. 80 B. 90 C. 110 D. 130

Answer 36

811. D

Question 37

812. When determining the total livable floor area in an apartment, which of the following areas should NOT be counted? (Residential Pre-08 pg 27 And 2008) A. Bedrooms D. Water Closets B. Kitchens E. Private halls C. Bathrooms F. Foyers

Answer 37

812. C, D, E, F

Question 38

813. When determining the amount of people who can lawfully occupy an apartment, for every two persons who may occupy an apartment, one child under _____ may also reside therein? (Residential Pre-08 pg 27 And 2008) A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four

Answer 38

813. D

Question 39

814. Which of the following areas in a PRIVATE DWELLING may be occupied? (Residential Pre-08 pg 28 And 2008) A. The cellar — for rental of an apartment B. The cellar — for sleeping, eating or cooking, other than a secondary kitchen C. The basement - for rental of an apartment in a two family PD D. The basement - for rental of an apartment in a one family PD

Answer 39

814. D

Question 40

815. When legally renting a basement of a one-family Private Dwelling, it would be correct to state that? (Residential Pre-08 Pg 28 And 2008) A. No boarders are permitted B. Every living room requires windows at least one-tenth the floor area of such room or twelve square feet, whichever is greater C. The bottom of any yard or other required open space shall be no higher than 6 inches below the window sill of any required window in any room

Answer 40

815. A, B, C

Question 41

816. Regarding Single Room Occupancy, it would be correct to state that? (Residential Pre-08 Pg 29 And 2008) A. It is unlawful to occupy any frame multiple dwelling for SRO B. There must either be a second means of egress to each apartment, or in lieu of such egress, every stair hall or public hall, or every hall or passage within an apartment shall be equipped on each story with one or more automatic sprinkler heads C. Access to a required egress provided through a room requires at least a 30 inch opening D. All required means of egress require a sign that reads “FIRE EXIT” directly over the exit opening E. The walls of any hall or passage within SRO apartments require arrows to indicate clearly the direction and location of fire exits

Answer 41

816. A, B, C, D, E

Question 42

817. Regarding Single Room Occupancy, when such dwellings are located in a building that is NOT fireproof, which areas require sprinkler coverage within the apartments? (Residential Pre-08 Pg 29 And 2008) A. The hallways B. The passageways C. The rooms

Answer 42

817. A, B, C

Question 43

818. Regarding Single Room Occupancy, it would be correct to state that? (Residential Pre-08 Pg 29 And 2008) A. The use of any movable cooking apparatus in any sleeping room is not lawful B. The use of any movable heating apparatus in any sleeping room is not lawful C. A reliable fire alarm system is required D. A competent manager is required on the premises

Answer 43

818. A, B, C, D

Question 44

819. Units arriving on the scene of an inspection of a Commercial LOFT building that has Studios being occupied by artists, should know that? (Residential Pre-08 Pg 33 And 2008) A. No more than two separate individual units shall be used for living purposes in such building B. There must not be any medium or high fire hazard occupancy in the building C. There must be a sign on the outside of the building, seven feet above the sidewalk, as close as possible to the front wall reading A.I.R., and indicating the floor level, and location—in the front or rear of the building

Answer 44

819. A, C (B—should say High Hazard only)

Question 45

820. In the 2008 Building Code, a building that is occupied TRANSIENTLY (less than a month) as the temporary abode of individuals or families, like Hotels, Motels, and Rooming Houses is Occupancy Group? (Residential 2008 Pg 1) A. R-1 B. R-2 C. R-3 D. R-4

Answer 45

820. A

Question 46

821. Sprinkler systems are required throughout ALL BUILDINGS built under the 2008 Building Code with a main or dominant use of Residential EXCEPT buildings three stories or less with separate means of egress that are? (Residential 2008 Pg 11) A. One family detached C. One family attached B. Two family detached D. Two family attached

Answer 46

821. A, B, C