Week_2_Fall 13_on_line__10_04_13_

Question 1

1. Lieutenants are responsible for the supervision and discipline of members and the efficient
   operation of units under their jurisdiction during their tour of duty. They shall comply with and
   enforce specific instructions and orders of the company commander. The senior lieutenant in
   rank, assigned to a unit, shall assume the duties and responsibilities of the company commander
   under the following conditions: Please choose the most correct answer from the list below?
   (Regulations 10, section 10.2.2)
   A) During an extended leave of absence of the assigned company commander; provided that,
   no other captain is detailed to the unit.
   B) When no provision is made for the assignment of a company commander to the unit.
   C) All of the above.

Answer 1

1. Answer: C

Question 2

2. Please indicate if the below statement is true or false? (Regulations 10, section 10.1.6)
   “Captains shall, when on duty in quarters housing more than one unit, be responsible for
   the proper discipline of all members while in quarters.”
   A) True or B) False

Answer 2

2. Answer: A True

Question 3

3. When two or more lieutenants are on duty in quarters housing more than one unit, they
   shall share responsibility for the discipline of all members while in quarters. The officer
   _________ in rank shall be primarily responsible. Please fill in the blank? (Regulations
   10, section 10.2.5)

Answer 3

3. Answer: senior

Question 4

4. Captains shall, when detailed to companies, assume the duties and responsibilities of
   company commanders. However, changes involving company policy or administrative routine
   shall not be made unless approved by assigned ____________ or ordered by
   _____________________. Please choose the most correct answer that fills in the blanks?
   (Regulations 10, 10.1.7)
   A) First Blank - Company Commander / second blank - Battalion Commander.
   B) First Blank - Company Commander / second blank - Division Commander.
   C) First Blank - Lieutenant / second blank - Battalion Commander.
   D) First Blank - Covering Captain / second blank - Division Commander.

Answer 4

4. Answer: B

Question 5

5. Please indicate if the below statement is true or false? (Regulations 10, section 10.3.3)
   “Company officers on duty shall immediately notify Battalion Chiefs of all injuries and
   illnesses occurring in quarters.”
   A) True ort B) False

Answer 5

5. Answer: B = Company officers on duty shall immediately notify Battalion Chiefs of all
   injuries occurring in quarters. (NOT ILLNESSES)

Question 6

6. Fire officers (line) shall report for duty ______ minutes prior to the start of their tour in
   order to exchange information between the on-duty officer and the relieving officer. Please fill
   in the blank? (Regulations 10, section 10.3.4)
   A) 30
   B) 10
   C) 15
   D) 5

Answer 6

6. Answer: C

Question 7

7. Line officers shall report for duty 15 minutes prior to the start of their tour in order to
   exchange information between the on duty officer and the relieving officer. Should an alarm
   occur during that 15 minute period, the relieving officer shall respond to that alarm. There are
   some instances where the on-duty officer may respond to an alarm during this 15 minute period,
   e.g., awaiting relief from an officer on overtime or response to an alarm by radio while returning
   to quarters. On-duty officers who respond to such alarms as indicated above shall record the
   reason for such response in the Company Journal. Please choose from the list below which
   flagging column entry On Duty Officers should use when recording these types of responses in
   the company journal? (Regulations 10, section 10.3.4 & Company Journal, page 11)
   A) OT
   B) CV
   C) SP
   D) OM

Answer 7

7. Answer: C

Question 8

8. Chief and company officers shall be responsible for the manual strength of units under their
   jurisdiction when reporting to or performing duty at fires or other emergencies. Accordingly,
   officers on duty shall, immediately after each roll call, prepare a Riding List (BF-4) in duplicate,
   listing all members on duty. Included on the BF-4 will be entries in the provided columns
   indicating: Please choose the correct items from the list below that should be included on the
   BF-4? (Regulations 11, section 11.1.2)
   A) Tool/hose assignment
   B) Riding position
   C) Mask assignment and group number for each member on the list.
   D) The chauffeur will be listed on the line directly under the officer.
   E) The tiller-man, if any, on the line directly under the chauffeur.

Answer 8

8. Answer: All are correct

Question 9

9. Which copy of the BF-4 should be surrendered to the Officer in Command upon his or her
   order at the scene of an operation? (Regulations 11, section 11.1.2)
   A) The original
   B) The duplicate copy.

Answer 9

9. Answer: B = Original stays on the Rig, the duplicate copy is carried by the officer,
   duplicate copy goes to the OIC (A.K.A the dope) / (Dupe to the Dope)

Question 10

10. Please choose an incorrect procedure for officers to follow from the list below?
    (Regulations 11, section 11.1.4)
    A) Officers on duty shall, at each roll call, designate a member, other than house-watchman, to
    be responsible for the proper opening of the apparatus doors.
    B) Upon receipt of an alarm, officers shall direct members to take positions in front of quarters
    for the purpose of warning pedestrians and vehicular traffic.
    C) Before moving the apparatus, the officer on duty and the chauffeur, are the only members
    who are charged with the responsibility of visually determining that the apparatus door is fully
    opened and secured.
    D) The officer shall direct the chauffeur to proceed to the apron of company quarters and halt
    the apparatus momentarily to check for vehicular and pedestrian traffic.
    E) The member assigned to open apparatus doors shall, when apparatus is clear, close and
    secure entrance and apparatus doors.
    F) When all members have boarded the apparatus, the officer shall signal the chauffeur to
    proceed to the alarm location.

Answer 10

10. Answer: C = Before moving the apparatus, the officer on duty, chauffeur, and member
    assigned to open the door shall visually determine that the door is fully opened and secured.

Question 11

11. Responses to alarms shall be made with all proper speed consistent with safety. Officers
    shall not converse with the chauffeurs, except when necessary to: Please choose the most correct
    answer from the list below? (Regulations 11, section 11.1.13)
    A) Regulate the speed of apparatus.
    B) Determine route to be taken.
    C) To relay information received by radio.
    D) All of the above.

Answer 11

11. Answer: D (Code Word = SIR - Speed / Info / Route)

Question 12

12. When responding to alarms, bells, air horns or sirens shall be sounded with a frequency
    depending upon conditions in route. These signals shall be dispensed with, when consistent with
    safety, in certain areas listed below, please choose the correct area(s)? (Regulations 11,
    section 11.1.16)
    A) In the immediate vicinity of hospitals, theaters, churches or other occupancies where large
    numbers of people are likely to be assembled.
    B) Discretion shall also be used when passing through hotel and residential districts during the
    day.
    C) When returning from alarms or other activity, all traffic regulations which apply to other
    than emergency vehicles, shall be observed. Bells, sirens or air horns shall not be used.
    D) All of the above.

Answer 12

12. Answer: A & C = B = Discretion shall also be used when passing through hotel and
    residential districts during the night.

Question 13

13. Officers shall require members driving the apparatus to observe the following: Please
    choose the incorrect procedure from the list below? (Regulations 11, section 11.1.17)
    A) Maintain safe control of the apparatus at all times.
    B) Maintain a low rate of speed when traveling through congested areas; on streets under
    elevated structures; on railway tracks; on wet or icy pavement; on descending grades; passing
    over excavations; driving over treadle equipment at toll booths.
    C) When responding to an alarm, drivers may proceed past a steady red signal, a flashing red
    signal or stop sign, but only after slowing down as may be necessary for safe operation.
    D) Maintain a low rate of speed when approaching street intersections or turning corners.
    When turning corners no apparatus should be driven in excess of 10 mph.

Answer 13

13. Answer: D = Maintain a low rate of speed when approaching street intersections or
    turning corners. When turning corners no apparatus should be driven in excess of 15 mph.

Question 14

14. When responding to alarms, use one-way streets against traffic for more than
    ______________ only when absolutely necessary. When responding on a one-way street against
    traffic, a full stop shall be made before entering an intersection and apparatus shall proceed only
    when safe response is assured. Please fill in the blank? (Regulations 11, section 11.1.17)
    A) one block
    B) two blocks
    C) three blocks
    D) four blocks

Answer 14

14. Answer: A

Question 15

15. Officers shall, without unnecessary delay in responding to alarms, take summary action
    against persons who fail to grant the right of way to the apparatus, by ordering a member who
    witnessed the violation to serve a ____________. Please fill in the blank? (Regulations 11,
    section 11.1.19)
    A) Violation Order
    B) NOV
    C) Summons
    D) written warning

Answer 15

15. Answer: C

Question 16

1) If the main stream tip (MST) is used to extinguish a fire, an effective broken stream can be
produced for venting purposes by removing the tip and partially shutting down the control
handle. When the stream is directed out of the selected window how many feet back should the
nozzle be held? (CH 5 5.1.23)
A) 1-2 feet
B) 2-3 feet
C) 3-4 feet
D) 4-5 feet

Answer 16

1. D

Question 17

2) Decisions that may be delegated by the engine officer to the nozzle team include all but
which of the following? (CH 5 5.1.26)
A) Direction of the stream
B) Rate of Advancement
C) Backing the hoseline out
D) Calling for more line

Answer 17

2. C

Question 18

3) A single 90 degrees kink in a 1 ¾” hoseline can result in a loss of how many GPM or
more? (CH 5 5.6.9)
A) 5 GPM
B) 10 GPM
C) 15 GPM
D) 20 GPM

Answer 18

3. D

Question 19

4) Which of the following provides the largest flow of any of the hydrant connections?
(CH 6 6.3)
A) 10 ft small connection
B) 35 ft soft connection
C) 10 ft hard suction
D) 50 ft length of 3 ½ hose

Answer 19

4. B

Question 20

5) Which color hydrant disc is being used improperly in the following scenarios?
(CH 6 6.5.2)
A) A yellow disc used on a frozen auxiliary fire protection system
B) A white disc used on an OOS hydrant
C) A blue disc used on a 3 inch Siamese of an auxiliary fire protection system to indicate that
the system is not functioning as a fully automatic system.
D) A white disc used on a 3 inch Siamese of an OOS

Answer 20

5. A

Question 21

6) Which hydrant encountered should “engine companies avoid the use of?” (CH 6 6.7)
A) Red Satellite Water System Hydrants
B) Red Air Cock Hydrants
C) Yellow Hydrants on Parkways and Expressways
D) Smith Hydrants

Answer 21

6. A

Question 22

7) When cleaning and repacking hose, it is extremely important the date of issuance of each
length of house in service. Where is the date of issuance found on the hose? (CH 7 7.3.1)
A) Male Coupling
B) Female Coupling
C) At the midway point of the hose
D) On both the male and female couplings

Answer 22

7. B

Question 23

8) When dealing with frozen hose and couplings, a few different methods are to be
considered, which is the only correct statement? (CH 7 7.10)
A) Heat from the exhaust pipe of the apparatus can be used to free ice from hose
B) Bend the hose as much as possible to break up the ice inside, aiding the melting process
C) If hose is frozen solid, consideration should be given to transporting it on an aerial
apparatus
D) Frozen hose may be transported on engines, provided no turns are made in the hose

Answer 23

8. C = A) from the coupling B) do not bend D) long round turns

Question 24

9) During the hose test, a water soluble marker is used to draw a line around the
circumference of the hose. It should be as close as possible to the male butt at each coupling. A
movement of how many inches or more would indicate that the male butt and hose are
separating. When this happens, the hose should be placed OOS. (CH 7 7.14)
A) 2”
B) 1/4“
C) 1/8”
D) 1”

Answer 24

9. C

Question 25

10) If using a hoseline from an adjoining apartment to extinguish fire, the line can be operated through small holes in a common partition wall. These walls should be made at approximately what level? (CH 8 8.2.4) A) Head level B) Waist level C) Knee Level D) Shoulder level

Answer 25

10. B

Question 26

11) In one and two story structures, where the amount of hose required is four lengths or less, the need to assist on the first hoseline is not as great and engine companies are generally capable of stretching and operating individually. In such cases, the officer of the 2nd Engine company should make contact with the officer of the 1st engine company to ascertain if their assistance is required. (CH 8 8.7) A) True or D) False

Answer 26

11. A True

Question 27

12) Which of the following is incorrect about a Fire Escape Stretch? (CH 8 8.15.1) A) The Control FF will remain at ground level and secure the rope to the hose B) The hose can be hoisted with either a utility rope or a 6 ft hook C) The line must be secured with hose straps on alternate floors, beginning with the fire floor D) Once sufficient line has been hoisted and the line has been charged, the Control FF can ascend the fire escape and join the nozzle team

Answer 27

12. C

Question 28

13) When dealing with buildings that have stairwells that wrap around elevators, a utility rope stretch can be made via the stair shaft window in some cases. When would we forego this method and just stretch up the stairs to the fire apartment? (CH 8, 8.17) A) If the fire is below the 3rd floor B) If the fire is below the 4th floor C) If the fire is below the 5th floor D) If the fire is below the 6th floor

Answer 28

13. A

Question 29

620. In Sprinklered buildings erected after 1948, no point on any ground or first floor shall be more than ______ feet distant from the entrance to one such exit on that floor (Chap 5, Ref 17.1 Pg 14) A. 100 B. 150 C. 200 D. 250

Answer 29

620. C

Question 30

621. In NON-Sprinklered buildings, no point on any floor above or below the ground or first floor shall be more than ___ feet distant from the entrance to one such exit on that floor (Chap 5, Ref 17.1 Pg 15) A. 100 B. 150 C. 200 D. 250

Answer 30

621. A

Question 31

622. In Sprinklered buildings, no point on any floor above or below the ground or first floor shall be more than ___ feet distant from the entrance to one such exit on that floor (Chap 5, Ref 17.1 Pg 15) A. 100 B. 150 C. 200 D. 250

Answer 31

622. B

Question 32

623. In NON-Sprinklered buildings, no point on any ground or first floor shall be more than ___ feet distant from the entrance to one such exit on that floor (Chap 5, Ref 17.1 Pg 15) A. 100 B. 150 C. 200 D. 250

Answer 32

623. C

Question 33

624. In Sprinklered buildings, no point on any ground or first floor shall be more than ___ feet distant from the entrance to one such exit on that floor (Chap 5, Ref 17.1 Pg 15) A. 100 B. 150 C. 200 D. 250

Answer 33

624. D

Question 34

625. Every exit shall be maintained in an unobstructed condition. Safe and continuous passageways with an unobstructed width of at least ___ feet throughout their length shall be maintained on all floors? (Chap 5, Ref 17.1 Pg 15) A. 3 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6

Answer 34

625. A

Question 35

626. In all factory buildings, it would be correct to state that? (Chap 5, Ref 17.1 Pg 15) A. No door leading into or out of any factory or any floor thereof shall be locked, bolted, or fastened in any fashion B. No door on any floor shall be obstructed by metal bars, grating or wire mesh C. Every door opening on a stairway or other exit shall open from both sides so as not to obstruct passage D. Doors opening directly to the street or to a yard or open area may be provided with approved panic bolts

Answer 35

626. ABCD

Question 36

627. The Assembly Occupancy Group includes building and spaces, exclusive of dwelling units, when designed? (Assembly Pre 2008—Pg 1) A. Use by any number of persons for religious, recreational, political or social purposes B. For the consumption of food or drink or similar group activities C. Occupied by 75 or more for educational purposes

Answer 36

627. ABC

Question 37

628. Occupancies must comply with the 1968 Building Code requirements for “Places of Assembly” when they are? (Assembly Pre 2008—Pg 1) A. Enclosed or outdoor spaces of 75 or more B. Enclosed or outdoor spaces of 200 or more C. Enclosed spaces of 75 or more, or outdoor spaces of 200 or more D. Enclosed spaces of 200 or more, or outdoor spaces of 75 or more

Answer 37

628. C

Question 38

629. Which Occupancy Groups are correctly indicated? (Assembly Pre 2008—Pg 1-2) A. F-1—Seated or otherwise passive audience to a performance or presentation B. F-2—Outdoor structures and spaces C. F-3—Persons physically active, do not have a common center of attention D. F-4—Persons assembled for Dancing, or consumption of food or drink, or combination of dancing, eating, drinking or entertainment

Answer 38

629. ABCD

Question 39

630. Which Occupancy Group includes buildings and spaces with scenery and scenic elements? (Assembly Pre 2008—Pg 1) A. F-1a B. F-1b

Answer 39

630. A

Question 40

631. In order for an assembly space to be considered a Cabaret as per Local Law 41, it must be a room, place or space where _______ or more persons occupy? (Assembly Pre 2008—Pg 2) A. 75 B. 100 C. 125 D. 150

Answer 40

631. A

Question 41

632. Cabarets are rooms, places, or spaces of 75 or more in which any musical entertainment, singing, dancing, or other form of amusement is permitted in conjunction with? (Assembly Pre 2008—Pg 1-2) A. The restaurant business B. The business of directly or indirectly selling to the public food or drink C. Incidental musical entertainment is provided with dancing D. Coffee Houses E. Dancing is carried on, the public may gain admission with or without paying a fee and food or beverages are sold, served, or dispensed

Answer 41

632. ABCE

Question 42

633. A premises is NOT a Cabaret if it has a capacity of 75 or more, WITHOUT DANCING, and only provides incidental entertainment. Which of the following are considered incidental entertainment? (Assembly Pre 2008—Pg 3) A. Mechanical devices B. 3 persons or less playing piano, organ, accordion, guitar or any string instrument C. One singer by himself playing piano, organ, accordion, guitar or any string instrument D. One singer accompanied by one person playing piano, organ, accordion, guitar or any string instrument

Answer 42

633. ABCD

Question 43

634. A room, place or space—used leased or hired out—serving food or drink with entertainment—for a particular function, occasion, or event (wedding, dinner-dance..) — to which bonafide members and their guests are invited, BUT the GENERAL PUBLIC is not admitted or invited is not a Cabaret. (Assembly Pre 2008—Pg 3) A. Agree or D. Disagree?

Answer 43

634. Agree

Question 44

635. Examples of spaces that are not Cabarets if they have functions or events where the GENERAL PUBLIC is NOT INVITED or ADMITTED include? (Assembly Pre 2008—Pg 3) A. Hotel ballrooms B. Catering establishments C. Schools D. Churches or Synagogues E. Knights of Columbus facilities F. Veterans or Political Group meeting facilities G. Chartered charitable, fraternal, social and ethnic meeting facilities

Answer 44

635. ABCDEFG (ALL)

Question 45

636. All assembly spaces require signs posted indicating the number of persons who may legally occupy the space UNLESS seating is fixed in place as per an approved seating plan and NO provision is made for standee spaces. (Assembly Pre 2008—Pg 5) A. Agree or D. Disagree?

Answer 45

636. Agree