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10 Flashcards

1
Q

treatment for controlling taste and odor in ancient Greek and Sanskrit documents

A

filtration of water through charcoal, irradiation by sunlight, and boiling

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2
Q

suggested that every household should have a sand filter to treat rainwater

A

La Hire

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3
Q

fairly effective at reducing turbidity and removing bacteria

A

Filtration

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4
Q

when was ozone was first used as a disinfectant

A

1893

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5
Q

chlorine was used to disinfect water mains after a typhoid outbreak

A

1897

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6
Q

chlorine was first used in the United States to disinfect
drinking water

A

1908,

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7
Q

defined as those systems serving at least 25 persons per day for greater than 60 days out of the year

A

public systems

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8
Q

supply water to the same population year-round and include, for example, cities, townships, subdivisions, and trailer park

A

Community water systems

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9
Q

regularly supply to at least 25 of the same people at least 6 months per year but not year-round

A

Nontransient noncommunity systems

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10
Q

provide water in locations, such as restaurants, motels, campgrounds, and service stations, where people do not remain for long
periods of time

A

Transient noncommunity systems

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11
Q

percent of the human race does not have adequate access to safe water

A

40%

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12
Q

Water that does not impart a taste or odor and is, therefore, pleasant to drink

A

palatable

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13
Q

percent of the children born die of infantile gastritis before the age of five

A

60 percent

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14
Q

world’s largest causes of blindness

A

Schistosomiasis and filariasis

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15
Q

Water that is free of chemicals, microorganisms, and other contaminants, and is, therefore, safe to drink

A

potable

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16
Q

Groundwater, therefore, often contains ___ dissolved minerals than surface water

A

more

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17
Q

Physical characteristics

A

its color or turbidity, temperature, and, in particular, taste and odor

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18
Q

they cause urinary tract infections

A

Aerobacter aerogenes

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19
Q

caused by the presence of suspended material such as clay, silt, finely divided organic material, plankton, and other particulate material in water

A

Turbidity

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20
Q

algae that can also impart foul tastes and odors.

A

blue-green algae

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21
Q

(blue baby syndrome)

A

methemoglobinemia

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22
Q

water having a temperature between ____ is most palatable.

A

10–15◦C

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23
Q

can be shallow (less than 15 m) or deep (greater than 15 m)

A

Drinking-water wells

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24
Q

the deeper the well

A

the greater the level of protection from contamination

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25
Q

Nitrates most often originate from

A

application of agricultural fertilizer

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26
Q

are gram-negative bacteria that commonly inhabit the intestinal tracts of mammal

A

Escherichia coli

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27
Q

test for the microorganisms

A

total coliform test

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28
Q

where the chemical reacts with colloidal particles in the water to form larger particles

A

flocculation basin

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29
Q

pathogens

A

disease-producing organisms

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30
Q

One strain of E. coli (0157) produces a _____ that causes cell damage, leading to the development of bloody diarrhea

A

potent toxin (vero toxin)

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31
Q

presence of ____ is an indication of fecal contamination of the water

A

coliforms

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32
Q

used to treat groundwater that has a high hardness

A

Softening plants

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33
Q

the particles come in contact with one another, “stick together,” and form settleable
particles called

A

floc

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34
Q

health risk because the energy emitted by radioactive materials can damage or kill cells

A

Radioactivity

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35
Q

reduce the pH

A

recarbonation

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36
Q

Water treatment facilities types

A

(1) coagulation plants, (2) softening plants, and (3) limited treatment plants.

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37
Q

pumped from wells drilled into aquifer

A

Groundwater

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38
Q

During rapid mixing, chemicals called ____ are added and rapidly dispersed through the water

A

coagulants

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39
Q

Fluoridation can also be a part of the
treatment process

A

corrosion control

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40
Q

ions of opposite charge

A

counterions

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41
Q

once the particles are in the sufficient size to precipitate, they are usually removed by gravity in

A

sedimentation basins

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42
Q

used to reduce the number of pathogenic organisms to levels that will not cause disease

A

Disinfection

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43
Q

the addition of fluoride to strengthen teeth enamel and reduce the number of cavities

A

Fluoridation

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44
Q

layer Beyond the Stern laye

A

Gouy-Chapman or diffuse layer

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45
Q

a layer of cations that are strongly adsorbed to the surface

A

counterions

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46
Q

The greater the concentration of the positive ion added, the _____ the extent to which the surface charge is neutralized

A

greater

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47
Q

why is coagulation needed

A

To supply a counterion (positive) which will help in balancing the electrical charge (neutralizing).

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48
Q

Charge of colloidal particles in surface water negative

A

coagulation

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49
Q

thickness of the double layer ____ as the ionic strength of the solution increases

A

decreases

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50
Q

short-range attractive forces that allow colloidal particles in water to stick together

A

(van der Waals forces)

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51
Q

has a much greater effect on turbidity than does the addition of sodium ions

A

dodecyl ammonium ions

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52
Q

too much dodecyl ammonium is added, the turbidity increase

A

excess ions adsorbed to the surface in a net positive charge, causing the colloids to again repel

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53
Q

chemical that is added to the water to cause the particles to coagulate

A

coagulant

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54
Q

excess ions adsorbed to the surface in a net positive charge, causing the colloids to again repel

A

restabilization

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55
Q

precipitate that “entrap” the colloidal particles within the flocs

A

sweep floc

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56
Q

more effective than monovalent or divalent simple cations, such as sodium and calcium

A

Trivalent cation

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57
Q

Aluminum sulfate formula

A

(Al2(SO4)3 · 14H2O)

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58
Q

Commercial alum has an average molecular weight of

A

594

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59
Q

two most commonly used metallic coagulants are

A

aluminum and ferric ion

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60
Q

Two important factors in coagulant addition

A

pH and dose

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61
Q

pH control is a proble

A

lime or sodium carbonate may be added to neutralize the acid

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62
Q

optimal pH range for alum is approximately

A

5.5–6.5

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63
Q

ferric sulfate

A

(Fe2(SO4)3 · 7H2O)

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64
Q

adequate coagulation possible at pH

A

5 and 8

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65
Q

ferric chloride

A

(FeCl3 · 7H2O)

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66
Q

Ferric salts generally have a wider pH range for effective coagulation than aluminum, that is

A

4 to 9

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67
Q

three basic types of coagulant aids

A

activated silica, clay, and polymers

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68
Q

sodium silicate that has been activated with sulfuric acid, alum, carbon dioxide, or chlorine

A

Activated silica

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69
Q

addition of activated silica is especially useful for treating

A

highly colored, low-turbidity waters because it increases the density of the floc

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70
Q

When activated silica is added to water; it produces a

A

solid colloidal particles dispersed in a liquid called stable sol that has a negative surface charge

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71
Q

most effective polymers used in water treatment as coagulant aids are

A

anionic and nonionic polymers

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72
Q

accomplished by slow gentle mixing

A

flocculation

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73
Q

long-chain carbon compounds of high molecular weight that have many active sites

A

Polymers

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74
Q

process whereby the chemicals are quickly and
uniformly dispersed in the water

A

rapid mixing

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75
Q

formation of flocs

A

flocculation

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76
Q

precipitate formed during softening

A

calcium carbonate and magnesium hydroxide

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77
Q

precipitate formed during coagulation

A

aluminum hydroxide or iron hydroxide

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78
Q

most important physical operation affecting coagulant dose efficiency

A

Rapid mixing

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79
Q

dissolution of CaO/Ca(OH)2 mixtures for softening, detention times on the order of ___ is required

A

5 to 10 min

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80
Q

provides more turbulence and is preferred for rapid mixing

A

turbine impeller

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81
Q

rapid mix tanks impeller diameter should be between ____ times the tank diameter or width,

A

0.30 and 0.50

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82
Q

volume seldom exceeds ___ because of mixing equipment and geometry constraints

A

8m^3

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83
Q

rapid mix tank design liquid depth should be

A

0.5–1.1 times the basin diameter

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84
Q

rapid mix tanks vertical baffles should extend into the tank about ____ of the tank width or diameter

A

10%

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85
Q

provides the conditions necessary for optimal particle growth so that sedimentation can occur successfully

A

flocculation

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86
Q

the ___ the G value, the more vigorous the mixing

A

higher

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87
Q

objective of flocculation

A

allow the particles to collide, adhere to one another, and grow to a size that will settle readily

88
Q

main advantage of upflow solids contact unit

A

main advantage of

89
Q

major design parameter used in flocculation is

A

velocity gradient, G

90
Q

describes the degree of mixing

A

velocity gradient, G

91
Q

Flocculation is usually accomplished with an

A

axial-flow impeller

92
Q

water that does not lather well

A

hardness

93
Q

favored for softening

A

upflow solids contact unit

94
Q

the predominant contributors hardness

A

calcium and magnesium

95
Q

amount of hardness equal to the total hardness or the total alkalinity

A

Carbonate hardness

96
Q

failure to lather well and the formation of scum on bathtubs is the result of

A

reactions of calcium and magnesium with the soap

97
Q

sum of all polyvalent cations

A

Hardness

98
Q

solubility of calcium and magnesium bicarbonates and carbonates ____ with increasing temperature

A

decreases

99
Q

precipitate calcium, the pH of the water must be raised to about

A

10.3

100
Q

often called temporary hardness because heating the water removes it

A

carbonate hardness

101
Q

precipitate magnesium, the pH must be raised to about

A

11

102
Q

total hardness in excess of the alkalinity

A

Noncarbonate hardness

103
Q

objective of lime soda softening

A

precipitate the calcium as CaCO3 and the magnesium as Mg(OH)2

104
Q

permanent hardness because it is not removed when water is heated

A

Noncarbonate hardness

105
Q

Softening can be accomplished by either the

A

lime–soda process or by ion exchange

106
Q

which is more expensive to remove noncarbonate hardness or carbonate hardness

A

noncarbonate hardness

107
Q

common source of hydroxyl ions

A

calcium hydroxide

108
Q

final total hardness on the order of

A

75–120 mg · L−1 as CaCO3.

109
Q

softening reactions are regulated by controlling the

A

pH

110
Q

Six important softening reactions

A

Neutralization of carbonic acid
Precipitation of carbonate hardness due to calcium
Precipitation of carbonate hardness due to magnesium
Removal of noncarbonate hardness due to calcium
Removal of noncarbonate hardness due to magnesium

111
Q

converted to hydrated lime at the water treatment plant by mixing

A

quicklime

112
Q

slaking

A

e quicklime is converted to hydrated lime at the water treatment plant by mixing CaO and water to produce a slurry of Ca(OH)2

113
Q

minimum calcium hardness that can be achieved is about

A

30 mg · L−1 as CaCO3

114
Q

the minimum magnesium hardness is about

A

10 mg · L−1 as CaCO3

115
Q

minimum excess of____ of Ca(OH)2 expressed as CaCO3 must be provided.

A

20 mg · L−1

116
Q

reversible exchange of an ion on a solid phase with an ion of like charge in an aqueous phase.

A

Ion exchange

117
Q

most often used for metal removal

A

ion exchange

118
Q

To achieve reasonable removal of hardness in a practical time period, an excess of

A

Ca(OH)2 greater than the stoichiometric amount is usually provided

119
Q

excess of lime equal to the ____ to be removed

A

magnesium

120
Q

Because of the expense of removing magnesium, we normally remove only that magnesium that is in excess of ____ as CaCO3.

A

40 mg · L−1

121
Q

reversible exchange of an ion on a solid phase with an ion of like charge in an aqueous phase

A

Ion exchange

122
Q

effluent hardness concentration exceeds a predetermined level, _____ is said to have occurred

A

breakthrough

123
Q

naturally
occurring clays

A

zeolites

124
Q

ion-exchange material can either be

A

naturally occuring clay or synthetically made resins

125
Q

it is necessary to bypass a portion of the water and then blend to obtain the desired final hardnes

A

Because the resin removes virtually 100% of the hardness

126
Q

detention time of sedimentation basins

A

2-4 hr

127
Q

designed so as to remove the settled water from the basin without carrying away any of the floc particles

A

clarifier

128
Q

put in place to provide a large area for the water to flow through and minimize the velocity in the sedimentation tank near the outlet zone

A

weirs or series of troughs

129
Q

require a shorter length of weir than do lighter particles

A

heavier particles

130
Q

particles settle discretely at a constant velocity

A

Type I sedimentation

131
Q

settle as individual particles and do not flocculate or stick to other particles during settling

A

Type I sedimentation

132
Q

particles that flocculate during sedimentation

A

Type II sedimentation

133
Q

type of sedimentation where velocity changes due to the changes in the size

A

type 2

134
Q

These types of particles occur with alum or iron coagulation in primary sedimentation basins and in settling tanks in trickling filtration

A

Type II sedimentation where particles flocculate

135
Q

particles are at a high concentration such that the particles tend to settle as a mass

A

Type III, or Zone, Sedimentation

136
Q

occurs in lime-softening sedimentation,
activated-sludge sedimentation

A

Type III, or Zone, Sedimentation

137
Q

Stokes’ Law

A

George Gabriel Stokes

138
Q

valid only at laminar flow conditions

A

Stokes’ Law

139
Q

the turbidity of the settling tank effluent ranges from

A

1 to 10 TU

140
Q

typical value of the settling tank effluent

A

3 TU

141
Q

To reduce 3TU turbidity to 0.3 TU

A

a filtration process is normally used

142
Q

the process by which water flows slowly through a bed of granular media, usually sand, anthracite coal, or garnet

A

Filtration

143
Q

settle out on the filter medium

A

Heavy particles

144
Q

Once the pore spaces are filled to some “capacity,”

A

filter bed needs to be backwashed

145
Q

Slow sand filters conventionally use only

A

sand

146
Q

rapid sand filters

A

use a variety of media

147
Q

more effective at removing biological particle

A

Slow sand filters

148
Q

layer, which forms on the surface of sand filters, has
smaller pore space

A

schmutzdecke layer

149
Q

the flow rate of water applied per unit area of the filter

A

loading rate

150
Q

used in water treatment to kill pathogens

A

Disinfection

151
Q

implies the destruction of all living organisms

A

Sterilization

152
Q

rate of kill of a type of microorganism can be described by

A

Chick’s Law

153
Q

Chick’s Law

A

(Chick, 1908)

154
Q

Chick’s Law

A

does not take into account the concentration of the disinfectant

155
Q

assumes that the disinfectant concentration remains constant

A

Chick-Watson

156
Q

Actual conditions, the rate of kill may depart significantly from Chick’s law

A

Increasing rates of kill (with time) may occur because of the time necessary for the disinfectant to damage and
inactivate the organism

157
Q

formed when disinfectants used in water treatment plants react with bromide or naturally occurring organic matter present in the source water

A

Disinfectants and Disinfection By-Products

158
Q

group of four chemicals that form when chlorine-based disinfectants

A

Trihalomethanes

159
Q

THMs

A

chloroform, bromodichloromethane, dibromochloromethane, and bromoform

160
Q

a group of chemicals that form when certain disinfectants
react with naturally occurring organic and inorganic matter in water

A

Haloacetic acids

161
Q

formed when ozone reacts with naturally occurring bromide

A

Bromate

162
Q

has been the most commonly used disinfectant

A

chlorine

163
Q

major disadvantages of chlorine are

A

formation of chlorinated by-products due to
the reaction of chlorine with naturally occurring organic matter

164
Q

effectiveness of chlorine depends on several factors, including

A

dosage, contact time, turbidity, reactive species, pH, water temperature

165
Q

referred to as combined chlorine

A

chloramines

166
Q

sum of the concentrations of free chlorine and combined chlorine

A

total chlorine

167
Q

As the chlorine dose ____, chloramines form along with chlorinated organic compounds.

A

increases

168
Q

point at which the chlorine level reaches a minimum value is known as the breakpoint and the process is called

A

breakpoint chlorination.

169
Q

used as a primary disinfectant, inactivating the bacteria and cysts

A

Chlorine dioxide

170
Q

used as a secondary disinfectant to provide a residual in the distribution system

A

Chloramine

171
Q

major disadvantage of chlorine dioxide

A

potential formation of chlorite and chlorate, which are potential human carcinogens

172
Q

has the advantage of not forming THMs or any
of the chlorinated DBPs

A

ozone

173
Q

form some low-molecular weight compounds that can react with chlorine-based disinfectants to produce chlorinated aldehydes and ketones

A

ozone

174
Q

disadvantage of ozone

A

the regrowth of bacteria in the distribution system can be problematic

175
Q

has the potential to inactivate pathogens

A

UV radiation

176
Q

results from a photochemical reaction with nucleic acids and other vital cellular chemicals.

A

inactivation of microorganisms by UV radiation

177
Q

Vacuum UV

A

(100–200 nm)

178
Q

UV-C

A

(200–280 nm)

179
Q

UV-B

A

(280–315 nm)

180
Q

UV-A

A

(315–400 nm)

181
Q

dependent on the ability of the UV light to pass through the water to get to the target organism

A

germicidal efficacy

182
Q

selective, semipermeable barriers, which exclude some constituents and allow others to pass.

A

Membranes

183
Q

the driving force in membrane processes

A

pressure

184
Q

Microfiltration (MF) can be used to remove particles

A

> 50 nm

185
Q

Ultrafiltration (UF) removes particles larger than

A

2 nm

186
Q

provide higher quality water, minimize disinfectant demand, are more compact, provide easier operational control and less maintenance, and generate less sludge

A

membrane process

187
Q

a measure of the degree to which constituents in the feed water are prevented from passing through a semi-permeable membrane

A

Rejection

188
Q

can be used for the removal of salts and low molecular-weight dissolved organic chemicals

A

Nanofiltration (NF) and reverse osmosis

189
Q

e capable of rejecting high percentages of multivalent ions and divalent cations

A

NF membranes

190
Q

One of the major challenges associated with the operation of membrane filtration is the

A

energy required for its operation

191
Q

reducing the quantity of treated water, shortening membrane life, and increasing the frequency of membrane cleaning

A

Membrane fouling

192
Q

lowers the economic efficiency

A

Membrane fouling

193
Q

influenced by the concentration and nature of the particulates and solutes present

A

Fouling rate

194
Q

are processes designed to produce hydroxyl radicals

A

Advanced Oxidation Processes (AOPs)

195
Q

attachment of chemical compounds onto soil particles

A

Carbon adsorption

196
Q

a GAC filter typically lasts

A

90–120 days

197
Q

used in drinking-water treatment primarily for the oxidation of iron and for the removal of volatile organic chemicals

A

Aeration

198
Q

____ oxidation is much slower than that of ferrous iron

A

Manganese

199
Q

Aeration can also be used for the

A

removal of volatile organic chemicals

200
Q

precipitated chemicals and other materials removed from water to make it potable and palatable are termed

A

sludge

200
Q

_____ of sludge is produced for each 20 kg of chemicals added to the water

A

1 m^3

201
Q

the most common sludge-handling options available

A

thickening, dewatering, and disposal

202
Q

usually accomplished by using circular settling basins similar to a clarifier

A

Thickening

203
Q

large pond dug out for containment of the sludge

A

lagoon

204
Q

to store and collect the solids for some predetermined length of time

A

Storage lagoon

205
Q

has a sand and underdrain bottom

A

dewatering lagoon

206
Q

dewatering of sludge on sand beds is accomplished by two major methods

A

drainage, evaporation

207
Q

operate on the simple principle of spreading the sludge out and letting it dry

A

Sand-drying beds

208
Q

Dewatering sludge by either of the nonmechanical methods may be enhanced by physical conditioning of the sludge through

A

alternate freezing and thawing cycles

209
Q

the water molecules are selectively frozen, thereby dehydrating the solid particles

A

freezing

210
Q

the sludge is thawed, and the solid mass forms granular-shaped particles

A

thawing

211
Q

uses centrifugal force to speed up the separation of sludge particles from the liquid

A

centrifuge

212
Q

consists of a cylindrical drum, covered with a filtering material or fabric, which rotates partially submerged in a vat of conditioned sludge

A

vacuum filter

213
Q

operates on the principle that bending a sludge cake contained between two filter belts around a roll introduces shear and compressive forces in the cake

A

Continuous Belt Filter Press (CBFP)

214
Q

sludge is pumped into the pressure filter and passes through feed holes in the filter plates along the length of the filter and into the recessed chambers

A

Plate Pressure Filters

215
Q

well-engineered facilities that are located, designed, operated, monitored during operation and after closure, closed, cleaned up when necessary, and financed
according to federal regulations

A

Landfills

D (9 decks)

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