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Part 1 > 107 HF > Flashcards

107 HF Flashcards

1
Q

When and what was first adopted by ICAO in terms of human factors?

A

Resolution A26-9, 1989.

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2
Q

What was the first air accident that resulted in fatalities?

A

Rozier Balloon Accident, 1785

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3
Q

When was NZs first air accident?

A

1899, fatal balloon accident.

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4
Q

Out of every 100 deaths of British aviators in WWI, how many were due to being shot down, aircraft failure, and human factors?

A

2 shot down
8 due to aircraft failure
90 due to human factors

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5
Q

What period of time did most countries introduce licensing?

A

Interwar years (1918-1939)

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6
Q

What is the Hawthorne Effect?

A

Originally about lighting effect on productivity, later interpreted as behaviour modification under observation

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7
Q

When did human factors begin to be studied by use of the “Cambridge Cockpit”?

A

WWII (1939-1945)

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8
Q

When did the T arrangement become standardised?

A

1940s

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9
Q

NZ industry first regulated in?

A

1918

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10
Q

NZ air board established in?

A

1920

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11
Q

NZ licensing began in?

A

1934

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12
Q

NZ flight attendants legally required from?

A

1956

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13
Q

NZ air department established in?

A

1937

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14
Q

NZ air department restructured as CAA in?

A

1948

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15
Q

Why did air safety improve dramatically in the 1960s and 70s?

A

Better systems and equipment

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16
Q

When did research into the human influence of air accidents begin?

A

late 1970s and early 1980s

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17
Q

What/when was the first airline to implement a human factors course and what was it in response to?

A

KLM (KUHFAC), 1977, in response to Tenerife accident.

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18
Q

What percentage of air accidents occur in the final approach and landing phase?

A

40%

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19
Q

When was SHEL, SHELL, and SCHELL created?

A

1972, 1975, 1990

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20
Q

What is a latent failure?

A

A failure that remains hidden int he system until the right circumstances allow them to surface, made at a different time and place to accident.

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21
Q

What is an active failure?

A

Failure that has an immediate effect of the outcome of a flight.

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22
Q

What is a causal factor?

A

a factor that would eliminate a hazard or accident, had they been different an accident is unlikely to have occurred

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23
Q

What is a contributing factor?

A

factors that mean the right circumstances allowed for the result in an accident, without it the accident may still have occurred

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24
Q

What is the Von Karman line?

A

The line between the atmosphere and space (about 100km)

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25
Q

What is Boyles law?

A

As volume increases, pressure decreases.

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26
Q

What is Grahams law?

A

A gas will diffuse from an area of high pressure to an area of low pressure.

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27
Q

What is Henrys law?

A

When the pressure over a liquid is decreases, the gas in the liquid also decreases.

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28
Q

What is Daltons law?

A

The total pressure of a sum of gases is equal to the partial pressure of each gas.

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29
Q

What parts of the body form the central nervous system?

A

Brain and spinal cord

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30
Q

What is the circulatory system responsible for?

A

Transporting blood throughout the body, oxygen and nutrients to the cell, waste materials away from the cell

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31
Q

What blood cells carry oxygen around the body?

A

Red blood cells (haemoglobin forms oxyhemoglobin)

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32
Q

What cells protect the body against foreign substances/produce antibodies?

A

White blood cells

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33
Q

What do platelets do?

A

Form clots to stop blood loss

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34
Q

What are the three components of the cardiovascular system?

A

Heart pumps blood, lungs provide oxygen and removes co2 from blood, blood vessels provide paths for blood to travel throughout the body.

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35
Q

What do arteries carry?

A

Oxygenated blood

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36
Q

What do veins carry?

A

Deoxygenated blood

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37
Q

What do capillaries do?

A

Link veins and arteries to allow diffusion in and out of tissues

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38
Q

What is external respiration?

A

Bringing air into the lungs, where oxygen will diffuse into the bloodstream (and co2 out)

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39
Q

What is internal respiration?

A

Getting oxygen to body tissues (and co2 out)

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40
Q

What gas law determines the diffusion rate of oxygen/co2 in and out of the lungs?

A

Grahams law

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41
Q

How long without oxygen results in brain damage?

A

4 minutes

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42
Q

What is the external breathing rate determined by?

A

The amount of co2 returning to the lungs (high co2, more oxygen needed)

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43
Q

What gas laws explain the functions not the lungs (diaphragm)?

A

Boyles law, increase in volume creates area of low pressure. Grahams law, air is drawn in from high pressure to low pressure.

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44
Q

What are the two measures of blood pressure?

A

Systolic - pressure when heart pumps
Diastolic - trough when heart pauses

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45
Q

What is high blood pressure known as?

A

Hypertension

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46
Q

What are the side effects of blood donation?

A

Dizziness
Chills
Tingling of lips or nose

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47
Q

How long after donating blood should a pilot avoid duty?

A

Commercial - 7 days
Other - 24hrs min (2-3 days advised)

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48
Q

What is cholesterol?

A

Protein formed in the body

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49
Q

What is LDL cholesterol?

A

From eating animal fats, “bad” cholesterol.

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50
Q

What is HDL cholesterol?

A

formed from exercise, “good” cholesterol.

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51
Q

What are the guidelines for flying during pregnancy?

A

No flying first or third trimester, or for 6 weeks after delivery. Second trimer usually ok to fly.

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52
Q

How much water needs to be replaced in the body every day?

A

1 to 5 litres

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53
Q

Why don’t we fly with colds, flus, and ear infections?

A

Inability of the ear to equalise the inner ear pressure with ambient pressure due to blockage of the Eustachian tube.

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54
Q

Extreme pressure changes with a blocked Eustachian tube can result in:

A

Extreme pain
Permanent damage to the inner ear
Pressure vertigo

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55
Q

What are the three major mosquito born infections?

A

Malaria, Yellow fever, Dengue fever

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56
Q

What are mosquito born infections caused by?

A

Parasites in the blood

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57
Q

What are typhoid and cholera caused by?

A

Poor sanitation

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58
Q

What is polio caused by?

A

Touching, ingesting, or inhaling a disease

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59
Q

What part of the body does polio, typhoid, and cholera affect?

A

Central nervous system, can cause death/life long disability

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60
Q

How do you avoid polio, typhoid, and cholera

A

Clean water, vaccinations

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61
Q

What is hepatitis?

A

Infection of the liver

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62
Q

What types of hepatitis are there?

A

Type A (from contaminated sewage water)
Type B/C (from infected blood, saliva or mucous)

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63
Q

What type of hepatitis is life-shortening?

A

type B/C

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64
Q

What is tetanus caused by?

A

Penetration wound with an object that has soil bacteria

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65
Q

What does tetanus affect and how is it prevented?

A

Nervous system, vaccination (5-10 years)

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66
Q

What is rabies cause by?

A

A bite from an infected animal, incurable/deadly. Vaccinate.

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67
Q

What are the early risk factors for cancer?

A

Age, smoking, regular contact with known carcinogens

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68
Q

What is myocardial infarction?

A

Heart attack, the necrosis of heart muscle tissue due to a lack in oxygen.

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69
Q

What are thrombosis, angina, arteriosclerosis, aneurysm, and strokes examples of?

A

Cardiovascular diseases

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70
Q

What is deep vein thrombosis (DVT) or economy class syndrome?

A

formation of blood clots due to long periods of inactivity

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71
Q

What are migraines caused by?

A

The constriction of arteries in an area of the brain

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72
Q

What are the symptoms of migraines?

A

vision impairment
nausea
vomiting
severe pain
sensitivity to light
incapacitation

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73
Q

What is diabetes?

A

Condition where the body cannot produce insulin, which is required for the breakdown of glucose into energy

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74
Q

What is epilepsy?

A

Neurological condition where electrical signals are disturbed, causing seizures

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75
Q

What are the effects of alcohol on the central nervous system and inhibition?

A

Slows down the CNS, removes inhibition.

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76
Q

What is the stand down after drinking alcohol

A

Usually 8-12 hours. 24 hours after heavy drinking.

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77
Q

What is the legal blood alcohol limit for pilots in NZ?

A

Zero

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78
Q

Can you fly under the influence of marijuana? even if it is legal?

A

No

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79
Q

Why is smoking bad for pilots?

A

Reduces ability to perform at altitude as by products of tobacco smoke are carried with the blood in lieu of oxygen

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80
Q

Are over the counter drugs such as antibiotics and antihistamines safe to take while flying?

A

No

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81
Q

What age does CAA require more regular medicals and the ‘aging pilot report’?

A

over 70

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82
Q

What is osteoporosis?

A

Brittle bones as aging occurs. Caused by a deficiency in calcium.

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83
Q

What ages should breast and prostate cancer we checked for?

A

45-69 for woman
over 50 for men

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84
Q

What is incapacitation?

A

when a pilot is unable, incapable or unfit to fly the aircraft

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85
Q

What are the most common causes of incapacitation?

A

Food poisoning
Fainting
Heart attack/stroke
Pain
Headaches or migraines

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86
Q

Immediate response to incapacitation

A
  1. isolate pilot from controls
  2. ensure flight path is under control
  3. get assistance from cabin crew
  4. ensure pilot gets appropriate attention
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87
Q

What does DRABCD stand for?

A

Danger
Response
Airways
Breathing
Compression
Defibrillator

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88
Q

Why do we do CPR if it is unlikely to revive a person?

A

To maintain a supply of oxygen throughout the body

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89
Q

What is typically included in a safety briefing?

A

Seatbelts
Emergency exits
Smoking
Radio/entertainment
Planned route
Doors/windows/ventilation

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90
Q

What is the international distress signal?

A

Flag and ball

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91
Q

What are the four priorities of survival?

A
  1. protection
  2. location
  3. water
  4. food
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92
Q

What is the partial pressure of oxygen at sea level outside our lungs, at the alveoli, and at the lung capillaries?

A

160mmHg
103mmHg
20-40mmHg

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93
Q

What is the earliest symptom of hypoxia?

A

Euphoria

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94
Q

What is cyanosis?

A

Blue lips, symptom of hypoxia

95
Q

What is the time of useful consciousness?

A

Time elapsed between the interruption of oxygen supply and the time the individual is no longer capable of performing normal tasks

96
Q

What is the TUC at 18,000ft?

A

20/30 minutes

97
Q

What is the TUC at 22,000ft?

A

5/10 minutes

98
Q

What is the TUC at 25,000ft?

A

2/3 minutes

99
Q

What is the TUC at 30,000ft?

A

45/75 seconds

100
Q

What is the TUC at 35,000ft?

A

30/45 seconds

101
Q

What is the TUC at 40,000ft?

A

12/15 seconds

102
Q

What types of hypoxia are there?

A

Hypoxic
Anaemic (inability to carry oxygen)
Stagnant (circulatory)
Histoxic (poisoning of cells/tissues)

103
Q

How long can full recovery from hypoxia take?

A

3-5 minutes

104
Q

What does hyperventilation cause?

A

The flushing of co2 out of the blood

105
Q

What causes barotrauma?

A

Trapped gases within the body that contract and expand during flight

106
Q

What causes pain in the climb?

A

Teeth, intestines

107
Q

What causes pain in the descent?

A

Ears, sinuses

108
Q

What is decompression sickness (bends) and what causes it?

A

Bubbles developing in the body when subjected to reduced environmental pressure. Diving or flying unpressurised aircraft above 18,000ft

109
Q

How long after diving should you wait to fly for 2 hours in last 2 days, multi-day, and dives requiring decompression stops?

A

12 hours
24 hours
48 hours

110
Q

What is carbon monoxide poisoning?

A

Gas present in exhaust gases, forms an affinity with haemoglobin in preference to oxygen.

111
Q

CO poisoning symptoms

A

Cherry red complexion
Convulsions
Faster breathing rate

112
Q

What are the three stages of vision?

A

Looking, seeing, recognising

113
Q

What part of the eye provides main (coarse) focus?

A

Cornea - about 70%

114
Q

What is the purpose of the pupil?

A

Changes size to allow or restrict light, small when bright, big when dim

115
Q

What part of the eye provides fine focus? and how?

A

Lens, through the contracting of the ciliary muscles

116
Q

What is accommodation of the eye?

A

Ability to change focus from a far to a near object

117
Q

What does the retina contain?

A

Rods and cones

118
Q

What are cones?

A

Cones provide best visual acuity, colour vision, most effective in daylight. Located in centre of foveal region.

119
Q

What are rods?

A

Responsible for peripheral vision, only see in black/white/grey, sensitive to movement. Located in a band outside the central foveal region.

120
Q

What is the job of the retina?

A

Converts images to electrical signals that pass along the optic nerve to the brain

121
Q

What does the optic nerve cause in our vision?

A

A blindspot, compensated with binocular vision.

122
Q

What is the colour code for identifying an aircrafts direction of travel?

A

Green to green is safe
Red to red is safe
White is safe

123
Q

How long do the rods and cones take to adapt to night respectively?

A

cones - 7 minute s
rods - 30 minutes

124
Q

What altitude does night vision begin to deteriorate?

A

4,000ft

125
Q

What is stereoscopic vision?

A

The use of the 2 different angles light enters the eyes at to estimate the distance of nearby objects

126
Q

What distance is stereoscopic vision accurate to?

A

About 10 metres

127
Q

What is visual acuity?

A

The ability of the eye to see clearly and sharply

128
Q

How many hues and shades can the average eye detect?

A

100 hues and 1000 shades

129
Q

How often does colour blindness occur in men and women?

A

1 in 12 men, 1 in 200 women.

130
Q

When does colour blindness occur?

A

Difficult in distinguishing the difference between hues and shades

131
Q

What is the ability to see near objects clearly but distant objects are blurred?

A

Myopia

132
Q

What is the ability to see distant objects clearly but nearer objects become blurred?

A

Hypermetropia

133
Q

What causes Myopia?

A

the cornea and lens refract light to the point where the light rays converge in front of the retina

134
Q

What causes hypermetropia?

A

the cornea and lens not providing enough refraction to focus on the retina, instead focusing behind the retina

135
Q

What are astigmatisms?

A

the distortion of images due to the uneven refraction of light, cornea is not perfectly round

136
Q

What type of glasses fix myopia, hypermetropia, and astigmatisms?

A

Concave lens
Convex lens
Bespoke lens

137
Q

What are the effects of vision with age?

A

Presbyopia (long sightedness)
Cataracts (clouding of the eye)
Glaucoma (pressure build up)

138
Q

The perception of movement caused by the temporal sequencing of events such as flashing neon lights:

A

Apparent movement

139
Q

The perception that you are moving when it is actually an object next to you that is moving

A

Relative movement

140
Q

The illusion of a moving point of light that is in fact stationary against a usually black background

A

Autokinesis

141
Q

What is it called when the eye focuses at a set point in a distance when there are not any obvious objects to focus on (dark or IMC)

A

Empty field myopia

142
Q

What is the danger of environmental perspective in misty or hazy conditions?

A

Things look further away than they actually

143
Q

What can happen when snowy terrain and overcast weather are present?

A

Disappearance of the horizon, whiteout.

144
Q

What is focal point illusion?

A

The inability to judge the correct lead angle to turn onto final when only focusing on the threshold in poor weather conditions

145
Q

What is focal trap illusion/ mandelbaum effect?

A

A textured surface drawing the attention of the eye, making it difficult to focus on distant objects. Usually worst about 1m away.

146
Q

What does the black hole effect cause?

A

Undershooting, thinking you are higher than you actually are

147
Q

What is it called when you feel like you are physically separating from the earth at high altitudes?

A

Break-off phenomenon

148
Q

What can the low frequency flashing of a light source (such as the sun through a propellor) induce?

A

Flicker vertigo

149
Q

What are the parts of the inner ear?

A

Vestibular apparatus (Semi-circular canals)
Otoliths
Cochlea

150
Q

What are the parts of the outer ear?

A

External ear (auricle)
External auditory canal
Eardrum (tympanic membrane)

151
Q

What are the parts of the middle ear?

A

Ossicles
Eustachian tube

152
Q

What is the function of the outer ear?

A

Gather sound signals

153
Q

What is the function of the middle ear?

A

converts pressure wave energy to mechanical energy

154
Q

What is the function of the inner ear?

A

converts mechanical energy to electrical signals
detects angular and linear acceleration/tilt

155
Q

What is the cocktail party effect?

A

The ability to extract messages for you in a noisy environment

156
Q

What is the aural equivalent to binocular vision called?

A

Stereophonic hearing

157
Q

What frequencies can perfect human hearing detect?

A

20-20,000Hz

158
Q

What is the deterioration of hearing as we age called?

A

Presbycusis

159
Q

Are low or high frequency sounds affect most by presbycusis?

A

High

160
Q

What are the balance mechanisms and what do they detect?

A

Vestibular apparatus (keeps us upright)
Otoliths (utricle and saccule) detect static tilt and linear acceleration
Semi circular canals detect angular acceleration

161
Q

What part of the ear senses verticality?

A

The otolithic organs

162
Q

What do the otolithic organs detect

A

Linear acceleration and static tilt, It cannot tell the difference

163
Q

What is the illusion that is caused by the false sense of gravity

A

Somatogravic

164
Q

What is the illusion that is caused by a false sense of bank

A

Somatogyral

165
Q

What is the cause of somatogyral illusion?

A

Hairs resetting in a 10-20 sec turn or sub threshold stimulation of the semi-circular canals

166
Q

Why do semi circular canals not detect linear motion?

A

The upper and lower volumes of the fluid are self cancelling

167
Q

How much angular acceleration must occur to be detected by the semi circular canals

A

2 degrees/s2

168
Q

Do semi circular canals sense steady roll rate?

A

No, only initial roll acceleration.

169
Q

What illusions are caused by somatogravic?

A

Nose-up pitch
Nose-down pitch
Inversion

170
Q

What illusions are caused by somatogyral?

A

The leans
Graveyard spin/spiral
Coriolis effect

171
Q

What causes Coriolis effect?

A

motion in two semi-circular canals at the same time

172
Q

What is the result of Coriolis effect?

A

The feeling of rolling, yawing, and pitching at the same time. Nausea, disorientation, motion sickness.

173
Q

When the blood gets heavier and blood pools in the legs and lower abdomen it is:

A

Positive G

174
Q

High ______ G results in blood pooling to the head

A

Negative

175
Q

Symptoms of high positive g

A

Greyout (lack of colour vision), tunnel vision, blackout (optic nerve cannot send images to brain) NOT! passing out

176
Q

Symptoms of high negative g

A

Redout, where the lower eyelid covers the eye

177
Q

What is G-loc and how long does it last?

A

g-induced loss of consciousness. 15 seconds

178
Q

What temperature does the human body have to remain at?

A

Just under 37 degrees celsius

179
Q

What temperature does hyperthermia begin to occur?

A

35 degrees and above

180
Q

What is the ideal range of humidity for humans?

A

40-60%

181
Q

Which part of the nervous system is responsible for fight or flight?

A

Sympathetic

182
Q

Which part of the nervous system is responsible for conserving energy when it is not needed?

A

Parasympathetic

183
Q

What is the difference between preventative and curative stress management?

A

Preventative is removing the stressor
Curative is reducing the effects

184
Q

What are the types of coping strategies for stress?

A

Action
Cognitive
Mal-adaptive

185
Q

What is the difference between anxiety and stress?

A

Anxiety - reaction to an expectation
Stress - reaction to and actual danger

186
Q

What kind of sleep is related to body restoration with slow brain activity?

A

NREM (non rapid eye movement)

187
Q

What stage of NREM is the deepest?

A

Stage 4

188
Q

What kind of sleep is related to strengthening and organising memory, dreaming, with normal brain activity levels?

A

REM (rapid eye movement)

189
Q

How long does a full NREM/REM sleep cycle take?

A

90 minutes

190
Q

How much sleep do you need to recover from sleep loss?

A

2 nights unrestricted

191
Q

What regulates circadian rhythms?

A

Zeitgebers

192
Q

What is REM antonia?

A

when the body’s muscles don’t move to act out brain signals during REM sleep

193
Q

What happens when someone has a lack of REM Antonia (REM behaviour disorder)?

A

They act out the movements occurring in their dreams

194
Q

What is it called when the brain awakens from REM but the body is paralysed?

A

Sleep paralysis

195
Q

Neurological disorder that causes episodes of unpreventable sleep:

A

Narcolepsy

196
Q

What is cataplexy?

A

sudden loss of muscle tone often triggered by intense emotions

197
Q

Excessive daytime sleepiness, sleep paralysis, cataplexy, and hypnagogic hallucinations are symptoms of what?

A

Narcolepsy

198
Q

Hypnogogic hallucinations

A

Seeing and hearing things as one is falling asleep

199
Q

Hypnopompic hallucination

A

Vivid dreamlike hallucinations that occurs as one is waking up

200
Q

Situational insomnia

A

Cannot sleep due to unfamiliar surroundings

201
Q

Nervous insomnia

A

Anticipation of stressful event

202
Q

Clinical insomnia

A

Cannot sleep even in familiar surroundings

203
Q

Chronic insomnia

A

Over weeks or months, requires medical attention

204
Q

Pauses in breathing while sleeping

A

Sleep apnoea

205
Q

How long can sleep apnoea last?

A

Seconds to minutes

206
Q

Risk factors for sleep apnoea

A

Overweight, allergies, enlarged tonsils, hereditary

207
Q

What is somnambulism?

A

Sleep walking

208
Q

What is somniloquy?

A

Sleep talking

209
Q

What is it called to “nod off” uncontrollably for seconds - minutes?

A

Microsleeps

210
Q

How long do 3-4 hour naps restore alertness?

A

12-15 hours

211
Q

How long do 10-30 minute naps restore alertness?

A

3-4 hours

212
Q

Caffeine contracts fatigue if you’ve been awake _____ hours or less

A

18

213
Q

Maximum safe caffeine allowance?

A

600mg

214
Q

How soon does caffeine work and how long does it last?

A

30 minutes, 4-5 hours

215
Q

I’ll show you, I can do it

A

Machoism

216
Q

She’ll be right mate

A

Complacency

217
Q

It won’t happen to me

A

Invulnerability

218
Q

I must make a decision now

A

Impulsivity

219
Q

The regulations are for somebody else

A

Anti-authority

220
Q

There’s nothing I can do about it

A

Resignation/fatalism

221
Q

Hygiene factors (Herzberg)

A

Negative motivators

222
Q

Job satisfaction (Herzberg)

A

Positive motivators

223
Q

SMCR communication model

A

Sender
Message
Chanel
Receiver

224
Q

Seven stage communication model

A

Idea
Encode
Send
Disortion
Receive
Decode
Idea X

225
Q

How much communication can be non-verbal?

A

up to 55%

226
Q

Lexical

A

different meaning for the same word

227
Q

Homophony

A

words that sound the same or nearly the same

228
Q

What is it called when there is a communication gulf as a result of a significant difference in status between crew?

A

Trans cockpit authority gradient

229
Q

Maximum exposure to 90dB?

A

8 hours

230
Q

Maximum exposure to 100dB?

A

2 hours

231
Q

Maximum exposure to 110dB?

A

30 minutes

232
Q

Maximum exposure to 120dB?

A

30 seconds

233
Q

Maximum exposure to 130dB

A

Avoid without hearing protection

Part 1 (6 decks)

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