Chapter 17 Flashcards

1
Q

net income =

A

revenues − ordinary expenses + other income − other expense + gains − losses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

controlling interest vs. noncontrolling interest

A

When a firm has a controlling interest in a subsidiary, the statements of the two firms are consolidated; the earnings of both firms are included on the income statement. Noncontrolling interest is subtracted from the consolidated total income to get the net income of the parent company.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Single-Step vs. Multi-Step Income Statement

A

single-step: all revenues are grouped together and all expenses are grouped together.

multi-step: includes gross profit, revenues minus cost of goods sold.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Gross profit

A

is the amount that remains after the direct costs of producing a product or service are subtracted from revenue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

operating profit or operating income

A

subtracting operating expenses, such as selling, general, and administrative expenses, from gross profit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The converged standards identify a five-step process for recognizing revenue:

A
  1. Identify the contract(s) with a customer.
  2. Identify the separate or distinct performance obligations in the contract.
  3. Determine the transaction price.
  4. Allocate the transaction price to the performance obligations in the contract.
  5. Recognize revenue when (or as) the entity satisfies a performance obligation.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

contract

A

an agreement between two or more parties that specifies their obligations and rights. Collectability must be probable for a contract to exist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

performance obligation

A

is a promise to deliver a distinct good or service.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

A “distinct” good or service is one that meets the following criteria:

A
  • The customer can benefit from the good or service on its own or combined with other resources that are readily available.
  • The promise to transfer the good or service can be identified separately from any other promises.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

transaction price

A

the amount a firm expects to receive from a customer in exchange for transferring a good or service to the customer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

period costs

A

expenses that cannot be directly tied to revenue generation and are expensed in the period incurred: administrative costs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

specific identification

A

a firm can identify exactly which items were sold and which items remain in inventory: an auto dealer records each vehicle sold or in inventory by its identification number.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

first-in, first-out (FIFO)

A

the first item purchased is assumed to be the first item sold: Permited under GAAP and IFRS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Last-in, first-out (LIFO)

A

the last item purchased is assumed to be the first item sold: Only permitted under GAAP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

straight-line depreciation

A

Straight-line depreciation (SL) allocates an equal amount of depreciation each year over the asset’s useful life as follows:

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Accelerated depreciation

A

speeds up the recognition of depreciation expense in a systematic way to recognize more depreciation expense in the early years of the asset’s life and less depreciation expense in the later years of its life. Total depreciation expense over the life of the asset will be the same as it would be if straight-line depreciation were used.

double-declining balance (DDB):

17
Q

Amortization

A

is the allocation of the cost of an intangible asset (such as a franchise agreement) over its useful life.

18
Q

retrospective vs prospective application

A

With retrospective application, any prior-period financial statements presented in a firm’s current financial statements must be restated, applying the new policy to those statements as well as future statements. Retrospective application enhances the comparability of the financial statements over time: change in accounting policy, prior-period adjustment for an error

With prospective application, prior statements are not restated, and the new policies are applied only to future financial statements: chnage in accounting estimate

19
Q

simple capital structure

A

one that contains no potentially dilutive securities. A simple capital structure contains only common stock, nonconvertible debt, and nonconvertible preferred stock.

20
Q

complex capital structure

A

contains potentially dilutive securities such as options, warrants, or convertible securities.

21
Q

Basic EPS

A
22
Q

weighted average number of common shares

A

is the number of shares outstanding during the year, weighted by the portion of the year they were outstanding.

23
Q

stock dividend

A

is the distribution of additional shares to each shareholder in an amount proportional to their current number of shares. If a 10% stock dividend is paid, the holder of 100 shares of stock would receive 10 additional shares.

24
Q

stock split

A

refers to the division of each “old” share into a specific number of “new” (post-split) shares. The holder of 100 shares will have 200 shares after a 2-for-1 split or 150 shares after a 3-for-2 split.

25
Q

Dilutive vs Antidilutive securities

A

Dilutive securities are stock options, warrants, convertible debt, or convertible preferred stock that would decrease EPS if exercised or converted to common stock.

Antidilutive securities are stock options, warrants, convertible debt, or convertible preferred stock that would increase EPS if exercised or converted to common stock.

26
Q

Diluted EPS

A
27
Q

common-size income statement

A

expresses each category of the income statement as a percentage of revenue.

28
Q

Gross profit margin

A
29
Q

net profit margin

A
30
Q

other comprehensive income (OCI) includes

A
  1. Foreign currency translation gains and losses.
  2. Adjustments for minimum pension liability.
  3. Unrealized gains and losses from cash flow hedging derivatives.
  4. Unrealized gains and losses from available-for-sale securities.
31
Q

trading securities - GAAP

Securities measured at fair value through profit and loss - IFRS

A

Debt securities that a firm owns, but intends to sell; any unrealized gains and losses during the period are reported on the income statement.

32
Q

held to maturity - GAAP

Securities measured at amortized cost - IFRS

A

Debt securities the firm does not intend to sell prior to maturity; reported at amortized cost on the balance sheet (not fair value), Therefore, unrealized gains and losses are not reported on either the income statement or as other comprehensive income.

33
Q

available-for-sale securities - GAAP

Securities measured at fair value through other comprehensive income - IFRS

A

Debt securities that are not expected to be held to maturity or sold in the near term; unrealized gains and losses on available-for-sale securities are reported as other comprehensive income, not on the income statement.