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Paramedic > Paramedic State Test 2023 pt 2 > Flashcards

Paramedic State Test 2023 pt 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What does the triage color green mean

A

The patient can walk away from the scene

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2
Q

In the simple triage and rapid transport system what classifies a patient as a red?

A

No airway, reposition, over 30 RR
No radial pulse
Cannot follow simple commands

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3
Q

In the simple triage and rapid transport system what classifies a patient as a yellow?

A

Severe injury and cannot move from the scene

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4
Q

In the jump START system what classifies a patient as a red?

A

RR over 45 or under 15
No breathing but pulse—give 5 breaths, in breathing after mark red
No peripheral pulse
Unconscious, inappropriate speech, posturing

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5
Q

What is triage priority 1?

A

Red

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6
Q

what is triage priority 2?

A

Yellow

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7
Q

What is triage priorty 3?

A

Green

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8
Q

What is black in triage?

A

Dead on arrival

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9
Q

How do you treat a pediatric or neonate patient with spinal cord trauma with exposed cords?

A

If small: cover with moist dressing
If large: cover with occlusive dressing

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10
Q

What is the epi IM dosage for a patient under 30 kg?

A

0.15 mg IM

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11
Q

What is the epi IM dosage for a patient over 30 kg?

A

0.3-0.5 mg IM

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12
Q

What is magnesium sulfates MOA?

A

Acts peripherally to produce vasodilation

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13
Q

what is magnesium sulfate used in?

A

Pre-eclampsia, eclampsia, asthma, torsade’s, torsade’s maintenance, and suspected hypomagnesemia state (e.g. chronic alcoholism, and chronic use of diuretics)

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14
Q

what kind of patients do you have to be careful with using magnesium sulfate in?

A

Patients with renal compromise

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15
Q

what conteracts magnesium sulfate

A

calcium chloride

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16
Q

What is the eclampsia dose for magnesium sulfate?

A

2 g IV/IO infused over 10-20 minutes

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17
Q

What is the torsades dose for magnesium sulfate?

A

2 g IV/IO
May repeat X1
MAX 4 mg

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18
Q

What are the possible adverse effects associated with magnesium sulfate?

A

hypotension, depression of reflexes, flaccid paralysis, hypothermia, circulatory collapse, depression of cardiac function, and central nervous system depression

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19
Q

What is a complication of nasogastric intubation?

A

High risk of bleeding

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20
Q

What are the advantages of nasogastric intubation?

A

Aspiraton risk is limited, does not require “sniffing position” so better for spinal cord injuries

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21
Q

What are contraindications for nasogastric intubation?

A

Under age of 12, facial trauma, skull fracture, epiglottitis

22
Q

Where are the pads placed in cardioversion/defibrillation?

A

Right side of sternum below clavicle
Lower left chest area with top of pads 2-3 inches below armpit

23
Q

What is the Parkland Formula?

A

4 mg x BSA (%) x kg
Take your result and divide by 2 and then take that result and divide by 8

24
Q

What is the Cincinnati stroke screen

A

facial droop, arm drift, speech

25
Q

When should you administer TPA

A

Administer within 4 hours of onset of symptoms

26
Q

What should you do to assess burns and lightning strikes?

A

CPR if needed, O2, cardiac monitor

27
Q

What is done in active warming?

A

Warm IV fluids, heat packs to core

28
Q

What classifies as hypothermia?

A

86 degrees F
or 35 degrees C
NO PACING
Defib if needed

29
Q

What causes heat cramps?

A

Sodium and water loss

30
Q

What are the symptoms of heat cramps?

A

Cramping and sweating

31
Q

What is the treatment for heat cramps?

A

Move to cool place and oral fluids if not nauseated

32
Q

What causes heat exhaustion?

A

Sodium and water loss

33
Q

What are the symptoms of heat exhaustion?

A

Tachycardia, sweating, pale, dizzy, hypotension, elevated temperature

34
Q

What is the treatment for heat exhaustion?

A

Cool patient and IV with normal saline

35
Q

What is the cause of heat stroke?

A

Hypothalamus is unable to control heat

36
Q

What are the symptoms of heat stroke?

A

Lowered level of consciousness, skin hot, dry and red, body temp 105 and above, seizure, death

37
Q

What is the treatment for heat stroke?

A

Cool rapidly, protect airway, O2, and IV access

38
Q

When is a NRB mask used?

A

Spontaneous breathing less than 90%

39
Q

What is ARDS?

A

Acute respiratory distress syndrome

40
Q

What are the risk factors for ARDS?

A

Sepsis (33% of cases)
Aspiration of gastric contents
Shock
Infection
Trauma
Toxic inhalation
Near drowning
Multiple blood transfusions

41
Q

What does it mean when a vents alarm goes off?

A

Vent pressure is low

42
Q

What is the degree for sub q injections?

A

45 degrees

43
Q

What is the degree for IM injections?

A

90 degrees

44
Q

What order do we put on PPE for a patient with chronic bronchitis?

A

Mask yourself and partner first, then the patient

45
Q

What is pyloric stenosis?

A

Projectile vomiting

46
Q

What is heat stroke protocol?

A

Active cooling measures; target temp under 102.5 degrees
12 lead
IV access
Cardiac monitor
NS bolus 500 mL, IV/IO, repeat to effect SBP >90, MAX 2L
Peds: Bolus 20mL/kg IV/IO, repeat to effect age appropriate SBP greater or equal to 70+2x Age, MAX 60 ml/kg

47
Q

What is hyperventilating?

A

The condition of taking abnormally fast, deep breaths

48
Q

What is hyperventilating ETCO2?

A

under 35mmhg

49
Q

What causes hyperventilating?

A

Hyperventilation syndrome
High BVM rate

50
Q

What causes hypoventilation?

A

Narcotic OD
CNS dysfunction
Heavy sedation

Paramedic (7 decks)

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