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NMAT > Biology > Flashcards

Biology Flashcards

1
Q

[circulatory syst.] this system is made up of the heart, blood, and vascular system

A

circulatory system

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2
Q

[circulatory syst.] the ___ is made up of cardiac muscles that are involuntary and contains a large number of nuclei in order to compensate for the large amount of energy, in the form of ATP, to pump blood throughout the body.

A

heart

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3
Q

[circulatory syst.] the heart is composed of ____ and 2 ventricles

A

2 atria

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4
Q

[circulatory syst.] the _____ forms the most anterior surface of the heart

A

right ventricle

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5
Q

[circulatory syst.] the left ventricle forms the ____

A

heart apex

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6
Q

[circulatory syst.] the ventricles are separated by the _____

A

interventricular septum

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7
Q

[circulatory syst.] the muscles of the ventricles are _____ than that of the atria because these chambers pump blood to the anterior and posterior portion of the body

A

thicker

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8
Q

[circulatory syst.] the _____ is thicker than the right ventricle because it pumps blood to the rest of the body

A

left ventricle

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9
Q

[circulatory syst.] in between the atria and ventricles there are valves to

A

prevent backflow of blood to previous chambers

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10
Q

[circulatory syst.] the valve found at the right portion of the heart is known as the

A

tricuspid valve

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11
Q

[circulatory syst.] the valve found on the left portion of the heart is called

A

bicuspid [mitral] valve

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12
Q

[circulatory syst.] the rhythmic contraction of the heart is regulated by the

A

sino-atrial node [SA node] or the pacemaker

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13
Q

[circulatory syst.] this serves as the network that conveys blood all throughout the body

A

blood vessels

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14
Q

[circulatory syst.] the blood vessels are made up of smooth muscles that are capable of

A

vasomotion

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15
Q

[circulatory syst.] vasomotion refers to the ability of the blood vessels to constrict or dilate known as

A

vasoconstriction and vasodilation

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16
Q

[circulatory syst.] types of blood vessels

A

arteries, arterioles, veins, venules, and capillaries

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17
Q

[circulatory syst.] _____ have thicker walls than veins because of the high pressure and blood carriers from the heart

A

arteries

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18
Q

[circulatory syst.] arteries convey blood ____ from the heart

A

away

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19
Q

[circulatory syst.] veins convey blood ____ to the heart

A

back

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20
Q

[circulatory syst.] this is where exchange of gases and waste materials happen

A

capillaries

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21
Q

[circulatory syst.] capillaries are so small that only a ____ file of RBCs can pass through

A

single

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22
Q

[circulatory syst.] the blood in the arteries are ____ thus the bright red color

A

oxygenated

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23
Q

[circulatory syst.] veins carry _____ blood giving it a dark red or bluish color, except pulmonary arteries

A

deoxygenated

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24
Q

[circulatory syst.] pulmonary arteries carry _____ blood

A

deoxygenated

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25
Q

[circulatory syst.] pulmonary veins carry _____ blood

A

oxygenated

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26
Q

[circulatory syst.] means the force exerted by the blood against any unit area of the vessel well. this is measured by the cardiac output multiplied by the total peripheral resistance (BP = CO x TPR)

A

blood pressure

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27
Q

[circulatory syst.] ________ is measured by the heart rate multiplied by the stroke volume (CO = HR X SV)

A

cardiac output

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28
Q

[circulatory syst.] this refers to the amount of blood ejected by the heart

A

stroke volume

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29
Q

[circulatory syst.] types of circulation

A

pulmonary, systemic

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30
Q

[circulatory syst.] type of circulation with deoxygenated blood from the inferior and superior vena cava -> right atrium -> triscupid valve -> right ventricle -> pulmonary artery -> lungs -> pulmonary vein -> left atrium

A

pulmonary circulation

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31
Q

[circulatory syst.] type of circulation with movement from left atrium -> bicuspid valve -> left ventricle -> aorta -> rest of the body -> superior/inferior vena cava -> right atrium

A

systemic circulation

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32
Q

[circulatory syst.] part of the part that supplied oxygenated blood for the entire body

A

aorta

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33
Q

[circulatory syst.] the heart receives supply through the

A

coronary arteries

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34
Q

[nervous syst.] this is the command center of the body

A

nervous system

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35
Q

[nervous syst.] the nervous system is divided into 2 parts namely the:

A

central and peripheral NS

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36
Q

[nervous syst.] the nervous system is formed by a network of many billion nerve cells (neurons), all assisted by many more supporting cells called

A

glial cells

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37
Q

[nervous syst.] _____ are responsible for the transmission of signals in nerve cells

A

action potential

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38
Q

[nervous syst.] action potential occurs at

A

nodes of ranvier

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39
Q

[nervous syst.] this is the conduction of action potential from node to node

A

saltatory conduction

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40
Q

[nervous syst.] in the action potential, the nerve impulse jumps along the

A

nerve fiber

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41
Q

[nervous syst.] saltatory conduction increases the velocity of ____ in myelinated fibers and also conserves energy for the axon

A

nerve transmission

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42
Q

[nervous syst.] the central nervous system is composed of the

A

brain and spinal cord

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43
Q

[nervous syst.] the CNS is responsible for high intelligence based activities like

A

speaking, thinking, processing of thoughts and emotions

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44
Q

[nervous syst.] which NS is responsible for acting upon the stimulus felt by the 5 sense?

A

CNS

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45
Q

[nervous syst.] what are the parts of the brain?

A

spinal cord, pons, medulla, cerebellum, epithalamus, thalamus, hypothalamus, cerebrum

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46
Q

[nervous syst.] brain part: this serves as the main pathway for the conduction of impulses and message from the brain to various parts of the body and vice versa, also connects the brain to the PNS

A

spinal cord

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47
Q

[nervous syst.] brain part: connects the cerebral cortex to the medulla; center of communication and coordination between the 2 hemispheres

A

pons

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48
Q

[nervous syst.] brain part: controls involuntary functions like respiration, digestion, swallowing, and sneezing; also bridge the signals from the spinal cord to the various parts of the brain

A

medulla

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49
Q

[nervous syst.] brain part: this coordinates movement and balance; monitors motor commands from the cerebrum

A

cerebellum

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50
Q

[nervous syst.] brain part: this is responsible for the secretion of melatonin, controls emotions, connects limbic system to the other brain parts

A

epithalamus

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51
Q

[nervous syst.] brain part: this relays sensory impulses to and from the cerebral cortex

A

thalamus

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52
Q

[nervous syst.] brain part: this serves as the body’s thermostat, regulates hunger, sleep, thirst, sexual urges and mating behavior, flight or fight response, pleasure, and controls the anterior pituitary gland in secreting hormones

A

hypothalamus

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53
Q

[nervous syst.] brain part: controls and regulates perception, thinking, voluntary movement and learning

A

cerebrum

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54
Q

[nervous syst.] type of NS that carries messages to and from the CNS

A

PNS

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55
Q

[nervous syst.] 2 parts of the PNS

A

somatic NS and autonomic NS

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56
Q

[nervous syst.] this type of PNS controls voluntary muscles and transmits sensory information to the CNS

A

somatic NS

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57
Q

[nervous syst.] this type of PNS controls involuntary body functions

A

autonomic NS

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58
Q

[nervous syst.] 2 parts of the autonomic NS

A

sympathetic NS and parasympathetic NS

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59
Q

[nervous syst.] this type of autonomic NS arouses body to expand energy

A

sympathetic NS

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60
Q

[nervous syst.] this type of autonomic NS calms body to conserve and maintain energy

A

parasympathetic NS

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61
Q

[nervous syst.] this type of autonomic NS is made up of all the nerves and ganglia outside the brain and spinal cord

A

PNS

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62
Q

[nervous syst.] a structure containing nerve cells and synapses between them

A

ganglia

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63
Q

[nervous syst.] the PNS consists of ______ and ______ connected by a synapse

A

sensory neurons and motor neurons

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64
Q

[nervous syst.] the ______ sense the stimuli from the external environment and relays in to the CNS for processing

A

sensory neurons

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65
Q

[nervous syst.] when a certain action has already been decided by the CNS, this impulse will be sent to the _____ at the site where the stimulus was received for the corresponding action to it

A

motor neuron

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66
Q

[nervous syst.] somatic NS is made up of the

A

afferent (sensory) neurons and efferent (motor) neurons

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67
Q

[nervous syst.] somatic NS: the afferent neurons are responsible for transmitting impulses ____ from the area where you would receive the stimulus to the CNS

A

away

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68
Q

[nervous syst.] somatic NS: the efferent neurons are responsible for the

A

conductance of motor reflexes from the CNS to the area where the impulse was received

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69
Q

[nervous syst.] type of autonomic NS: also called the adrenergic NS (flight or fight response)

A

sympathetic NS

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70
Q

[nervous syst.] sympathetic NS: what are the included actions?

A

increasing alertness, heart rate, dilation of bronchial tubes to increase lung airflow, stimulates sweat glands and adrenal medulla to secrete epinephrine

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71
Q

[nervous syst.] sympathetic NS: inhibits intestinal motility and dilates blood vessels of skeletal muscles to _____

A

increase blood flow

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72
Q

[nervous syst.] type of autonomic NS: also called the cholinergic NS (rest and digest response)

A

parasympathetic

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73
Q

[nervous syst.] parasympathetic NS constricts bronchial tubes to decrease airflow to the lungs, and stimulate the secretion of _______

A

salivary mucus

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74
Q

[nervous syst.] type of autonomic NS: stimulates intestinal motility and secretion to promote digestion, has no effect on sweat glands; also stimulates the bladder wall to contract and the internal sphincter to cause urination

A

parasympathetic NS

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75
Q

[nervous syst.] type of autonomic NS: eye constriction

A

parasympathetic NS

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76
Q

[nervous syst.] type of autonomic NS: slowing of heartbeat

A

parasympathetic NS

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77
Q

[nervous syst.] type of autonomic NS: lung bronchi constriction

A

parasympathetic NS

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78
Q

[nervous syst.] type of autonomic NS: stomach digestion stimulated

A

parasympathetic NS

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79
Q

[nervous syst.] type of autonomic NS: liver bile is stimulated

A

parasympathetic NS

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80
Q

[nervous syst.] type of autonomic NS: stimulates peristasis and secretion in intestines

A

parasympathetic NS

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81
Q

[nervous syst.] type of autonomic NS: contracts bladder

A

parasympathetic NS

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82
Q

[nervous syst.] type of autonomic NS: dilation of eyes

A

sympathetic NS

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83
Q

[nervous syst.] type of autonomic NS: inhibition of salivary gland

A

sympathetic NS

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84
Q

[nervous syst.] type of autonomic NS: accelerates heartbeat

A

sympathetic NS

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85
Q

[nervous syst.] type of autonomic NS: dilate bronchi lungs

A

sympathetic NS

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86
Q

[nervous syst.] type of autonomic NS: inhibits stomach digestion

A

sympathetic NS

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87
Q

[nervous syst.] type of autonomic NS: stimulates glucose release in liver

A

sympathetic NS

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88
Q

[nervous syst.] type of autonomic NS: inhibits peristasis and secretion in intestine

A

sympathetic NS

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89
Q

[nervous syst.] type of autonomic NS: releases bladder

A

sympathetic NS

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90
Q

[digestive syst.] this system breakdowns the food materials that were ingested by the organism in order to harness energy.

A

digestive system

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91
Q

[digestive syst.] part: entry point of food and water towards the gastrointestinal canal

A

mouth

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92
Q

[digestive syst.] part: masticate food materials in the mouth into smaller pieces

A

teeth

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93
Q

[digestive syst.] part: moves the food materials in the mouth for better facilitation of mastication, serves as the main organ for tasting the food ingested

A

tongue

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94
Q

[digestive syst.] part: secretes saliva which contains enzyme known as salivary amylase or ptyalin that catalyzes primary carbohydrate digestion

A

salivary glands

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95
Q

[digestive syst.] part: serves as the passageway of both food and air

A

pharynx

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96
Q

[digestive syst.] part: covers the trachea when swallowing food to prevent it from entering the respiratory tract

A

epiglottis

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97
Q

[digestive syst.] part: connects the mouth to the cardiac end of the stomach; passageway of the bolus to get to the stomach via peristalsis

A

esophagus

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98
Q

[digestive syst.] part: further mechanical and chemical digestion of food materials ingested; site of primary fat digestion

A

stomach

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99
Q

[digestive syst.] part: absorbs nutrients from the stomach through small-finger like projections (microvilli); site of primary lipid digestion, made up of 3 parts

A

small intestine

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100
Q

[digestive syst.] small intestine is made up of 3 parts namely:

A

duodenum, jejunum, ileum

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101
Q

[digestive syst.] what is the longest portion of the small intestine?

A

ileum

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102
Q

[digestive syst.] part: absorption of water not absorbed in the small intestine; serves as the temporary storage of undigested materials

A

large intestine

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103
Q

[digestive syst.] part: serves as the exit point of the fecal materials from the body

A

rectum

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104
Q

[digestive syst.] masticated food materials that passes through the esophagus

A

bolus

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105
Q

[digestive syst.] mechanically and chemically digested food from the stomach acted upon by the acidic substances in it. it enters the duodenum of the small intestine for completion of digestion

A

chyme

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106
Q

[digestive syst.] cell type: this secretes mucin

A

mucin neck cell

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107
Q

[digestive syst.] function of mucin

A

protects the walls of the stomach against the acidic environment in it; activated into mucus when reacted with water

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108
Q

[digestive syst.] cell type: this secretes hydrochloric acid

A

parietal cells

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109
Q

[digestive syst.] function of hydrochloric acid

A

activates pepsinogen into pepsin, maintains the acidity of the stomach

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110
Q

[digestive syst.] cell type: this secretes pepsinogen

A

chief cells

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111
Q

[digestive syst.] function of hydrochloric acid

A

reacts with HCl to be activated into pepsin and carry out chemical digestion in the stomach

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112
Q

[digestive syst.] this type of secretion digests milk in young mammals

A

rennin

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113
Q

[digestive syst.] this type of secretion digests fats in the stomach

A

lipase

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114
Q

[digestive syst.] this can protect the stomach walls only it has been activated into mucus

A

mucus

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115
Q

[endocrine syst.] responsible for the secretion of hormones needed in the development, growth, and the development of organisms

A

endocrine system

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116
Q

[endocrine syst.] these are long distance chemical signals which travel via blood or lymph; they are mainly concerned in maintaining homeostasis

A

hormones

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117
Q

[endocrine syst.] these are duct glands

A

exocrine

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118
Q

[endocrine syst.] duct glands secrete

A

enzymes

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119
Q

[endocrine syst.] the method of transport for exocrine glands is through

A

ducts

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120
Q

[endocrine syst.] target of exocrine glands

A

organ near gland

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121
Q

[endocrine syst.] these are ductless glands

A

endocrine glands

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122
Q

[endocrine syst.] endocrine glands secrete

A

hormones

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123
Q

[endocrine syst.] the method of transports of hormones

A

bloodstream

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124
Q

[endocrine syst.] target of endocrine seretions

A

organ distant from gland

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125
Q

[endocrine syst.] this secretes testosterone

A

testis

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126
Q

[endocrine syst.] what hormone functions for stimulates development of male sex organs and secondary sex characteristics

A

testosterone

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127
Q

[endocrine syst.] this secretes estrogens (estradiol, estrone, estriol) and progesterone

A

ovary

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128
Q

[endocrine syst.] what hormone stimulates development of female sex organs and secondary sex characteristic, maturation of follicles, formation and maintenance of bone tissue, and contraction of uterine muscles

A

estrogen

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129
Q

[endocrine syst.] what hormone stimulates secretion of substances from the lining of the uterus (endometrium) in preparation for egg implantation in the uterine wall

A

progesterone

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130
Q

[endocrine syst.] this secretes thyroxine 4, triiodothyronine 3, calcitonin

A

thyroid gland

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131
Q

[endocrine syst.] what hormone stimulates cellular metabolism, lipid production, carbohydrate utilization, and CNS and ANS activation

A

thyroxine 4

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132
Q

[endocrine syst.] what hormone stimulates cellular metabolism, lipid production, carbohydrate utilization, and CNS and ANS activation but in active form and more abundant manner?

A

triiodothyroxine 3

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133
Q

[endocrine syst.] what hormone decreases serum (blood) calcium concentrations by promoting uptake of calcium into bone tissue

A

calcitonin

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134
Q

[endocrine syst.] this secretes epinephrine (adrenaline), and norepinephrine?

A

adrenal gland, medulla

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135
Q

[endocrine syst.] what hormone stimulates fight or flight response, increases heart rate, dilates blood vessels, increases oxygen delivery to muscle and brain tissue, increase blood glucose and is commonly used in clinical settings?

A

epinephrine

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136
Q

[endocrine syst.] what hormone stimulates fight or flight response, increases heart rate, dilates blood vessels, increases oxygen delivery to muscle and brain tissue, increase blood glucose and is a treatment for depression and epilepsy?

A

norepinephrine

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137
Q

[endocrine syst.] this secretes cortisol or glucocorticoid, aldosterone (mineralocorticoid), and androgens

A

adrenal gland, cortex

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138
Q

[endocrine syst.] what hormone activates physiological stress response to maintain blood glucose concentrations, augments constriction of blood vessels to maintain blood pressure, and stimulates anti-inflammatory pathways

A

cortisol

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139
Q

[endocrine syst.] what hormone regulates balance of salt and water in the body?

A

aldosterone (mineralocorticoid)

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140
Q

[endocrine syst.] what hormone contributes to growth and development of the male reproductive system and serve as precursors to testosterone and estrogen?

A

androgens

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141
Q

[endocrine syst.] what hormone is used for testing pregnancy?

A

HCG

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142
Q

[endocrine syst.] what gland secretes corticotropin, growth hormone, thyrotropin, luteinizing hormone, and prolactin?

A

pituitary gland in the anterior lobe

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143
Q

[endocrine syst.] what hormone stimulates the growth and secretion of cells of the adrenal cortex, increases skin pigmentation?

A

corticotropin (adrenocorticotropin, ACTH)

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144
Q

[endocrine syst.] what hormone stimulates growth of essentially all tissues in the body?

A

growth hormone (GH, somatotropin)

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145
Q

[endocrine syst.] what hormone stimulates secretion of thyroid hormone and growth of thyroid cells?

A

thyrotropin (thyroid stimulating hormone, TSH)

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146
Q

[endocrine syst.] what hormone stimulates maturation of egg follicles in females and development of spermatozoa in males?

A

follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)

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147
Q

[endocrine syst.] what hormone stimulates rupture of mature egg follicles and production of progesterone and androgens in females and secretion of androgens in males.

A

luteinizing hormone (LH; interstitial cell stimulating hormone, ICSH)

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148
Q

[endocrine syst.] what hormone stimulates and maintains lactation in breastfeeding mothers?

A

prolactin

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149
Q

[endocrine syst.] what gland/tissue secretes oxytocin and vasopressin?

A

pituitary gland, posterior

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150
Q

[endocrine syst.] what hormone stimulates milk ejection or letdown during breastfeeding, and uterine muscle contraction during childbirth?

A

oxytocin

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151
Q

[endocrine syst.] what hormone regulates fluid volume by increasing or decreasing fluid excretion in response to changes in blood pressure?

A

vasopressin (antidiuretic hormone, ADH)

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152
Q

[endocrine syst.] what hormone stimulates melanin synthesis in skin cells to increase pigmentation, may also suppress appetite

A

melanocyte-stimulating hormone (MSH)

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153
Q

[endocrine syst.] this gland/tissue secretes melanocyte-stimulating hormone (MSH)

A

pituitary gland, intermediate lobe

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154
Q

This gland/tissue secretes corticotropin-releasing hormone, growth hormone-releasing hormone, thyrotropin-releasing hormone, gonadotropin-releasing hormone, prolactin-inhibiting factor, somatostatin

A

hypothalamus

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155
Q

[endocrine syst.] what hormone stimulates the synthesis and secretion of corticotropin from the anterior pituitary gland?

A

corticotropin-releasing hormone

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156
Q

[endocrine syst.] what hormone stimulates the synthesis and secretion of growth hormone from the anterior pituitary gland?

A

growth hormone-releasing hormone (GHRH)

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157
Q

[endocrine syst.] what hormone stimulates and regulates secretion of thyrotropin from the anterior pituitary gland and may modulate neuronal activity in the brain and spinal cord?

A

thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH)

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158
Q

[endocrine syst.] what hormone stimulates synthesis and secretion of FSH and LH?

A

gonadotropin-releasing hormone

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159
Q

[endocrine syst.] what hormone inhibits secretion of PRL?

A

prolactin-inhibiting factor (dopamine)

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160
Q

[endocrine syst.] what hormone inhibits the secretion of GH, glucagon, and GI hormones?

A

somatostatin

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161
Q

[endocrine syst.] this gland or tissue secretes glucagon and insulin?

A

pancreatic islets of langerhans

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162
Q

[endocrine syst.] what hormone is released by alpha cells, maintains blood glucose concentrations by stimulating release of glucose from the liver? [gutom feeling]

A

glucagon

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163
Q

[endocrine syst.] what hormone increases blood sugar?

A

glucagon

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164
Q

[endocrine syst.] what hormone is released by beta cells, lowers blood sugar, stimulates glucose uptake and storage in adipose muscle, and liver? [busog feeling]

A

insulin

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165
Q

[endocrine syst.] this gland/tissue secretes parathyroid hormone?

A

parathyroid gland (PTH)

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166
Q

[endocrine syst.] what hormone increases serum calcium concentrations from bone tissue?

A

parathyroid hormone

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167
Q

[endocrine syst.] _____ occurs to supply needed calcium in blood in relation to the parathyroid hormone

A

bone degradation

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168
Q

[ontogeny] the nervous system, sensory epithelia of the eye, ear and nose, epidermis, nails, hair, mammary glands, hypophysis, subcutaneous glands, and enamel of the teeth are derived from what germ layer?

A

ectoderm

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169
Q

[ontogeny] the connective tissues, cartilage, bones, striated and smooth muscles, heart walls, blood and lymph vessels, kidneys, gonads, genital ducts, lining of body cavities, spleen, suprarenal cortices are derived from what germ layer?

A

mesoderm

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170
Q

[ontogeny] the epithelial lining of the gastrointestinal and respiratory tracts, tonsillar parenchyma, liver, thymus, thyroid, parathyroid, pancreas, epithelial lining of the urinary bladder and urethra, epithelial lining of tympanic activity, tympanic antrum and auditory tube are derived from what germ layer?

A

endoderm

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171
Q

[ontogeny] ontogeny means

A

organogenesis

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172
Q

[ontogeny] the beginning stage embryogenesis where only a solid ball of cells is present

A

morulation

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173
Q

[ontogeny] part of embryogenesis where the solid ball of cells becomes hollow

A

blastulation

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174
Q

[ontogeny] part of embryogenesis where the germ layers have been established

A

gastrulation

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175
Q

[physiology] this is the mechanism by which biological processes have the ability to self-regulate

A

feedback

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176
Q

[physiology] type of feedback where an accumulation of an end product of a process slows that process

A

negative feedback

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177
Q

[physiology] what type of feedback happens when there is excess accumulation of ATP during cellular respiration and inhibits an enzyme near the beginning of the pathway to slow down sugar breakdown?

A

negative feedback

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178
Q

[physiology] type of feedback where an end product speeds up its production

A

positive feedback

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179
Q

[physiology] what type of feedback is present when aggregation of platelets during injury attracts more platelets to form a clot?

A

positive feedback

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180
Q

[physiology] also called hemostasis

A

blood clot formation

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181
Q

[physiology] when does blood clotting occur?

A

when endothelium of the blood vessels is exposed to the blood

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182
Q

[physiology] what are the steps of blood clotting?

A

vasoconstriction -> formation of platelet plug -> coagulation which reinforces the platelet plug with a fibrin mesh

183
Q

[physiology] during hemostasis, how is the fibrin mesh formed?

A

from the release of thromboplastin that will convert prothrombin to thrombin with the help of calcium ions, thrombin will then convert fibrinogen into fibrin

184
Q

[physiology] this is the process of bone formation by osteoblasts

A

ossification or osteogenesis

185
Q

[physiology] this takes place during ossification of bones and can also occur in other tissues

A

calcification

186
Q

[physiology] the development of bone from fibrous membranes is called

A

intramembranous ossification

187
Q

[physiology] the development of bone from hyaline cartilage is called

A

endochondral ossification

188
Q

[biliary syst.] this system involves the liver, gallbladder, hepatic, and bile ducts

A

biliary system

189
Q

[biliary syst.] the ______ is a part of the extrahepatic biliary system where bile is stored and concentrated

A

gallbladder

190
Q

[biliary syst.] this is essential for digesting fats and is found in most animals

A

bile

191
Q

[biliary syst.] the bile then gets stored in the gallbladder through the _____

A

cystic duct

192
Q

[biliary syst.] where does bile form?

A

liver

193
Q

[biliary syst.] bile flow is controlled by the opening and closing of the sphincter of oddi and the _____

A

ampulla of vater

194
Q

[renal physio] ____ functions to rid the body of waste material that are either ingested or produced by metabolism, also functions to control the volume and electrolyte composition of the bodily fluids

A

kidney

195
Q

[renal physio] this is the functional unit of the kidney

A

nephron

196
Q

[renal physio] each nephron has a

A

glomerulus

197
Q

[renal physio] several hormones provide specificity of tubular reabsorption for different

A

electrolytes and water

198
Q

[renal physio] this hormone is important in regulating sodium reabsorption and secretion of potassium and hydrogen ions

A

aldosterone

199
Q

[renal physio] the release of aldosterone is stimulated by ________

A

increased extracellular potassium concentration and increased in angiotensin II levels

199
Q

[renal physio] this is the most powerful sodium-retaining hormone

A

angiotensin II

200
Q

[renal physio] angiotensin II formation increases during _____

A

low blood pressure and low extracellular fluid volume

201
Q

[renal physio] increased secretion of aldosterone causes renal sodium and water retention, helping to increase extracellular fluid volume and restore ____

A

blood pressure to normal

202
Q

[renal physio] the increased formation of angiotensin II helps return blood pressure to and extracellular volume towards normal by

A

increasing sodium and water reabsorption

203
Q

[renal physio] this hormone increases water permeability in the tubules to conserve water in circumstances of dehydration

A

antidiuretic hormone/vasopressin

204
Q

[renal physio] the action of ADH plays a key role in controlling the degree of dilution or the

A

concentration of the urine

205
Q

[immune response] this refers to the ability of your immune system to defend against infection and disease

A

immunity

206
Q

[immune response] 2 types of immunity that the adaptive immune system provides

A

humoral immunity and cell-mediated immunity

207
Q

[immune response] this type of immunity is from serum antibodies produced by plasma cells

A

humoral immunity

208
Q

[immune response] someone who has never been exposed to a specific disease can gain humoral immunity through the administration of ______ from someone who has been exposed and survived the same disease

A

antibodies

209
Q

[immune response] ____ refers to the bodily fluids where these free-floating serum antibodies bind to antigens and assist with elimination

A

humoral

210
Q

[immune response] this type of immunity can be acquired through T cells from someone who is immune to the target disease or infection

A

cell-mediated immunity

211
Q

[immune response] this refers to the fact that the response is carried out by cytotoxic cells

A

“cell-mediated”

212
Q

[immune response] someone who has been exposed to a specific disease can gain cell-mediated immunity through administration of _____ from someone that has been exposed, and survived the same disease

A

T cells

213
Q

[immune response] 2 types of immunity

A

innate/natural/nonspecific and acquired/adaptive

214
Q

[immune response] lymphocytes: these mature in the bone marrow, synthesize and secrete antibodies

A

B cells

215
Q

[immune response] each B cell produces only ___ type of antibody

A

1

216
Q

[immune response] lymphocytes: these mature in the thymus gland

A

T cells

217
Q

[immune response] lymphocytes, type of T cell: these kill virus-infected cells by secreting proteins that penetrate and puncture cell membrane, this shuts off replication of the pathogen

A

cytotoxic T cells (CD8+)

218
Q

[immune response] lymphocytes, type of T cell: these stimulates other components of the immune response by secreting signaling molecules that activate B cells, cytotoxic cells, inflammatory cells, and phagocytes

A

helper T cells (CD4+)

219
Q

[immune response] lymphocytes, type of T cell: HIV destroys ____ making people with HIV susceptible to opportunistic infections

A

helper T cells

220
Q

[immune response] lymphocytes, type of T cell: these turn off the immune response once the pathogen has been defeated

A

suppressor T cells

221
Q

[immune response] 2 types of humoral immunity:

A

passive, active

222
Q

[cell bio] what organelle has a dense nucleolus which synthesizes rRNA needed for ribosome formation?

A

nucleus

223
Q

[cell bio] this organelle synthesizes lipids, metabolizes carbohydrates, and detoxifies drugs and poisons

A

Smooth ER

224
Q

[cell bio] what organelle synthesizes proteins, repairs damages in the plasma membrane by sending proteins and phospholipids to it?

A

rough ER

225
Q

[cell bio] RER uses _____ in order to transport proteins and phospholipids to the damaged part of the plasma membrane

A

vesicles

226
Q

[cell bio] what organelle modifies, stores, and send proteins to its specific destinations?

A

golgi apparatus

227
Q

[cell bio] this has a _____ and a _______ that receives proteins for modifications for delivering them

A

cis-face, trans face

228
Q

[cell bio] this organelle digests macromolecules and cellular respiratory by-products by the action of hydrolytic enzymes?

A

lysosomes

229
Q

[cell bio] lysosomes can fuse with autophagosomes for _______

A

autophagy

230
Q

[cell bio] it has a highly folded inner compartment called ______ that increases the surface area for harvesting energy

A

cristae

231
Q

[cell bio] this organelle breaks fatty acids into smaller molecules, it also detoxifies alcohol and other harmful substances y transferring hydrogens to poison to oxygen

A

peroxisomes

232
Q

[cell bio] peroxisomes produces _____ by transferring hydrogen from substrates to oxygen; bounded only by a single membrane

A

hydrogen peroxide

233
Q

[cell bio] this organelles serves as the traffic way of vesicles and organelles in the cell

A

cytoskeleton

234
Q

[cell bio] most cell walls are made up of _____

A

cellulose

235
Q

[cell bio] channels that links cells for cell to cell communication and are usually found perforating the cell wall

A

plasmodesmata

236
Q

[cell bio] this organelle serves as the storage of waste products in plant cells, and is the site of breakdown of waste by hydrolysis

A

central vacuole

237
Q

[cell cycle] accounts for almost 90% of the cell cycle that is subdivided into 3 parts

A

interphase

238
Q

[cell cycle] 3 parts of the interphase

A

G1, S phase, G2

239
Q

[cell cycle] in this phase, the newly produced cells in the M phase grows by imbibing water and producing more and producing more proteins in anticipation for DNA synthesis

A

G1 phase

240
Q

[cell cycle] in this phase, the cell doubles the number of chromosomes by DNA replication

A

S phase

241
Q

[cell cycle] in this phase, the cell grows further and checks for errors that may be present in the duplicated chromosomes in preparation for cell division

A

G2 phase

242
Q

[cell cycle] the phase where the cell undergoes meiosis or mitosis

A

M phase

243
Q

[cell cycle] type of cell division that undergoes 2 divisions

A

meiosis

244
Q

[cell cycle] mitosis has ____ daughter cells per division

A

2

245
Q

[cell cycle] meiosis has ____ daughter cells at the end of the second division

A

4

246
Q

[cell cycle] mitosis produces 2 genetically _____ daughter cells

A

identical

247
Q

[cell cycle] meiosis produces 4 genetically _____ daughter cells

A

different

248
Q

[cell cycle] the daughter cells are diploid

A

mitosis

249
Q

[cell cycle] the daughter cells are haploid

A

meiosis

250
Q

[cell cycle] cell division for growth, repair, and asexual reproduction

A

mitosis

251
Q

[cell cycle] cell division for production of gametes, perpetuation of species and genetic diversity

A

meiosis

252
Q

[mitosis] stage marked by very thick and dense chromosomes, chromosomes are still enclosed in the cell nucleus within the nuclear envelop

A

prophase

253
Q

[mitosis] this stage is marked by the alignment of chromosomes at the center of the cell, halfway between the mitotic spindle poles

A

metaphase

254
Q

[mitosis] during metaphase, movement is mediated by the ______

A

kinetochore microtubules

255
Q

[mitosis] this stage is marked by the retraction of microtubules, increasing the separation of sister chromatids

A

anaphase

256
Q

[mitosis] during this phase, sister chromatids reach opposing poles, the small nuclear vesicles in the cell begin to re-form around the group of chromosomes at each end

A

telophase

257
Q

[meiosis] meiosis 1 is known as _____, because the cells produced in this cycle have half the number of chromosomes as the parent cell

A

reductional meiosis

258
Q

[meiosis] in meiosis 1, homologous pairs of chromosomes known as _____ separate instead of sister chromatids

A

tetrads

259
Q

[meiosis] meiosis 2 is mitotic in nature because the number of the cell entered meiosis 2 is ____

A

preserved

260
Q

[meiosis] what is the longest stage of meiosis 1?

A

prophase 1

261
Q

[meiosis] why is P1 of M1 the longest?

A

because 5 main processes occur

262
Q

[meiosis] what are the 5 main processes of P1 of M1?

A

leptotene, zygotene, pachytene, diplotene, diakinesis

263
Q

[meiosis] part of P1 of M1 where chromosomes start to condense, thus becoming visible

A

leptotene

264
Q

[meiosis] part of P1 of M1 where homologous chromosomes start to pair (synapse)

A

zygotene

265
Q

[meiosis] part of P1 of M1 where homologous chromosomes are closest to each other and crossing over takes place

A

pachytene

266
Q

[meiosis] part of P1 of M1 where homologous pairs start to separate except at the point of crossing over (chiasma)

A

diplotene

267
Q

[meiosis] part of P1 of M1 where max condensation of the chromosomes is achieved, the nucleolus disappears and nuclear envelope fragments disperse

A

diakinesis

268
Q

[spermatogenesis] when does spermatogenesis start?

A

puberty

268
Q

[spermatogenesis] how many sperm cells are produced from a parent cell?

A

4

269
Q

[oogenesis] only ___egg cell is produced per cycle?

A

1

270
Q

[oogenesis] when does oogenesis begin?

A

during fetal development

271
Q

[oogenesis] how many eggs are produced from a parent cell?

A

1

272
Q

[oogenesis] when does the 1st cell cycle arrest occur in egg cells?

A

diplotene stage of P1 in M1

273
Q

[oogenesis] the first arrest of the egg cells continue only during _____

A

puberty in women

274
Q

[oogenesis] when does the 2nd cell cycle arrest occur in egg cells?

A

during metaphase 2 and resumes when the egg is fertilized

275
Q

[oogenesis] polar bodies are removed via ____

A

menstruation

276
Q

[cellular resp.] cellular respiration can be summarized by this equation

A

C₆H₁₂6O₂ -> 6CO₂ + 6H₂O

277
Q

[cellular resp.] stages of cellular respiration

A

glycolysis, anaerobic respiration, Kreb’s cycle, ETC

278
Q

[cellular resp.] this process breakdowns 6-carbon glucose into 3-carbon molecule (pyruvate), 10 step process that occurs in the cytoplasm, anaerobic process thus O₂ is not required

A

glycolysis

279
Q

[cellular resp.] products of glycolysis

A

2 ATP per glucose, 2 NADH per glucose molecule

280
Q

[cellular resp.] this is an anaerobic process where NAD+ is regenerated to increase its affinity to electrons and hydrogens in glycolysis, happens during hypoxemic states such as physical activity

A

anaerobic respiration

281
Q

[cellular resp.] products of anaerobic respiration

A

ethanol, lactic acid, carbon dioxide

282
Q

[cellular resp.] this aerobic process completely breaks down glucose, breakdowns pyruvate into C and H₂O, formation of CO₂ and H₂O from the liberation of c and H₂O, loading of H and electrons to NAD+ and FAD to form NADH and FADH2, occurs in the mitochondrial complex, and the acetyl group detaches from the co-enzyme A and enters the reaction cycle

A

Kreb’s cycle

283
Q

[cellular resp.] products of the Kreb’s cycle

A

2 ATP, 6 NADH, 2 FADH2

284
Q

[cellular resp.] movement of electron carriers excited by electrons and protons from the Kreb’s cycle in a chain, release of energy as electrons transfers from one stair to another, formation of H₂O as the electrons and protons react with oxygen which is the last electron acceptor

A

ETC

285
Q

[cellular resp.] total number of ATP formed from glycolysis, Kreb’s cycle, and the ETC

A

36-38

286
Q

[taxonomy] who proposed the 5 kingdom scheme?

A

Robert H. Whitaker

287
Q

[taxonomy] type of kingdom where organisms are motile and cannot produce their own food (heterotrophs)

A

kingdom animalia

288
Q

[taxonomy] kingdom in which organisms are not motile, they have cellulosic cell walls, and are autotrophs who produce their own food

A

kingdom plantae

289
Q

[taxonomy] kingdom composed of eukaryotic plant-like organisms that do not have chlorophyll, are saprophytic, and they obtain their nutrition from decaying organisms, and they have cell walls made of chitin

A

kingdom fungi

290
Q

[taxonomy] fungi obtain nutrients from decaying matter through an organ called ____

A

hyphae

291
Q

[taxonomy] this kingdom is made up of all the unicellular eukaryotic animal-like protists

A

kingdom protista

292
Q

[taxonomy] the only organism that is both animal-like and plant like is ___

A

Euglena sp.

293
Q

[taxonomy] this kingdom is composed of all the unicellular prokaryotic organisms in the biosphere (bacteria and extremophiles)

A

kingdom monera

294
Q

[taxonomy] this domain consists of all extreme bacteria and some species of algae

A

domain archaea

295
Q

[taxonomy] this domain consists of all unicellular prokaryotic organisms

A

domain bacteria

296
Q

[taxonomy] this domain consists of multicellular, colonic, or filamentous organisms

A

domain eukarya

297
Q

[plant phy] these generate cells for the formation of new organs

A

meristems

298
Q

[plant phy] refers to the one main vertical root

A

taproot

299
Q

[plant phy] taproots give rise to lateral roots also called

A

branch roots

300
Q

[plant phy] points on the stem where leaves are attached

A

nodes

301
Q

[plant phy] segment between nodes on a stem

A

internodes

302
Q

[plant phy] the elongation of a young root is concentrated near the tip consisting of a

A

terminal bud

303
Q

[plant phy] the ____ has the potential to form a lateral shoot

A

axillary bud

304
Q

[plant phy] this is the phenomenon wherein the growth of axillary buds is inhibited, a condition where vertical growth supercedes lateral growth in a plant.

A

apical dominance`

305
Q

[plant phy] 3 basic plant organs

A

root, stem, leaves

306
Q

[plant phy] 3 plant tissue system

A

dermal, vascular, ground

307
Q

[plant phy] this tissue system is the outer protective covering

A

dermal tissue system

308
Q

[plant phy] skin of fleshy plants

A

epiderm

309
Q

[plant phy] skin of woody plants

A

periderm

310
Q

[plant phy] this system carries out long-distance transport of materials between roots and shoots

A

vascular tissue system

311
Q

[plant phy] the _____ conveys water and dissolved minerals from roots to shoot

A

xylem

312
Q

[plant phy] this transports sugars from the leaves to whereever they are needed

A

phloem

313
Q

[plant phy] this system includes various cells specialized for storage, photosynthesis, and support

A

ground tissue system

314
Q

[plant phy] this type of plant cell performs most of the metabolic functions of the plants

A

parenchyma cells

315
Q

[plant phy] this type of plant cell helps in the support of young plant parts

A

collenchyma cells

316
Q

[plant phy] this type of plant cell have thick cell walls strengthened by lignin, they are specialized for support of older plants and are dead at functional maturity

A

sclerenchyma

317
Q

[plant phy] equation for photosynthesis

A

6CO₂ + 12 H₂O + light energy -> C₆H₂O₆ + 6O₂ + 6H₂O

318
Q

[plant phy] _____ with chlorophyll serves as the light trapping strcture

A

chloroplast

319
Q

[plant phy] 2 main phases of photosynthesis

A

light-dependent reactions, Calvin cycle

320
Q

[plant phy] the light dependent reaction synthesizes ___ and _____ to serve as fuel in the Calvin cycle

A

ATP, NADPH

321
Q

[plant phy] Calvin cycle is known for fixing ____ in the chloroplast

A

carbon dioxide

322
Q

[plant phy] in the Calvin cycle, carbon dioxide is converted into ____ and making glucose out of it

A

6-carbon sugar (RUBISCO)

323
Q

[plant phy] light dependent reactions occur in ___

A

thylakoids

324
Q

[plant phy] Calvin cycle occurs in the ____ of the chloroplast

A

stroma

325
Q

[plant hormones] ripens fruits, opposes auxin effects, promotes or inhibits root growth, flower development and leaf formation

A

ethylene

326
Q

[plant hormones] influences root growth and differentiation, stimulation of cell division and growth, stimulation of germination, delay senescence

A

cytokinins

327
Q

[plant hormones] stimulates stem elongation, root growth and cell differentiation and branching, regulation of fruit development, enhancement of apical dominance, functions in phototropism and gravitropism, promotion of xylem differentiation and retards leaf senescence

A

auxin (IAA)

328
Q

[plant hormones] influences root growth and differentiation, stimulation of flowering and fruit development, promotion of seed and bud germination

A

giberellins

329
Q

[photoperiodism] the environmental stimulus plants use to detect the time of the year is the ___

A

photoperiod

330
Q

[photoperiodism] the color of light that is the most effective in interrupting the night time portion of photoperiod

A

red

331
Q

[mol bio] these are substances that hasten up the reaction by lowering the activation energy of a certain chemical process without using up itself in the catalysis

A

enzymes

332
Q

[mol bio] this enzyme catalyzes hydrolysis

A

hydrolase

333
Q

[mol bio] this enzyme catalyzes rearrangement of atoms within a molecule

A

isomerase

334
Q

[mol bio] this enzyme catalyzes joining of 2 or more chemicals together

A

ligase, polymerase

335
Q

[mol bio] this enzyme catalyzes splitting a chemical into smaller parts without water

A

lyase

336
Q

[mol bio] this enzyme catalyzes transfer of electrons or hydrogen atoms from one molecule to another

A

oxidoreductase

337
Q

[mol bio] this enzyme catalyzes moving a functional group from one molecule to another

A

transferase

338
Q

[mol bio] what pump expels 3 molecules of Na in exchange for 2 K ions

A

Na+-K+ pump

339
Q

[mol bio] type of transport where materials are moved across the membrane via a concentration gradient

A

passive transport

340
Q

[mol bio] an example of passive transport that is responsible for the movement of water from an area of low concentration to an area of high concentration, meaning water moves to an area where there is more solute concentration

A

osmosis

341
Q

[cell tonicity] tendency of water is to move in the cell causing cell to swell due to low solute compared to that of the cell

A

hypotonic solution

342
Q

[cell tonicity] tendency of water is to move out the cell causing cell to plasmolyze due to high solute compared to that of the cell

A

hypertonic solution

343
Q

[cell tonicity] type of solution where there is an equal concentration of solute in and out of the cell

A

isotonic

344
Q

[genetics] the process by which DNA replicates itself by using a DNA strand template

A

replication

345
Q

[genetics] what is the mode of replication?

A

semi conservative

346
Q

[genetics] where is replication initiated?

A

origin of replication

347
Q

[genetics] what direction does replication proceed?

A

5’ to 3’ direction

348
Q

[enzyme] unzips the double stranded DNA at the Ori site

A

helicase

349
Q

[enzyme] provides RNA primers in order to initiate replication, supplies RNA primers in the Okazaki fragments to be later joined by ligase

A

primase

350
Q

[enzyme] synthesizes majority of the DNA in the 5’ to 3’ direction, main enzyme for replication in bacteria

A

DNA polymerase III

351
Q

[enzyme] can also polymerize nucleotides in the 5’ to 3’ direction, mainly for DNA repair and exonuclease activity

A

DNA polymerase I

352
Q

[enzyme] completely connects the areas in the Okazaki fragments not used by DNA polymerase I

A

Ligase

353
Q

[enzyme] relieves the tension and stress on the unzipped DNA strand preventing them from supercoiling

A

topoisomerase

354
Q

[enzymes] prevents the unzipped strands of the DNA from the reattaching again

A

single strand binding protein

355
Q

[RNA] there is a presence of ____ groups on the second carbon

A

-OH

356
Q

[transcription] the process by which RNA is formed using the antisense DNA strand as its template

A

transcription

357
Q

[transcription] this is the main enzyme responsible for the synthesis of the nucleotides, where the process results to the formation of single stranded RNA

A

RNA polymerase

358
Q

[transcription] the 3 main processes of transcription

A

initiation, elongation, termination

359
Q

[transcription] occurs wen RNA polymerase (RNAP) binds to a promoter; a sigma factor is a transcription, initiation factor that enables binding of RNAP to gene promoters

A

transcription

360
Q

[transcription] is the synthesis of RNA from DNA template via the addition of nucleotides from the environment

A

elongation

361
Q

[genetics] phosphate group + deoxyribose + base

A

nucleotides

362
Q

[genetics] sugar + base + no phosphate

A

nucleoside

363
Q

[transcription] occurs when RNAP meets a terminator sequence, may or may not involve a RHO factor

A

termination

364
Q

[translation] the process of forming amino acid sequences (proteins) from an mRNA template

A

translation

365
Q

[translation] links amino acids together

A

peptide bonds

366
Q

[translation] building blocks of proteins

A

amino acids

367
Q

[translation] translation utilizes an open reading flame (ORF) that consists of

A

start codon intervening sequence, stop codon

368
Q

[translation] start codon

A

AUG

369
Q

[translation] stop codons

A

UAA, UAG, UGA

370
Q

[types of RNA] carries amino acids coded for by the codons in the mRNA and delivers these amino acids to the site of protein synthesis

A

transfer RNA

371
Q

[types of RNA] primary component of ribosomes, responsible for reading the sequences of amino acids and linking these together

A

ribosomal RNA

372
Q

[types of RNA] serves as the template for the formation of proteins

A

messenger RNA

373
Q

[mendelian mode of inheritance] the law which states that 2 members of a single gene pair separate from each other during gamete formation, thus, for each gene with 2 alleles, half of the gametes carry one allele and the other half carry the other allele

A

law of segregation

374
Q

[mendelian mode of inheritance] the law which states that genes on a different chromosome independently behave in the production of gametes, thus leading to the randomization of the genotypes/phenotypes of the offspring

A

law of independent assortment

375
Q

[assumptions of mendelian law] dominance is

A

complete

376
Q

[assumptions of mendelian law] trait is governed by a ___ only

A

single allele

377
Q

[assumptions of mendelian law] genes are found on different chromosomes that is why their behavior is ____ of each other

A

independent

378
Q

[assumptions of mendelian law] genes are _____, thus every parent has the same number of alleles

A

autosomal

379
Q

[assumptions of mendelian law] traits have no selective value, every phenotype has ___ chances of survival

A

chances

380
Q

[non-mendelian] a type of inheritance wherein neither traits from the parents is dominant to the other, traits are blended

A

incomplete dominance

381
Q

[non-mendelian] a type of inheritance wherein both traits from the parents are manifested

A

codominance

382
Q

[non-mendelian] a type of inheritance wherein multiple alleles affect a certain trait

A

multiples alleles

383
Q

[inheritance] a type of inheritance wherein multiple number of genes affect a certain trait

A

polygenes

384
Q

[pedigree analysis] type of inheritance where genes responsible foe the phenotypes of an organism is located in the 22 pairs of non-sex determining chromosomes

A

autosomal inheritance

385
Q

[pedigree analysis] 2 types of autosomal inheritance

A

autosomal dominant, autosomal recessive

386
Q

[pedigree analysis] type of autosomal inheritance where dominant conditions are expressed in organisms with just 1 copy of the mutant allele, affected males and females have equal probabilities of transmitting the trait to their offspring

A

autosomal dominant

387
Q

[pedigree analysis] type of autosomal inheritance where trait is manifested only when 2 copies of the aberrant allele is present

A

autosomal recessive

388
Q

[pedigree analysis] what type of autosomal inheritance are Huntington’s diesase, achondroplasia, and polycystic kidney disease?

A

autosomal dominant

389
Q

[pedigree analysis] what type of autosomal inheritance are tay-such’s, hemochromatosis, phenylketunoria

A

autosomal recessive

390
Q

[pedigree analysis] all x-linked recessive traits are manifested in males, because they only have ___ X chromosome

A

1

391
Q

[pedigree analysis] mother to son transmission

A

x-linked recessive

392
Q

[pedigree analysis] duchenne muscular dystrophy, hemophilia A, red-green colorblindness, congenital deafness are attributed to

A

x-linked recessive

393
Q

[pedigree analysis] father to daughter transmission

A

x-linked dominant

394
Q

[pedigree analysis] retinitis pigmentosa, chondrodysplasia punctata, hypophosphatemic rickets are attibuted to

A

x-linked dominant

395
Q

[pedigree analysis] if there is sexual predilection, then it is

A

x-linked

396
Q

[pedigree analysis] it there is a 50/50 ration for men and women who are affected then it is

A

autosomal

397
Q

[pedigree analysis] pedigree shows some generation without affected individuals then it is

A

autosomal recessive

398
Q

[pedigree analysis] never skips a generation, only males are affected

A

y linked (holandric)

399
Q

[ecology] autotrophs

A

primary producers

400
Q

[ecology] heterotrophs

A

consumers

401
Q

[ecology] detritivores

A

decomposers

402
Q

[ecology] highest form of ecological organization which refers to all the life forms, and factors that affects and influences these life forms

A

biosphere

403
Q

[terrestrial biomes] vertically layered plants, most intense competition of light among plants, equatorial and subequatorial regions

A

tropical forests

404
Q

[terrestrial biomes] occurs in band near 30 degrees North and South latitude, water storage in succulent plants, deep roots, reduced leaf surface area

A

desert

405
Q

[terrestrial biomes] equatorial and subequatorial regions, presence of thorns, small leaves for the dry condition

A

savanna

406
Q

[terrestrial biomes] midlatitude coastal regions, tough evergreen leaves, woody plants to reduce water loss, hot-resistant seeds

A

chaparral

407
Q

[terrestrial biomes] extends in a band across northern America and Eurasia to the edge of the Arctic Tundra, production of cones

A

taiga

408
Q

[terrestrial biomes] covers expansive areas of the Arctic, stunted growth of plants mostly grasses, mosses, forbs, presence of permanent frozen layer of soil (permafrost)

A

tundra

409
Q

[general marine biome] land meets water and gets submerged twice a day

A

intertidal zone

410
Q

[general marine biome] shallow water over continental shelves that is easily reached by water

A

neritic zone

411
Q

[general marine biome] the area off the shore of the continental shelf with an average depth of 200m

A

oceanic zone

412
Q

[general marine biome] layers of the ocean that receives the greatest illumination where planktons and most organism thrive

A

photic zone

413
Q

[general marine biome] layer of the ocean that receives lesser amount of light

A

aphotic zone

414
Q

[general marine biome] layer of the ocean that receives little or no light where bioluminescent fish and organism thrive

A

abyssal zone

415
Q

[general marine biome] layer rich in nutrients containing sand and other sediments found at the bottom of the biome

A

benthic

416
Q

[general marine biome] part of the sea not near the sea coast or continental shelf

A

pelagic zone

417
Q

[general freshwater biome] receives largest amounts of sunlight and provides space for growing organisms to thrive

A

littoral zone

418
Q

[general freshwater biome] not very well-lit, not suitable for plant growth, provides home for planktons

A

limnetic zone

419
Q

[general freshwater biome] zone that receives a decent amount of light

A

euphotic zone

420
Q

[general freshwater biome] zone that contains sediments and organismal debris suitable for plant growth

A

benthic zone

421
Q

[general freshwater biome] lakes that are very deep, with high concentration of dissolved oxygen but little nutrients, only few planktons

A

oligotrophic lakes

422
Q

[general freshwater biome] lakes that are fairly shallow, have lots of nutrients, low concentration of dissolved oxygen, thus high concentration of planktons

A

eutrophic lakes

423
Q

[ecology] refers to the sequence of community and ecosystem changes after a certain disturbance

A

ecological succession

424
Q

[ecology] 2 types of ecological succession

A

primary and secondary

425
Q

[type of ecol succession] occurs in virtually lifeless area where no soil has formed in a new volcanic island or glacier and occurs for hundreds to thousands of years

A

primary succession

426
Q

[type of ecol succession] organisms present include autotrophic and heterotrophic prokaryotes and protists

A

primary succession

427
Q

[ecological succession] type of selection where many offspring are produced but only a small investment of resources is put into each offspring

A

R-selection

428
Q

[ecological succession] type of selection there is a heavy investment in each offspring to ensure higher probability of survival

A

K-selection

429
Q

[type of ecol succession] R-selected organisms inhabit the area

A

primary succession

430
Q

[type of ecol succession] occurs when an existing community was wiped-out by disturbances leaving the soil intact, and occurs in a faster rate

A

secondary succession

431
Q

[type of ecol succession] organisms present are woody shrubs, forest trees, perennial trees

A

secondary succession

432
Q

[type of ecol succession] K-selected organisms inhabit the area

A

secondary succession

433
Q

[ecology] defined as the maximum population size that a particular environment can support

A

carrying capacity

434
Q

[ecology] in the logistic growth model, the per capita rate of increase declines as carrying capacity is reached, thus it produces an____ growth curve

A

S-shaped

435
Q

[reproductive isolation] the _____ defines a species as a population whose members have the potential to interbreed and produce viable offsprings

A

biological species concept

436
Q

[reproductive isolation] is the existence of biological barriers that impede members of 2 species from producing viable offsprings

A

reproductive isolation

437
Q

[reproductive isolation] impede mating between species or hinder the fertilization of ova of members of different species attempt to mate

A

prezygotic barriers

438
Q

[reproductive isolation] if fertilization does happen, this prevents hybrid zygote from developing into fertile adults

A

postzygotic barriers

439
Q

[reproductive isolation] types of prezygotic isolating mechanisms

A

temporal, ecological, behavioral, mechanical

440
Q

[type of prezygotic isolating mechanism] occurs when 2 species mate at different times of the year

A

temporal

441
Q

[type of prezygotic isolating mechanism] occurs when 2 species occupy different habitats

A

ecological

442
Q

[type of prezygotic isolating mechanism] occurs when 2 species have different courtship behaviours

A

behavioral

443
Q

[type of prezygotic isolating mechanism] occurs when physical differences prevent copulation

A

mechanical

444
Q

[reproductive isolation] types of postzygotic isolating mechanisms

A

hybrid inviability, hybrid infertility, hybrid breakdown

445
Q

[type of postzygotic isolating mechanism] occurs when hybrids are produced but fail to develop to reproductive maturity

A

hybrid inviability

446
Q

[type of prezygotic isolating mechanism] occurs when hybrids fail to produce functional gametes

A

hybrid infertility

447
Q

[type of prezygotic isolating mechanism] occurs when F1 hybrids are fertile, but F2 generations fail to develop properly

A

hybrid breakdown

448
Q

[animal body types] produces own heat via metabolic processes

A

endotherms

449
Q

[animal body types] gains heat through the environment

A

ectotherms

450
Q

[animal body types] constant body temperature, maintains body temperature within narrow range

A

homeotherms

451
Q

[animal body types] body temperature adjusts based on the environment, tolerates a wide variation in internal body temperature because of environmental variation

A

poikilotherms

NMAT (5 decks)

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