3rd MI ABOS Flashcards
(149 cards)
1
Q
“Will, shall, must” indicate a ______ requirement
A
Mandatory
2
Q
“Should” is used to indicate a non-mandatory but _____ method of accomplishment
A
Preferred
3
Q
“May” or “can” indicate an _____ method of accomplishment
A
Acceptable
4
Q
The ___ will ensure appropriate Flight Information Publication (FLIP) and mission products are onboard the aircraft IAW 95-1. Pilots are authorized to substitute paper FLIP products with approved _____
A
PC
EFB
5
Q
The following items are not all DOD FLIPs, they should be the minimum required publicaitons and mission products for routine training
A
FLIPs IAW para 9-47
Local Procedure guide (if required)
Pubs required by DA PAM 738-751
Appropriate aircraft operator manual and checklist
Aircraft Notebook laptop (ACN)
DOD Form 365-4 adjusted for current configuration
SF 44 / AvCards
6
Q
A PC’s primary method for retrieving notice to air missions (NOTAMS) is through the DOD_________ website
A
Department of Defense Aeronautical Information System website
7
Q
Aircrew members will immediately inform their ______ or aeromedical physician assistant (APA) when they have received treatment for which flying restrictions may be appropriate
This includes any treatment or procedure performed by a non-flight surgeon listed in AR 40-8.
A
flight surgeon (FS)
8
Q
The 501st MI BDE Commander has determined all 3rd MI BN (AE) crewmembers will be designated Flight Activity Category (FAC) ____ in their primary aircraft
A
FAC 1
9
Q
Crewmembers identified for standby duty on the flight schedule are on call starting at the earliest scheduled ______ time for the mission
A
Battalion Operations Center (BOC)
10
Q
Standby duty will end after____% of the mission(s).
A
50%
11
Q
Standby crews must be available for telephonic recall and report within ______ hour(s) of notification
A
1 hour
12
Q
All RL1 crewmembers are responsible for completing their APART requirements during the ______ month period prior to the last day of the individual’s birth month.
A
three-month period
13
Q
Semiannual Flying Hour Requirements
Total:
Hood/ Weather:
Night:
A
55
3
1
14
Q
When returning from a non-flying period of ____ days or more (TDY, leave, etc.), the aviator will fly a minimum of one flight with a unit PC, UT, or IP prior to performing duties as a PC.
A
30
15
Q
Crewmembers will be notified no earlier than____ hours and no later than ____ hour(s) prior to flightno notice evaluations
A
24
1
15
Q
Each evaluator should perform at least ____ no-notice evaluation during each of their semi-annual periods.
A
2
16
Q
At a minimum, ____ % of the aircrew members will receive one (1) no-notice evaluation per year outside of their APART period.
A
30
17
Q
The primary purpose of recurrent training is to receive intensive training on aircraft systems and a thorough review and training of emergency and abnormal procedures, some of which are ____ from being performed in the aircraft.
A
restricted
18
Q
3rd MI BN defines multi-aircraft operations as two or more aircraft departing within a _____ minute separation period and have a common ______ and/or mission
A
10 minute
destination
19
Q
T/F
Formation flight is authorized
A
FALSE
Formation flight is not authorized
20
Q
AMCs will be designated for each GRCS mission involving ____ or more aircraft and______ ______ of multiple aircraft.
A
two
self-deployment
21
Q
T/F
Effective AMC training occurs at all levels and should not exclude leaders who have not achieved PC status.
A
TRUE
22
Q
T/F
Risk management (RM) is only about the sheet of paper being finished, it is about the process and understanding the risk involved with the mission or training being conducted
A
FALSE
Risk management (RM) is not about the sheet of paper being finished, it is about the process and understanding the risk involved with the mission or training being conducted
23
Q
3rd Mi BN uses the current guidance from _______ Supplement to AR 95-1 for the risk assessment worksheet. (DA 5484)
A
INSCOM
24
Which level of risk may MBOs brief?
Briefing Officers may brief at **any risk level** and must be a current PC and qualified in the mission
25
T/F
MBOs that are also a Final Mission Approval Authority (FMAA) **can** brief and approve the same mission.
FALSE
MBOs that are also a Final Mission Approval Authority (FMAA) **will not brief and approve the same mission**
26
Do you need an MBO and FMAA if you are only doing engine starts?
Mission approval is required any time an engine is started on an aircraft.
27
•EXTREMELY HIGH Risk Approval Authority
• HIGH Risk Approval Authority: ______
• MODERATE Risk Approval Authority:
• LOW Risk Approval Authority: ______
EH: INSCOM Commander
H: 501st Brigade Commander
M: Battalion Commander
L: ATP Company Commander for their specific aircraft
28
Who are the only authorized self-approval authorities?
When can the BN XO / S3 self approve?
3rd MI Battalion Commander
Alpha Company Commander
Bravo Company Commander
________________________________________________
**Only when on battalion assumption of command orders** the BN XO / BN S-3 can self- approve, if the overall risk is at or below the approval authorities risk assumption authority as annotated on the MBO/FMAA policy memo.
29
T/F
During bonafide absences, battalion and brigade commanders may authorize their field grade deputy commander (O–5), executive officer, S–3, or air ambulance company commander (O–4) to accept the risk and approve the operation on their behalf provided they are trained and notify the commander as soon as possible
TRUE
30
Define Bonafide absence
Periods of time the commander is unavailable and a decision is required before they are reached.
Multiple attempts by all means necessary will be made prior to seeking approval from another approval authority.
31
Every attempt should be made to contact the ATP commander for a Low risk approval prior to contacting the________ for approval.
Battalion Commander
BN S3 and BN XO are authorized to approve a final risk approve for Low / Moderate risk missions during bona fide absences of the BN Commander
32
What does VOCO stand for?
Verbal orders of commanding officer (VOCO)
33
If an approval authority cannot be physically present to sign the RAW, then the term ______will be entered in the appropriate FMAA block with an entry made in the mission log that a _____ approval was received for the mission.
VOCO (Verbal orders of commanding officer)
34
3rd MI BN academic training will take place the first _____ of every month from 1500-1630 local time
Monday
35
If make-up training is not completed by the end of the month, the crewmember's reading file card will be turned "Red”, and that person will be _______ from flight duties until complete
restricted
36
How many survival radios will be carried onboard the aircraft in a standardized location accessible to all crewmembers.
2
37
Are survival vests required to be worn by crewmembers?
No
38
How many survival vests will be carried onboard on all flights?
**One vest per crewmember** will be carried onboard on all flights.
39
When will Mustang suits be readily available?
Operating and aircraft overwater outside of “all engine-out” glide range
**and**
the ambient water temperature is **60F or below**.
40
Uniforms and protective clothing will be IAW ______ with the exception of flight helmets and gloves.
AR 95-1
When mission dictates that the flight uniform is not to be worn. Exception to wearing the uniform is when flying to Japan, crews are authorized to dress in business casual clothing for these training support flights. (Khakis, Slacks etc.., No Shorts and the shirt must have a collar)
41
When flying to Japan, crews are authorized to dress in ___ ___ clothing for these training support flights. (Khakis, Slacks etc.., **No Shorts and the shirt must have a collar**
business casual
42
What is the clean aircraft concept?
No aircraft will take off with ice, snow or frost adhered to any of the following surfaces:
windshield, wings, stabilizers, control surfaces, pitot and stall probe systems, engine nacelles, intakes or pylons.
43
In a deployed AOR, due to possible lack of deice capability aircrews will not depart during any freezing precipitation if the departure airfield or destination airfield does not have ______ ______
deicing capabilities
44
Aircraft will not depart or land on a runway with the Braking Action reported as ____ or _____ without the appropriate risk commander’s approval
“Poor"
“Nil”
45
Are physically or mentally fatigued personnel allowed to perform flight or mission support duties?
NO
Physically or mentally fatigued personnel **will not** perform flight or mission support duties.
(IAW INSCOM Supplement to AR 95-1 section F-6 paragraph G)
46
When **must** a crewmember update their fighter management tracker?
When is it recommended to update fighter management to effectively track fighter management?
The BN fighter management tracker will be updated **prior to flight**
it is recommended to update individual trackers every 72 hours.
47
If an individual is not flying, it is recommended to update individual trackers every _____ hours In order to effectively track fighter management
72 hours
48
What form will extensions be annotated on?
DA Form 5484
49
Define: Duty Day
The duty day starts with arrival at work and ends with release from duty.
Any transportation to/from **a remote work location** will be included as part of the crewmember’s duty day.
50
Define: Rest Periods
The 12 hours after release from duty until the start of the next duty day
51
When has a rest period been considered interrupted?
An interruption is when an individual is required to **perform/report for an obligating duty**
A phone call in garrison and/or momentary awakening (<30 minutes) during other than garrison operations is not considered an interruption
If a rest period is interrupted for more than 30 minutes the command has two options.
1) Restart the individual’s rest period. (If new rest period is less than 12 hours, ensure risk is accepted at the appropriate level for the amount of continuous rest received prior to start of duty day).
2) Begin the individual’s duty day at the moment of interruption. Ensure risk is accepted at the appropriate level for the amount of rest received prior to interruption.
52
What are the command's two options if a rest period is interrupted for more than 30 minutes?
1) Restart the individual’s rest period. (If new rest period is less than 12 hours, ensure risk is accepted at the appropriate level for the amount of continuous rest received prior to start of duty day).
2) Begin the individual’s duty day at the moment of interruption. Ensure risk is accepted at the appropriate level for the amount of rest received prior to interruption
53
Define: Rest Day.
how often **should** they by provided and **will** they be provided?
A period of 24 consecutive hours in which no duty related tasks are performed
A 24-hour rest period **should be provided every 7 days** for each crewmember
A 24-hour rest period **will be provided every 14 consecutive days worked**
8-14 consecutive days worked is assessed on the RAW as a moderate risk
54
8-14 consecutive days worked is assessed on the RAW as a ______ risk.
Moderate
55
Aircrew members newly assigned to Eighth Army and those returning from leave or temporary duty (TDY) after transitioning more **than 5 time zones** shall not be scheduled for flight within ____ hours of arrival in-country
96
This requirement may be waived down to 72 hours by the first aviation commander Lieutenant Colonel (O-5) or above in the individuals' chain of command based upon the recommendation of the unit flight surgeon.
56
Define: Duty Day Shift
A shift in an individual duty day cycle by either **four (4) or more hours to the left** or **six (6) or more hours to the right** from the previous duty start time.
57
Define: Reverse Cycle
Aircrew members should be provided a ___hour reset prior to beginning a Reverse Cycle
A duty cycle that requires an adjustment of the normal circadian rhythm
Reverse cycle occurs when an aircrew member is required to **alter the start of a duty period by 8 hours or more**
24 hour reset prior to beginning a Reverse Cycle. Less than a 24-hour rest period prior to beginning a reverse cycle will be assessed as a **moderate** risk on the RAW
58
Aircrew members should be provided a ___ hour reset prior to beginning a Reverse Cycle
Less than a _____ hour rest period prior to beginning a reverse cycle will be assessed as a **moderate** risk on the RAW
24, 24
"Should" is not mandatory according to the front of the ABOS. but less than a 24 hour reset required a moderate risk
59
The **company commander** can extend the duty day __ hours, on a case-by-case basis, to meet operational needs, to a total of 14 hours.
The company commander can extend the duty day 2 hours
60
The battalion commander may extend the duty day an additional ____ hours, on a case-by-case basis to meet operational needs, to a total of ____ hours
2
16 hours total
61
The brigade commander is the only person authorized to increase the duty day to more than ___ hours and requires a written evaluation from a flight surgeon
16
62
After three consecutive duty day extensions, the mission risk will be elevated to ____ and **will require** a 24-hour reset period which may be waived by the brigade commander.
HIGH
63
Leaders will provide a ____ hour rest period prior to the beginning of a new duty period
The Company Commander can reduce this period to ___ hours and the Battalion Commander can further reduce this period to ___ hours.
12 prior to the beginning of a new duty period
10 by ATP Commander
8 by BC
64
Leaders will provide a ____ hours rest period following a 24-hour duty (SDO, SDNCO, CQ, or any similar duties)
24 hour
65
When aircrews are on RON missions, they will secure the aircraft at the RON site
Define securing the aircraft
Securing includes all tie-downs being properly installed, wheels chocked, and all emergency exits being locked in addition to the cabin/air stair door
The PC will ensure all crypto is secured and fills zeroized
The PC will make a closing report to the CP (Location, daily flight time, time of arrival, estimated departure time/date, lodging location and contact telephone numbers)
If the aircrew recovers at a non-US controlled (unplanned) airfield after completion of a mission due to weather or other unforeseen events, the PC will ensure that one member of the crew remains on board to safeguard all classified material and equipment.
66
When aircrews are on RON missions, they will make a closing report to the CP. This includes:
The following information will be included: Location, daily flight time, time of arrival, estimated departure time/date, lodging location and contact telephone numbers
67
When aircrews are on RON missions, if the aircrew recovers at a non-US controlled (unplanned) airfield after completion of a mission due to weather or other unforeseen events, the PC will ensure that:
One member of the crew remains on board to safeguard all classified material and equipment If sensitive items/equipment cannot be removed from the aircraft
68
During a RON If airport security is not available (military airfield, United States, international airport), use the following procedures to secure sensitive items:
o Collect weapons (M4s, M17/18 pistol, M240s).
o Collect NVG.
o Collect ASE removable cards (APR-39A and common missile warning system [CMWS] user-data modules).
o Collect combat survivor evader locator (CSEL)/survival radios.
69
For relief-in-place operations, all aircraft involved will have established internal communications and separated by ____ of altitude prior to operating within __ nm of each other.
1,000'
10nm
70
What is the definition of the local flying area?
The local flying area for the 3rd MI BN (AE) is defined as the Republic of Korea Peninsula, to include Jeju Island.
71
Who can approve flights outside the local flying area ( such as for Deployments, ferry flights or training flights to Japan)
The battalion commander
72
What is the hot seat swap procedure:
1)
2)
3)
Resume checklist at: ___ ___ ____
1) Parking Brake – SET
2) Prop Levers – FEATHER
3) Conduct Seat Swap
Resume checklist at: BEFORE TAKEOFF Checklist
73
What is the Hot Load/Unload Procedure
1) Parking Brake:
2) Bleed Air Valves:
3) Prop Levers:
4) Flaps:
5) Personnel:
6) Airstair Door:
7) Confirm all personnel are:
8) Prop Levers:
9) Flaps:
10) Checklist Complete. Resume at: ___ ___ ___
1) Parking Brake – SET
2) Bleed Air Valves – ENVIOR OFF – WARNING: Crews will confirm the aircraft is depressurized by opening a storm window.
3) Prop Levers – FEATHER
4) Flaps – FULL DOWN
5) Personnel – LOAD/UNLOAD after receiving all clear indication from Aircrew.
6) Airstair Door – CLOSED
7) Confirm all personnel clear of Blast Area
8) Prop Levers – HIGH RPM
9) Flaps – AS REQUIRED
10) Checklist Complete. Resume at BEFORE TAXI Checklist
74
What is the definition of a through-flight:
3rd MI BN defines “Thru-flight or Through-flight operations” as a subsequent flight of the day for the PC within the same aircraft.
75
When is a takeoff alternate airfield required?
a takeoff alternate airfield is required when at the time of departure, the departure airfield observed/forecast weather is below the landing minimums for the approach to be flown on a return.
This airfield must be located within 1 hour at one-engine inoperative cruise
76
What is the required minimum climb gradient for a VMC departure?
RC-12X aircrews may depart an airfield under VMC conditions with a **positive first segment** and a **minimum of 2.0% (122 ft/nm) climb gradient in the second segment** climb with one engine inoperative.
77
What is the required minimum climb gradient for an IMC departure?
IAW **INSCOM Supplement to AR 95-1** climb gradient for one engine inoperative, all aircraft must be capable of achieving a minimum 3.3% (200 ft/nm) second segment climb gradient
Additionally, aviators will comply with all standard and nonstandard IFR takeoff minimums and procedures (all engine performance)
78
Do aviators comply with all standard and nonstandard IFR takeoff minimums and procedures based on **single engine performance**, or **all engine performance?**
all engine performance
79
OAP Runway 14/32 (Applicable to ISR MISSIONS ONLY)
This OAP is only applicable for ISR missions, instrument departures on Desiderio Runway 14/32
AND
The airfield must less than 1000’- 3SM (IMC)
and
Second segment climb performance is < 3.3% or below the non- standard climb gradient required on Runway 14
The Runway 14/32 OAP has been established using a general 0.8% degradation from 3.3%, so the minimum second segment performance to use the OAP is 2.5%
80
The Runway 14/32 OAP has been established using a general 0.8% degradation from 3.3%. Second segment climb gradient minimums for the OAP is ____% (152ft/min)
2.5% (152ft/nm)
81
OAP usage is assessed as a _____ on the 3rd MI BN Risk Assessment
When the OAP is utilized and a Takeoff Alternate Airfield is required, the Risk will be assessed as ____ risk.
MODERATE
HIGH
82
When the OAP is utilized **and** a Takeoff Alternate Airfield is required, the Risk will be assessed as ____ risk.
HIGH
(We have less than a 3.3% and the weather is too low to return right after takeoff)
83
The minimum runway requirements for all Battalion aircraft are:
1)
2)
3)
1)hard surfaced
2) 50' wide
3) Lighted for night operations
84
Minimum takeoff requirements for a runway's length:
All aircraft must have runway length, including stopways, equal to or greater than accelerate-stop distance.
85
When performance planning indicates a negative 1st segment of climb, crews will calculate and ensure that there is sufficient runway for the takeoff
Define sufficient runway for the takeoff
Sufficient runway is defined IAW the RC-12X dATM as
Takeoff Distance + 2,000 feet + Landing Distance over a 50-foot obstacle.
86
When can we do a downwind takeoff?
Downwind takeoffs will not normally be made.
When weather conditions do not meet other than standard departure requirements, an aircraft may take off with a tailwind provided the tailwind component does not exceed the operator’s manual limitation. If a downwind take-off is used, the crew will ensure the performance is adequate for a downwind takeoff.
87
All aircrew members will be qualified and current in the altitude chamber. If not current, aircrew members are not authorized to fly unless on approved _____ IAW AR 95-1.
waiver
88
Define Multi-Aircraft Operations
The 3rd MI BN (AE) defines multi-aircraft operations as two or more aircraft departing within a 10-minute separation period and have a common destination and/or mission
89
Is formation flight authorized?
Formation flight is NOT authorized
90
When will an AMC be delegated?
AMCs will be designated for each mission involving two or more aircraft operating in close proximity for mission operations as a flight and during self-deployment of multiple aircraft
91
For the purpose of carrying troops, The 3rd MI BN Commander has determined __ 3rd MI BN personnel are mission essential for the purpose of mission familiarization.
all
92
Are non INSCOM personnel permitted to fly aboard SEMA aircraft?
No, Not without the prior written approval from INSCOM, G3 Aerial-ISR
93
The standard FW traffic pattern altitude at Desiderio Army Airfield is flown at _____ ft
1500'
94
Plan repetitive VFR traffic patterns operations at other airfields such as ____ and ____ in order to ensure the safe, orderly and expeditious flow of traffic at DAAF
RKSO, RKJK
95
The scheduling of night training flights in the RKSG traffic pattern is primarily on_____ for 3rd MI BN.
Fridays
Sunset +2 hours past sunset is the 2 CAB peak times fails (M-F)
96
Which frequency band will aircrews utilize to contact ground and tower frequencies as the primary means of contacting Air Traffic Controllers at DAAF?
However, all aircrews **should monitor UHF to improve situational awareness**
VHF
97
In the event of a flight violation who are the only people you may disclose your names, identities, or social security numbers to?
chain of command.
98
What are the requiremtns for the ACN (Aircraft Notebook)?
The PC will ensure the Aircraft Notebook (ACN) is locked with the appropriate aircraft tail number and ensure it is powered down and stored in its hardened case before putting it onboard the aircraft. The ACN will not be removed from the case while it is on-board the aircraft
99
Aircraft moving under its own power will be marshalled by maintenance personnel whenever available but who has the final authority for the safe operation of taxi operations and will determine when they need to deviate from the taxi lines.
The PC
100
How will Crews utilize maintenance personnel to verify proper inflation of the deice boots on the tail?
This will be done by making a “T” signal with their hands prior to departing the ramp.
101
Should aircrews monitor guard at all times?
All aircrews will monitor guard during all flights. **The only exception is during traffic pattern flights and if it interferes with safe aircraft operations**. Monitoring guard is mandatory within P-518.
102
Define Challenge and response in regards to aircrew coordination:
The challenge and response method of utilizing the checklist should be utilized unless periods of high cockpit workload preclude, or the checklist calls for “silent checks”. At those times, both the challenge and response will be provided by the PNF
103
Define Sterile Cockpit in regards to aircrew coordination:
Sterile Cockpit in regards to aircrew coordination: Sterile cockpit is defined as only that conversation necessary for safe aircraft operation. A sterile cockpit ***should*** exist from the start of takeoff roll through 10,000' MSL or final cruise altitudes when lower than 10,000'. During descent the same applies from 10,000' MSL to landing. As a technique the sterile cockpit concept should apply when establishing "On Track" in the mission profile as well as when in the turn at the end or intermediate points. Aircrews will exercise extreme vigilance when operating in the terminal area or while on any segment of an approach or departure.
104
Define Emergency Procedures in regards to aircrew coordination:
The primary responsibility of the Pilot Flying is aircraft control. In the event of an emergency after V1 the only actions that should be performed below 400' AGL, or clear of obstacles, are to retract the gear and feather the prop as the emergency dictates. The RC-12X will retract flaps to zero if applicable, at VYSE.
105
In the event of an emergency after V1 the only actions that should be performed below 400' AGL, or clear of obstacles, are to ____ the gear and ____ the prop as the emergency dictates. The RC-12X will retract flaps to zero if applicable, at VYSE.
retract
feather
106
Define Most Conservative Response in regards to aircrew coordination
Occasionally, there is a disagreement in the cockpit which cannot be resolved due to lack of information. It is best to agree in advance to take the most conservative action in these situations until additional information is available. Open communication enhances crew effectiveness. All crewmembers are expected to raise issues pertinent to the safe operation of the aircraft regardless of rank, duty position or experience.
107
Flight Director Management: The following crew coordination practices supplement Ch. 6 of the appropriate ATM.
1) The PNF may make changes to the selected altitude as required without direction from the PF after confirming the ALT SEL is not capturing.
2) The PNF will not make other changes to the PF’s flight director system without the direction of the PF.
3) With the Auto Pilot System disengaged, the PF should direct the PNF to make changes to the PF’s flight director system.
4) Changes to the status of the flight director system while it is coupled to the autopilot should be announced and mutually verified. When a mode is selected, it will be announced to the other pilot. Make an announcement when the flight director captures a selected mode.
108
When using an EFB, Ensure the flight controls are capable of_____ _____
full travel
109
Keep the EFBs out of direct sunlight to prevent ____ ____ of the device.
thermal shutdown
110
EFBs will only be used by the (flying or not flying) pilot.
NOT FLYING
111
EFB volume and backlighting should be set to avoid interference with normal aircrew duties and ____ ____
Night Vision
112
EFBs should be fully charged before flight.
IAW95-1, the battery shall be at least ____% for each hour of total flight time, but no less than ____% (e.g. minimum of 50% for a 3+00 ATM flight).
10%
50%
113
FLIP requirement can be met with either hardcopy paper publications, or two ____.
Note: Crews will exit IMC as soon as practicable if operating without paper back-ups
EFBs
114
Paper publications will continue to be issued as long as they are available but **(are/ are not)** required if there are two operational iPads onboard the aircraft.
Paper publications ARE NOT required if there are two operational iPads onboard the aircraft
NOTE: Aircraft will exit IMC as soon as practicable if operating without paper back-ups
115
Aircrews will notify the ___ if issued an outdated SW-R EFB.
They will then request another SW-R EFB, or update the data themselves (time-permitting).
BOC
116
BOC personnel may issue SW-R EFB(s) to non-mission aircrews (ATMs) as early as ___ business day prior to a scheduled flight
one
117
Ferry flight aircrews may sign out SW-R EFB(s) up to ____ days before their scheduled departure.
7 days
118
What is the primary method for filing flight plans?
Note: Mission flights are not authorized to file digitally.
in person through the 3rd MI BOC.
119
Can PCs of non-mission flights elect to file flight plans digitally?
Yes, after ensuring all the DD Form 1801 information within ForeFlight is correct.
120
Can crews use the EFB's own-ship/moving map or graphical weather features as a primary means of navigation, or weather avoidance.
No, they will not use the own-ship/moving map or graphical weather features as a primary means of navigation, or weather avoidance.
121
Can you use aircraft power to charge EFBs?
NO. In-flight recharging using aircraft power is prohibited
122
What must be ensured if using a powerpack to charge an EFB in the plane?
1) fire containment bag is within reach of the pilots in case of a thermal runaway of the iPad or the power bank
2) They check the power bank for signs of failure (e.g. cracking, bulging, abnormal heating while charging) before bringing it onboard the aircraft
123
For which airfields may the 607th OWS MWP be utilized?
RKSG, RKSO, and RKJK.
MWP use for RKTN is limited to Maintenance Test Flight (MTF) purposes only
124
If you use the MWP, what other type of brief is required?
A verbal weather brief
125
Which weather product is required for all ISR Mission flights?
A DD175-1
126
Who must approve all missions when it is anticipated that less than 50% will be completed?.
The Battalion Commander
127
Penetration of forecasted **moderate icing** (transition thru, not including occasional) is authorized; which level of risk will this be assessed as?
Moderate
128
Can you fly in sustained moderate icing?
No, the enroute/cruise portion of flights will not be flown in sustained moderate icing conditions.
129
How many miles away does a thunderstorm have to be for an aircraft to depart
20nm
130
Can depart or fly when thunderstorms are forecast or present within the route of flight?
Not unless weather radar is operational OR risk is assessed on the risk assessment (Flight with forecast thunderstorms AND inoperable weather radar and/or lightening sensor requires CG INSCOM approval.)
131
What level of approval is required for Flight into known or forecast **moderate turbulence**
Low Risk
132
T/F
Both flight crewmembers **should** have the navigation radios tuned to the required NAVAIDs for the approach to be flown.
FALSE
Both flight crewmembers **will** have the navigation radios tuned to the required NAVAIDs for the approach to be flown.
133
For a circling approach, If the downwind or crosswind condition is ___ knots or less and the runway length is adequate, the crew may consider a straight-in landing rather than a circling approach with higher minimums.
10 knots
134
For a circling approach, the crew should attempt to circle in the direction that will provide the best visibility to the ____ ____
Pilot Flying.
135
When weather conditions at the destination airport indicate the potential for a contaminated runway, PCs will determine the Runway Condition via the _____ _____ ____ (RCAM) prior to departure and assess accordingly on the risk assessment
Runway Condition Assessment Matrix (RCAM) in the FIH
136
During planning, if the runway condition cannot be determined, then an ____airfield is required (IAW AR 95-1 requirements)
alternate
137
Upon arrival at the destination, if the crew still cannot determine the runway condition, the crew will proceed to the ____ airfield.
alternate
138
Define wet runway
Defined as any runway with standing water
increase takeoff and landing data by 30 percent
139
increase takeoff and landing data by___% for a wet runway
30%
Wet runway is defined as “standing water”
140
If reported RCR is poor, takeoff and landing operations will not be attempted without ____ ____approval
Battalion Commander's
141
If reported RCR is 5 or less or Braking Action is reported as NIL, takeoff and landing operations will not be attempted without ____ ____'s approval.
INSCOM Commander
142
For landing on icy runways, the PC will ensure no tailwind and the crosswind component is within ____degrees of runway heading.
10 degrees of runway heading.
143
In the event of IIMC during VFR flight, perform the following:
1) Announce:
2) Climb to:
3) Squawk: ____
4) Contact:
1) Announce IIMC and immediately transition to the instruments.
2) Climb to the minimum safe altitude for IFR operations. Continue climb to the next VFR altitude until an IFR clearance is received.
3) Squawk 7700 “EMERGENCY” on the transponder.
4) Contact ATC and request an IFR clearance.
144
1) IIMC Recovery within RKSG/ RKSO Airspace:
2) IIMC Recovery outside RKSG/ RKSO area:
1) Aircraft will recover to DAAF (RKSG) using the ILS RWY 32 approach procedure.
1) Aircraft will recover to Osan (RKSO) using an instrument approach procedure.
2) The PC will use best judgment and decision making to recover to the nearest appropriate airport with an instrument approach.
145
The ACM must verify completion of the mandatory quarterly review by the ____th day of the fiscal quarter.
10th
146
The mandatory quarterly review consists of:
All information contained within the new information folder, the quarterly folder, and the first five subfolders in the permanent folder
147
Electromagnetic Interference
M. I. J. I.
Meaconing
Interference
Jamming
Intrusion
148
Electromagnetic Interference
M. I. J. I.
Meaconing
Interference
Jamming
Intrusion
