B3 Endocrine pathology Flashcards

1
Q

Anterior Pituitary:

What is a pituitary adenoma?

A

A benign tumor of the anterior pituitary cells that can be functional (hormone-producing) or non-functional (no hormones)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

A benign tumor of the anterior pituitary cells that can be functional (hormone-producing) or non-functional (no hormones)

A

pituitary adenoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is a non-functional anterior pituitary adenoma?

A

Presents with:
1) Bitemporal hemianopsia (compressed optic chiasm)

2) Hypopituitarism (compressed normal pituitary tissue)

3) Headaches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Presents with:
1) Bitemporal hemianopsia (compressed optic chiasm)

2) Hypopituitarism (compressed normal pituitary tissue)

3) Headaches

A

non-functional anterior pituitary adenoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is a functional anterior pituitary adenoma?

A

Tumors that secrete hormones & are dependent on the kinds of hormones they produce

Prolactinoma, Growth hormone cell adenoma, ACTH cell adenomas, LH adenomas, FSH adenomas & TSH cell adenoma etc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Tumors that secrete hormones & are dependent on the kinds of hormones they produce

Prolactinoma, Growth hormone cell adenoma, ACTH cell adenomas, LH adenomas, FSH adenomas & TSH cell adenoma etc

A

functional anterior pituitary adenoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is a prolactinoma?

A

The most common functional adenoma of the anterior pituitary gland. It presents with:

1) Galactorrhea
2) Amenorrhea (females)
3) Low libido (men)
4) Headaches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The most common functional adenoma of the anterior pituitary gland. It presents with:

1) Galactorrhea
2) Amenorrhea (females)
3) Low libido (men)
4) Headaches

A

prolactinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How do you treat a prolactinoma?

A

1) Dopamine agonists like bromocriptine or cabergoline to suppress prolactin production to shrink the tumor

2) Surgery to remove larger lesions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

1) Dopamine agonists like bromocriptine or cabergoline to suppress prolactin production to shrink the tumor

2) Surgery to remove larger lesions

Are the treatment options for which tumor?

A

prolactinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How does a Growth hormone cell adenoma present in children?

A

In children in presents as gigantism

1) Increased linear growth epiphyses that aren’t fused

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

In children it presents as gigantism

1) Increased linear growth epiphyses that aren’t fused

A

Growth hormone cell adenoma present in children

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How does a Growth hormone cell adenoma present in adults?

A

In adults it presents as acromegaly

1) Enlarged bones (hands, feet, & jaw)

2) Enlarged organs causing dysfunction (Organomegaly i.e cardiac failure)

3) Enlarged tongue (macroglossia)

4) Secondary Diabetes Mellitus (GH induces liver gluconeogenesis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

In adults it presents as acromegaly

1) Enlarged bones (hands, feet, & jaw)

2) Enlarged organs causing dysfunction (Organomegaly i.e cardiac failure)

3) Enlarged tongue (macroglossia)

4) Secondary Diabetes Mellitus (GH induces liver gluconeogenesis)

A

Growth hormone cell adenoma present in adults

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the treatment options for Growth Hormone cell adenoma?

A

1) Octreotide (a somatostatin analog that suppresses GH levels)
2) GH receptor antagonists
3) Surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

1) Octreotide (a somatostatin analog that suppresses GH levels)
2) GH receptor antagonists
3) Surgery

Are treatment options for which type of tumor?

A

Growth Hormone cell adenoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Acromegaly (adults) or Gigantism (children) presents with elevated GH & IGF1 that can’t be suppressed by oral glucose indicates which condition?

A

Growth hormone cell adenoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is an ACTH cell adenoma?

A

It secretes too much ACTH (elevated cortisol) causing cushing syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

It secretes too much ACTH (elevated cortisol) causing cushing syndrome

A

ACTH cell adenoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is Hypopituitarism?

A

When there’s insufficient hormone production by the anterior pituitary gland. Symptoms start appearing when over 75% of the pituitary parenchyma is lost

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

When there’s insufficient hormone production by the anterior pituitary gland. Symptoms start appearing when over 75% of the pituitary parenchyma is lost

A

Hypopituitarism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are 4 things that can cause Hypopituitarism?

A

1) Pituitary adenomas (adults)
2) Craniopharyngiomas (children)
3) Sheehan syndrome (preggos)
4) Empty sella syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

1) Pituitary adenomas (adults)
2) Craniopharyngiomas (children)
3) Sheehan syndrome (preggos)
4) Empty sella syndrome

Can all cause which condition?

A

Hypopituitarism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How can pituitary adenomas (adults) & Craniopharyngiomas (children) cause hypopituitarism?

A

They cause a mass effect of pituitary apoplexy (bleeding into the adenoma)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is Sheehan syndrome & why does it cause hypopituitarism?

A

A condition in pregnancy that causes the pituitary gland to enlarge & then have blood loss during parturition which worsens the infarct. It presents as:

1) Poor lactation
2) Loss of pubic hair
3) Fatigue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

A condition in pregnancy that causes the pituitary gland to enlarge & then have blood loss during parturition which worsens the infarct. It presents as:

1) Poor lactation
2) Loss of pubic hair
3) Fatigue

A

Sheehan syndrome in pregnancy causing hypopituitarism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is Empty Sella syndrome & how does it cause hypopituitarism?

A

A congenital Sella defect that causes the arachnoid & CSF to herniate into the sella which compresses the pituitary gland destroying it

Imaging shows an empty sella (absent pituitary)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

A congenital Sella defect that causes the arachnoid & CSF to herniate into the Sella which compresses the pituitary gland destroying it

Imaging shows an empty Sella (absent pituitary)

A

Empty Sella syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is Central Diabetes Insipidus?

A

ADH deficiency caused by issues with the hypothalamic or posterior pituitary resulting in free water loss (trauma/inf/inflam/tumor)

Presents with:
1) Polyuria & Polydipsia
2) Hypernatremia & high serum osmolality
3) Low urine osmolality & specific gravity

Tests:
Water deprivation doesn’t increase urine osmolality

Rx. Give desmopressin (an ADH analog)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

ADH deficiency caused by issues with the hypothalamic or posterior pituitary resulting in free water loss (trauma/inf/inflam/tumor)

Presents with:
1) Polyuria & Polydipsia
2) Hypernatremia & high serum osmolality
3) Low urine osmolality & specific gravity

Tests:
Water deprivation doesn’t increase urine osmolality

Rx. Give desmopressin (an ADH analog)

A

Central Diabetes Insipidus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Low levels of ADH & a water deprivation doesn’t increase urine osmolality, what is the condition?

A

Central Diabetes insipidus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is Nephrogenic Diabetes Insipidus?

A

Impaired renal response to ADH (normal release) because of inherited mutations or as a side effect of drugs (lithium or demeclocycline)

Same signs as CDI:
1) Polyuria & Polydipsia
2) Hypernatremia & high serum osmolality
3) Low urine osmolality & specific gravity

But there is NO response to desmopressin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Impaired renal response to ADH (normal release) because of inherited mutations or as a side effect of drugs (lithium or demeclocycline)

Same signs as CDI:
1) Polyuria & Polydipsia
2) Hypernatremia & high serum osmolality
3) Low urine osmolality & specific gravity

But there is NO response to desmopressin

A

Nephrogenic Diabetes Insipidus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is SIADH?

A

Excessive secretion of ADH from the posterior pituitary that is usually due to small cell carcinoma of the lung (others being CNS trauma, pulmonary infection or drugs (cyclophosphamide)). That results in the retention of free water.

Presents as:
1) Hyponatremia & low serum osmolality
2) Mental status changes & seizures
(too much free water causes neuronal swelling & cerebral edema)

Rx:
Free water restriction or Demeclocycline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Excessive secretion of ADH from the posterior pituitary that is usually due to small cell carcinoma of the lung (others being CNS trauma, pulmonary infection or drugs (cyclophosphamide)). That results in the retention of free water.

Presents as:
1) Hyponatremia & low serum osmolality
2) Mental status changes & seizures
(too much free water causes neuronal swelling & cerebral edema)

Rx:
Free water restriction or Demeclocycline

A

SIADH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is a thyroglossal duct?

A

It is cystic dilation of the thyroglossal duct remnant in the thyroid gland that presents as an anterior neck mass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

It is cystic dilation of the thyroglossal duct remnant in the thyroid gland that presents as an anterior neck mass

A

thyroglossal duct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is a lingual thyroid?

A

It is the persistence of thyroid tissue at the base of the tongue that presents as a base of tongue mass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

It is the persistence of thyroid tissue at the base of the tongue that presents as a base of tongue mass

A

lingual thyroid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is Hyperthyroidism?

What is it:

What are the symptoms:

A

A dysfunctional thyroid gland causes elevated T3 & T4 (despite low TSH). This causes

1) Increased BMR due to increased synthesis of Na+/K+ ATPase

2) Increased sympathetic nervous system activity due to elevated B1 adrenergic receptors

1) Weight loss (despite a good appetite)
2) Heat intolerance & sweating
3) Tachycardia & increased CO
4) Arrythmias (A fIb esp in elderly)
5) Tremors, Anxiety, Insomnia
6) Staring gaze with lid lag
7) Diarrhea & malabsorption
8) Oligomenorrhea
9) Bone resorption with hypercalcemia
10) Muscle mass wasting & weakness
11) Hypocholesterolemia
12) Hyperglycemia (increased gluconeogenesis & glycogenolysis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

A dysfunctional thyroid gland causes elevated T3 & T4 (despite low TSH). This causes

1) Increased BMR due to increased synthesis of Na+/K+ ATPase

2) Increased sympathetic nervous system activity due to elevated B1 adrenergic receptors

1) Weight loss (despite a good appetite)
2) Heat intolerance & sweating
3) Tachycardia & increased CO
4) Arrythmias (A fIb esp in elderly)
5) Tremors, Anxiety, Insomnia
6) Staring gaze with lid lag
7) Diarrhea & malabsorption
8) Oligomenorrhea
9) Bone resorption with hypercalcemia
10) Muscle mass wasting & weakness
11) Hypocholesterolemia
12) Hyperglycemia (increased gluconeogenesis & glycogenolysis)

A

Hyperthyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is a possible complication of hyperthyroidism (regarding the bones)?

A

Osteoporosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What causes Exophthalmos & Pretibial Myxedema in Graves disease?

A

Fibroblasts behind the orbit & overlying the shin express TSH receptors. When activated they cause a buildup of glycosaminoglycans (made of chondroitin sulfate & hyaluronic acid), inflammation, fibrosis, & edema leading to both exophthalmos & pretibial myxedema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Increased uptake of 131I aka hot nodule would indicate which 2 possible conditions?

A

Graves or a nodular goiter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

A type 2 hypersensitivity reaction where the body makes autoantibodies (IgG) that stimulate TSH receptors increasing thyroid hormone levels. It usually happens in women 20-40yrs & it’s the most common cause of hyperthyroidism.

Presents with:
1) Hyperthyroidism
2) Diffuse goiter
3) Exophthalmos & Pretibial myxedema

Histology shows:
1) irregular follicles with scalloped colloid
2) chronic inflammation in the thyroid gland

Labs show:
1) Elevated total & free T4
2) Hypocholesterolemia
3) Elevated serum glucose

Rx B-blockers, Thioamide, & Radioiodine ablation

Complication:
Thyroid storm

A

Graves disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Graves disease

What is it:

What are the symptoms:

What are the histological findings:

What are the lab findings:

What are the treatment options:

What is a complication of the condition:

A

A type 2 hypersensitivity reaction where the body makes autoantibodies (IgG) that stimulate TSH receptors increasing thyroid hormone levels. It usually happens in women 20-40yrs & it’s the most common cause of hyperthyroidism.

Presents with:
1) Hyperthyroidism
2) Diffuse goiter
3) Exophthalmos & Pretibial myxedema

Histology shows:
1) irregular follicles with scalloped colloid
2) chronic inflammation in the thyroid gland

Labs show:
1) Elevated total & free T4
2) Hypocholesterolemia
3) Elevated serum glucose

Rx B-blockers, Thioamide, & Radioiodine ablation

Complication:
Thyroid storm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is a thyroid storm?

What is it:

What are the symptoms:

What are the treatment options:

A

Elevated catecholamines & massive excess of hormones in response to stress. It presents as:
1) Arrythmia
2) Hyperthermia
3) Vomiting with hypovolemic shock

Treatment:
Propylthiouracil (reduces T4 conversion to T3), B-blockers, & steroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Elevated catecholamines & massive excess of hormones in response to stress. It presents as:
1) Arrythmia
2) Hyperthermia
3) Vomiting with hypovolemic shock

Treatment:
Propylthiouracil (reduces T4 conversion to T3), B-blockers, & steroids

A

Thyroid storm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is a multinodular goiter?

what is it:

What is a rare complication:

A

An enlarged thyroid gland with multiple nodules caused by iodine deficiency it is usually non-toxic (euthyroid)

Complication:
rarely progresses to a toxic goiter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

An enlarged thyroid gland with multiple nodules caused by iodine deficiency it is usually non-toxic (euthyroid)

Complication:
rarely progresses to a toxic goiter

A

Multinodular goiter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is a toxic goiter?

A

A rare complication of Multinodular goiter that occurs when regions of the thyroid can become TSH independent causing elevated T4 & hyperthyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

A rare complication of Multinodular goiter that occurs when regions of the thyroid can become TSH independent causing elevated T4 & hyperthyroidism

A

Toxic goiter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is cretinism?

What are the symptoms:

What are the causes:

A

Hypothyroidism in neonates or infants that presents as:

1) Mental retardation
2) Short stature & skeletal anomalies
3) Coarse facial features
4) Macroglossia (enlarged tongue)
5) Umbilical hernia

Causes:
1) Maternal hypothyroidism during early pregnancy

2) Thyroid agenesis (neonate/infant)

3) Dyshormonogenetic goiter (congenital issue with thyroid peroxidase)

4) Iodine deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Hypothyroidism in neonates or infants that presents as:

1) Mental retardation
2) Short stature & skeletal anomalies
3) Coarse facial features
4) Macroglossia (enlarged tongue)
5) Umbilical hernia

Causes:
1) Maternal hypothyroidism during early pregnancy

2) Thyroid agenesis (neonate/infant)

3) Dyshormonogenetic goiter (congenital issue with thyroid peroxidase)

4) Iodine deficiency

A

Cretinism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Hypothyroidism in adults & older children causing a lower BMR & reduced sympathetic activity

Presents with:
1) Weight gain (despite normal appetite)
2) Slowed mental activity
3) Muscle weakness
4) Cold intolerance & reduced sweating
5) Bradycardia with reduced CO (SOB)
6) Oligomenorrhea
7) Hypercholesterolemia
8) Constipation

It is most commonly caused by Iodine deficiency & Hashimoto’s thyroiditis. Other causes include drugs (lithium), surgery, & radio ablation of the thyroid

A

Myxedema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Myxedema

What is it:

What are the symptoms

What causes it:

A

Hypothyroidism in adults & older children causing a lower BMR & reduced sympathetic activity

Presents with:
1) Weight gain (despite normal appetite)
2) Slowed mental activity
3) Muscle weakness
4) Cold intolerance & reduced sweating
5) Bradycardia with reduced CO (SOB)
6) Oligomenorrhea
7) Hypercholesterolemia
8) Constipation

Causes:
Iodine deficiency & Hashimoto’s thyroiditis

Other causes include drugs (lithium), surgery, & radio ablation of the thyroid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Hashimoto thyroiditis

What is it:

What are the symptoms:

What are the histological findings:

What is a complication:

A

It is autoimmune destruction of the thyroid that is associated with an HLA-DR5 genotype. It is the most common cause of hypothyroidism in places with enough iodine

Presents with:
1) Starts as hyperthyroidism (because of follicle damage) that progresses to hypothyroidism (low T4 & high TSH)
2) Antithyroglobulin & Antithyroid peroxidase present (indicates thyroid damage)

Histology shows:
1) Chronic inflammation
2) Germinal centers
3) Hurthle cells

Complications:
A higher risk of B cell (marginal zone) lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

It is autoimmune destruction of the thyroid that is associated with an HLA-DR5 genotype. It is the most common cause of hypothyroidism in places with enough iodine

Presents with:
1) Starts as hyperthyroidism (because of follicle damage) that progresses to hypothyroidism (low T4 & high TSH)
2) Antithyroglobulin & Antithyroid peroxidase present (indicates thyroid damage)

Histology shows:
1) Chronic inflammation
2) Germinal centers
3) Hurthle cells

Complications:
A higher risk of B cell (marginal zone) lymphoma

A

Hashimoto thyroiditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What genotype is Hashimoto thyroiditis most commonly associated with?

A

HLA-DR5 genotype

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is subacute granulomatous (De Quervain) thyroiditis?

What is a complication:

A

Granulomatous thyroiditis after a viral infection. It is usually self limiting & presents as a tender thyroid with transient hyperthyroidism

A rare complication is that it can progress to hypothyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Granulomatous thyroiditis after a viral infection. It is usually self limiting & presents as a tender thyroid with transient hyperthyroidism

A rare complication is that it can progress to hypothyroidism

A

subacute granulomatous (De Quervain) thyroiditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is Riedel Fibrosing Thyroiditis?

A

It is chronic inflammation & fibrosis of the thyroid making it non-tender & “hard as wood”. It can mimin anaplastic carcinoma (but there’s no malignant cells & these patients are younger ~40yrs)

Complication, is that it can spread to local structures (airway)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

It is chronic inflammation & fibrosis of the thyroid making it non-tender & “hard as wood”. It can mimin anaplastic carcinoma (but there’s no malignant cells & these patients are younger ~40yrs)

Complication, is that it can spread to local structures (airway)

A

Riedel Fibrosing Thyroiditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Which conditions would have decreased uptake of 131I aka a cold nodule?

A

adenoma or carcinoma (biopsy is warranted)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What is a follicular adenoma?

A

Benign proliferation of the follicles surrounded by a fibrous capsule (usually non-functional but not always)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Benign proliferation of the follicles surrounded by a fibrous capsule (usually non-functional but not always)

A

Follicular adenoma

67
Q

papillary carcinoma?

A

The most common thyroid carcinoma that is usually caused by exposure to ionizing radiation during childhood.

Histology shows:
Papillae that are lined with clear “orphan Annie eye” nuclei, nuclear grooves, & psammoma bodies

Complications:
It tends to spread to cervical LN but it has an excellent prognosis

68
Q

The most common thyroid carcinoma that is usually caused by exposure to ionizing radiation during childhood.

Histology shows:
Papillae that are lined with clear “orphan Annie eye” nuclei, nuclear grooves, & psammoma bodies

Complications:
It tends to spread to cervical LN but it has an excellent prognosis

A

papillary carcinoma

69
Q

What is follicular carcinoma?

A

Malignant proliferation of the follicles surrounded by a fibrous capsule with INVASION through that capsule (islands). It usually metastasizes via the blood

70
Q

Malignant proliferation of the follicles surrounded by a fibrous capsule with INVASION through that capsule (islands). It usually metastasizes via the blood

A

follicular carcinoma

71
Q

What is MEN1?

A

Pituitary tumor
Parathyroid tumor
Pancreatic tumor

72
Q

Pituitary tumor
Parathyroid tumor
Pancreatic tumor

A

MEN1

73
Q

What is the MEN2 Type A tumor?

A

Due to RET oncogene mutations causing:
Parathyroid tumor
Pheochromocytoma
Medullary thyroid carcinoma

74
Q

Due to RET oncogene mutations causing:
Parathyroid tumor
Pheochromocytoma
Medullary thyroid carcinoma

A

MEN2 Type A tumor

75
Q

What is the MEN2 Type B?

A

Due to RET oncogene mutations causing:
Mucosal neuromas
Pheochromocytomas
Medullary thyroid carcinoma
Marfan habitus

76
Q

Due to RET oncogene mutations causing:
Mucosal neuromas
Pheochromocytomas
Medullary thyroid carcinoma
Marfan habitus

A

MEN2 Type B

77
Q

medullary carcinoma

What is it:

What are the histological findings:

What are the causes:

What are the treatment options:

A

Malignant proliferation of parafollicular C cells that secrete calcitonin (causes Ca2+ resorption from blood) causing hypocalcemia. The calcitonin often deposits into the tumor as amyloids

Histology shows:
Sheets of malignant cells in an amyloid stroma

Caused by:
MEN2A & MEN2B Ret oncogene mutations

Rx: Prophylactic thyroidectomy

78
Q

Malignant proliferation of parafollicular C cells that secrete calcitonin (causes Ca2+ resorption from blood) causing hypocalcemia. The calcitonin often deposits into the tumor as amyloids

Histology shows:
Sheets of malignant cells in an amyloid stroma

Caused by:
MEN2A & MEN2B Ret oncogene mutations

Rx: Prophylactic thyroidectomy

A

medullary carcinoma

79
Q

What is an anaplastic carcinoma?

A

An undifferentiated malignant tumor of the thyroid that is usually seen in the elderly, & it has a poor prognosis.

Complications come from it invading local structures leading to dysphagia or respiratory issues

80
Q

An undifferentiated malignant tumor of the thyroid that is usually seen in the elderly, & it has a poor prognosis.

Complications come from it invading local structures leading to dysphagia or respiratory issues

A

anaplastic carcinoma

81
Q

primary hyperparathyroidism?

What is it:

What are the symptoms:

What are the lab findings:

What is the treatment:

A

A disorder of the pancreas (usually an adenoma but less likely a carcinoma or sporadic hyperplasia of the parathyroid)

If caused by an adenoma it is usually benign & affects one gland presenting as:

1) Hypercalcemia
2) Nephrolithiasis (calcium oxalate)
3) Nephrocalcinosis (metastatic calcification of renal tubules)
4) Seizures/depression
5) Constipation, Peptic ulcer disease, Acute pancreatitis
6)Osteitis fibrosa cystica (bone resorption causes cystic spaces)

Labs show:
Elevated serum PTH, Ca2+, & alkaline phosphatase
Elevated urine cAMP
Reduced serum phosphate

Rx: Surgery

82
Q

A disorder of the pancreas (usually an adenoma but less likely a carcinoma or sporadic hyperplasia of the parathyroid)

If caused by an adenoma it is usually benign & affects one gland presenting as:

1) Hypercalcemia
2) Nephrolithiasis (calcium oxalate)
3) Nephrocalcinosis (metastatic calcification of renal tubules)
4) Seizures/depression
5) Constipation, Peptic ulcer disease, Acute pancreatitis
6)Osteitis fibrosa cystica (bone resorption causes cystic spaces)

Labs show:
Elevated serum PTH, Ca2+, & alkaline phosphatase
Elevated urine cAMP
Reduced serum phosphate

Rx: Surgery

A

primary hyperparathyroidism

83
Q

What are the lab values expected for Primary hyperthyroidism?

A

Labs show:
Elevated serum PTH, Ca2+, & alkaline phosphatase
Elevated urine cAMP
Reduced serum phosphate

84
Q

Labs show:
Elevated serum PTH, Ca2+, & alkaline phosphatase
Elevated urine cAMP
Reduced serum phosphate

A

lab values expected for Primary hyperthyroidism

85
Q

Secondary hyperparathyroidism

What is it:

What are the lab findings:

What is a complication:

A

Excess PTH production due to another disease/pathology. The most common cause is chronic renal disease which reduces phosphate excretion. The elevated serum phosphate binds free calcium triggering the release of more PTH

Labs show:
Elevated serum phosphate, PTH & alkaline phosphatase
Reduces serum Ca2+

Complication arises as renal osteodystrophy

86
Q

Excess PTH production due to another disease/pathology. The most common cause is chronic renal disease which reduces phosphate excretion. The elevated serum phosphate binds free calcium triggering the release of more PTH

Labs show:
Elevated serum phosphate, PTH & alkaline phosphatase
Reduces serum Ca2+

Complication arises as renal osteodystrophy

A

Secondary hyperparathyroidism

87
Q

hypothyroidism

What is it:

What are the symptoms:

What are the lab values:

A

Low PTH caused by autoimmune damage to the parathyroids, surgical excision, or Di George syndrome.

It presents as:
1) Numbness & Tingling
2) Muscle spasms (tetany) that can be triggered by an inflated BP cuff (trousseaus sign) or tapping the facial nerve (Chvostek sign)

Labs show:
Reduced PTH & serum Ca2+

88
Q

Low PTH caused by autoimmune damage to the parathyroids, surgical excision, or Di George syndrome.

It presents as:
1) Numbness & Tingling
2) Muscle spasms (tetany) that can be triggered by an inflated BP cuff (trousseaus sign) or tapping the facial nerve (Chvostek sign)

Labs show:
Reduced PTH & serum Ca2+

A

hypothyroidism

89
Q

What is pseudohypoparathyroidism?

What are the lab findings:

What are the symptoms:

A

End organ resistance to PTH that mimics the effects of regular hypoparathyroidism except PTH is actually elevated

Labs show:
Elevated PTH & Hypocalcemia

Signs:
Shorter stature & shorth 4th & 5th digits

90
Q

End organ resistance to PTH that mimics the effects of regular hypoparathyroidism except PTH is actually elevated

Labs show:
Elevated PTH & Hypocalcemia

Signs:
Shorter stature & shorth 4th & 5th digits

A

pseudohypoparathyroidism

91
Q

What is type 1 Diabetes Mellitus?

What are the symptoms:

What are the histological findings:

What is a complication:

A

Insulin deficiency caused by autoimmune destruction of Beta cells by T lymphocytes. It is associated with the HLA-DR3 & DR4 genotypes.

It presents as:
1) Hyperglycemia (high serum glucose)
2) Weight loss, Low muscle mass, & pOLYPHAGIA
3) Polyuria, Polydipsia, & Glucosuria

Histology shows:
Inflamed pancreatic islets & auto-antibodies against insulin (sign of damage)

Complication is Diabetic Ketoacidosis

92
Q

Insulin deficiency caused by autoimmune destruction of Beta cells by T lymphocytes. It is associated with the HLA-DR3 & DR4 genotypes.

It presents as:
1) Hyperglycemia (high serum glucose)
2) Weight loss, Low muscle mass, & pOLYPHAGIA
3) Polyuria, Polydipsia, & Glucosuria

Histology shows:
Inflamed pancreatic islets & auto-antibodies against insulin (sign of damage)

Complication is Diabetic Ketoacidosis

A

type 1 Diabetes Mellitus

93
Q

What is Diabetic Ketoacidosis?

What are the causes:

What are the symptoms:

What are the lab findings:

What are the treatment options:

A

A complication of diabetes (1) that results in excessive serum ketone levels.

causes
1) stress/infection causing epinephrine to stimulate glucagon to increase lipolysis making more FFAs. The liver turns FFAs into ketone bodies (B-hydroxybutyric acid & acetoacetic acid)

It presents as:
1) Fruity breath
2) Kussmaul respirations
3) N/V
4) Mental status changes

Labs show:
1) Hyperglycemia (>300mg/dL)
2) Anion gap metabolic acidosis
3) Hyperkalemia

Rx:
Fluids, insulin, & electrolytes

94
Q

A complication of diabetes (1) that results in excessive serum ketone levels.

It is usually triggered by stress/infection causing epinephrine to stimulate glucagon to increase lipolysis making more FFAs. The liver turns FFAs into ketone bodies (B-hydroxybutyric acid & acetoacetic acid)

It presents as:
1) Fruity breath
2) Kussmaul respirations
3) N/V
4) Mental status changes

Labs show:
1) Hyperglycemia (>300mg/dL)
2) Anion gap metabolic acidosis
3) Hyperkalemia

Rx:
Fluids, insulin, & electrolytes

A

Diabetic Ketoacidosis

95
Q

What is type 2 diabetes mellitus

What are the risk factors:

What are the symptoms:

What are the lab findings:

What are the complications:

What are the treatment options:

A

The most common form of diabetes. It is caused by end-organ resistance to insulin. It is usually seen in middle-aged obese adults & starts with elevated insulin levels until Beta cells become exhausted.

Risks include obesity (less insulin receptors) & genetics

It presents as:
1) Polyuria
2) Polydipsia
3) Hyperglycemia

Labs show:
Random glucose >200mg/dL
Fasted glucose >126mg/dL
Glucose tolerance test >200mg/dL 2hrs post glucose loading

Complication is a hyperosmolar non-ketotic coma

Rx:
Diet/exercise
Drugs (sulfonylurea & metformin)
Exogenous insulin

96
Q

The most common form of diabetes. It is caused by end-organ resistance to insulin. It is usually seen in middle-aged obese adults & starts with elevated insulin levels until Beta cells become exhausted.

Risks include obesity (less insulin receptors) & genetics

It presents as:
1) Polyuria
2) Polydipsia
3) Hyperglycemia

Labs show:
Random glucose >200mg/dL
Fasted glucose >126mg/dL
Glucose tolerance test >200mg/dL 2hrs post glucose loading

Complication is a hyperosmolar non-ketotic coma

Rx:
Diet/exercise
Drugs (sulfonylurea & metformin)
Exogenous insulin

A

Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus

97
Q

What is a hyperosmolar non-ketotic coma?

A

A complication of Diabetes (2) where blood glucose is over 500mg/dL which leads to life threatening diuresis, hypotension, & coma. There are NO ketones due to the low levels of circulating insulin.

98
Q

A complication of Diabetes (2) where blood glucose is over 500mg/dL which leads to life threatening diuresis, hypotension, & coma. There are NO ketones due to the low levels of circulating insulin.

A

hyperosmolar non-ketotic coma

99
Q

What is a long-term complication of diabetes?

A
  1. Non-enzymatic glycosylation of blood vessels:
  2. Osmotic damage
100
Q

Non-enzymatic glycosylation of large & medium blood vessels can result in which long term complications of diabetes?

A
  1. peripheral vascular disease (amputations)
  2. Atherosclerosis resulting in cardiovascular disease
101
Q

Non-enzymatic glycosylation of small blood vessels can result in which long term complications of diabetes?

A

1) Hyaline arteriosclerosis of the renal arteriole’s involvement leads to glomerulosclerosis causing small/scarred kidneys with a granular surface

2) Hyaline arteriosclerosis of the efferent renal arteriole involvement leads to glomerular hyperfiltration injury with microalbuminuria that progresses to nephrotic syndrome with Kimmelstiel-Wilson nodules in the glomeruli

102
Q

what is a marker of glycemic control?

A

Non-enzymatic glycosylation of hemoglobin produces glycated hemoglobin (HbA1c)

103
Q

Osmotic damage can result in which long term complications of diabetes?

A

Glucose can freely enter Schwann cells, Pericytes of retinal blood vessels, & the lens. Then aldose reductase converts glucose to sorbitol, resulting in:

1) osmotic damage
2) peripheral neuropathy
3) impotence
4) blindness/cataracts

104
Q

What is an insulinoma?

What are the symptoms:

What are the lab values:

What is the treatment:

A

a pancreatic endocrine tumor of the islet cells that is usually due to MEN1.

It presents with
1) Episodic hypoglycemia
2) Mental status changes

Labs show:
Reduced Serum glucose <50mg/dL
Elevated Insulin & C-peptide

Rx: Give glucose

105
Q

a pancreatic endocrine tumor of the islet cells that is usually due to MEN1.

It presents with
1) Episodic hypoglycemia
2) Mental status changes

Labs show:
Reduced Serum glucose <50mg/dL
Elevated Insulin & C-peptide

Rx: Give glucose

A

insulinoma

106
Q

Labs show:
Reduced Serum glucose <50mg/dL
Elevated Insulin & C-peptide

A

Insulinoma

107
Q

What is a gastrinoma?

A

a pancreatic endocrine tumor of the islet cells that is usually due to MEN1.

It presents with
1) Peptic ulcers that are resistant to treatment (Zollinger-Ellison syndrome) that can be multiple & in the jejunum

108
Q

a pancreatic endocrine tumor of the islet cells that is usually due to MEN1.

It presents with
1) Peptic ulcers that are resistant to treatment (Zollinger-Ellison syndrome) that can be multiple & in the jejunum

A

Gastrinoma

109
Q

What is a Somatostatinoma?

A

A pancreatic endocrine tumor of the islet cells that is usually due to MEN1, that inhibits gastrin & cholecystokinin.

Presents with:
1) Achlorhydria (inhibited gastrin)
2) Cholelithiasis & Steatorrhea
(inhibited cholecystokinin)

110
Q

A pancreatic endocrine tumor of the islet cells that is usually due to MEN1, that inhibits gastrin & cholecystokinin.

Presents with:
1) Achlorhydria (inhibited gastrin)
2) Cholelithiasis & Steatorrhea
(inhibited cholecystokinin)

A

Somatostatinoma

111
Q

What is a VIPoma?

A

A pancreatic endocrine tumor of the islet cells that secretes vasoactive intestinal peptide. It is usually due to MEN1.

It presents with:
1) Watery diarrhea
2) Hypokalemia
3) Achlorhydria

112
Q

A pancreatic endocrine tumor of the islet cells that secretes vasoactive intestinal peptide. It is usually due to MEN1.

It presents with:
1) Watery diarrhea
2) Hypokalemia
3) Achlorhydria

A

VIPoma

113
Q

What is Hyperaldosteronism?

What are the symptoms:

What is the diagnostic test:

What are the treatment options:

A

When the glomerulosa produces excess aldosterone which acts on the CCT & DCT to increase Na+ & K+ absorption. It can be primary (low renin & no edema) or secondary (high renin & edema).

It presents as:
1) HTN
2) Hypokalemia
3) Metabolic alkalosis

Diagnosed via CT

Rx: Mineralcorticoid receptor antagonist or surgery to remove an adenoma or carcinoma

114
Q

When the glomerulosa produces excess aldosterone which acts on the CCT & DCT to increase Na+ & K+ absorption. It can be primary (low renin & no edema) or secondary (high renin & edema).

It presents as:
1) HTN
2) Hypokalemia
3) Metabolic alkalosis

Diagnosed via CT

Rx: Mineralcorticoid receptor antagonist or surgery to remove an adenoma or carcinoma

A

Hyperaldosteronism

115
Q

What is primary hyperaldosteronism?

A

It is usually due to bilateral adrenal hyperplasia or adrenal adenoma (ex. Conn syndrome) or very rarely adrenal carcinoma.

Rx: Mineralcorticoid receptor antagonist or surgery to remove an adenoma or carcinoma

116
Q

What is secondary hyperaldosteronism?

A

It happens because of the RAAS activation due to renovascular HTN & CHF

117
Q

It happens because of the RAAS activation due to renovascular HTN & CHF

A

secondary hyperaldosteronism

118
Q

It is usually due to bilateral adrenal hyperplasia or adrenal adenoma (ex. Conn syndrome) or very rarely adrenal carcinoma.

Rx: Mineralcorticoid receptor antagonist or surgery to remove an adenoma or carcinoma

A

primary hyperaldosteronism

119
Q

What is Glucocorticoid -remedial aldosteronism (GRA)?

What are the symptoms:

What is the treatment:

A

A autosomal dominant mutation that leads to familial hyperaldosteronism due to the aberrant expression of aldosterone synthase in the fasciculata.

It classically presents as a child with:
1) HTN
2) Hypokalemia
3) Elevated Aldosteronism
4) Low renin

Rx: Dexamethasone

120
Q

A autosomal dominant mutation that leads to familial hyperaldosteronism due to the aberrant expression of aldosterone synthase in the fasciculata.

It classically presents as a child with:
1) HTN
2) Hypokalemia
3) Elevated Aldosteronism
4) Low renin

Rx: Dexamethasone

A

Glucocorticoid -remedial aldosteronism (GRA)

121
Q

What is Liddle Syndrome?

What are the symptoms:

What are the treatment options:

A

An autosomal dominant mutation that mimics hyperaldosteronism that decreases degradation of sodium channels in the CCT (hypernatremia)

It classically presents in children as:
1) HTN
2) Hypokalemia
3) Metabolic acidosis
4) Low Renin & Low Aldosterone

Rx: Give K+ sparring diuretics (amiloride or triamterene) to block Na+ channels in the CCT

122
Q

An autosomal dominant mutation that mimics hyperaldosteronism that decreases degradation of sodium channels in the CCT (hypernatremia)

It classically presents in children as:
1) HTN
2) Hypokalemia
3) Metabolic acidosis
4) Low Renin & Low Aldosterone

Rx: Give K+ sparring diuretics (amiloride or triamterene) to block Na+ channels in the CCT

A

Liddle Syndrome

123
Q

What is SAME (Syndrome of Apparent Mineralcorticoid Excess)?

What are the symptoms:

What is the diagnostic test:

A

An autosomal recessive mutation that mimics hyperaldosteronism. It results in 11B-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase 2 (11B-HSD2) deficiency which allows cortisol to activate renal aldosterone receptors.

It classically presents in children as:
1) HTN
2) Hypokalemia
3) Metabolic alkalosis
4) Low Renin & Low Aldosteronism

Tests: Low urine free cortisone

124
Q

An autosomal recessive mutation that mimics hyperaldosteronism. It results in 11B-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase 2 (11B-HSD2) deficiency which allows cortisol to activate renal aldosterone receptors.

It classically presents in children as:
1) HTN
2) Hypokalemia
3) Metabolic alkalosis
4) Low Renin & Low Aldosteronism

Tests: Low urine free cortisone

A

SAME (Syndrome of Apparent Mineralcorticoid Excess)

125
Q

What is Cushing syndrome?

What are the symptoms:

What are the lab findings:

What are the diagnostic tests:

A

A condition with excessive cortisol production (fasciculata) that can be caused by adrenal lesions or adrenal tumors.

It presents as:
1) Muscle weakness/thin extremities
2) Moon face & Buffalo hump
3) Truncal obesity
4) Purple abdominal striae
5) HTN with hypokalemia & metabolic alkalosis
6) Osteoporosis
7) Immunosuppression

Labs show:
1) Elevated 24hr urine cortisol & late night salivary cortisol level
2) Low dose dexamethasone suppression test

ACTH test:
ACTH-independent means it is due to a lesion
ACTH-dependent means it is due to a tumor

126
Q

A condition with excessive cortisol production (fasciculata) that can be caused by adrenal lesions or adrenal tumors.

It presents as:
1) Muscle weakness/thin extremities
2) Moon face & Buffalo hump
3) Truncal obesity
4) Purple abdominal striae
5) HTN with hypokalemia & metabolic alkalosis
6) Osteoporosis
7) Immunosuppression

Labs show:
1) Elevated 24hr urine cortisol & late night salivary cortisol level
2) Low dose dexamethasone suppression test

ACTH test:
ACTH-independent means it is due to a lesion
ACTH-dependent means it is due to a tumor

A

Cushing syndrome

127
Q

ACTH-independent means it is due to a _____
ACTH-dependent means it is due to a _____

A

ACTH independent = adrenal lesion
ACTH dependent = ACTH secreting pituitary tumor

128
Q

What are the lab findings you would expect to see in a patient with Cushing’s?

A

Labs show:
1) Elevated 24hr urine cortisol & late night salivary cortisol level
2) Low dose dexamethasone suppression test

129
Q

Labs show:
1) Elevated 24hr urine cortisol & late night salivary cortisol level
2) Low dose dexamethasone suppression test

A

Cushing’s

130
Q

Distinguishing the cause of Cushing’s

Usually due to an Iatrogenic cause:
Low ACTH
No imaging
No response to dexamethasone suppression test

A

Exogenous glucocorticoids

131
Q

Distinguishing the cause of Cushing’s

Elevated ACTH & Androgens
Suppression with high dose of dexamethasone
Adenoma on imaging

A

Pituitary adenoma

132
Q

Distinguishing the cause of Cushing’s

Very high ACTH
Excessive Androgens
Hyperpigmentation
No suppression to a high dose of dexamethasone
Surgical resection is needed

A

Ectopic ACTH secretion i.e Small cell carcinoma or carcinoma

133
Q

Distinguishing the cause of Cushing’s

Low ACTH
No response to high dose dexamethasone
Imaging shows a mass on adrenal gland
Surgical resection is needed

A

Primary adrenal adenoma, hyperplasia, or carcinoma

134
Q

What is Congenital adrenal hyperplasia?

A

An autosomal recessive condition that causes enzymatic defects in cortisol production. These include:
21-Hydroxylase deficiency
11-Hydroxylase deficiency
17-Hydroxylase deficiency

135
Q

An autosomal recessive condition that causes enzymatic defects in cortisol production. These include:
21-Hydroxylase deficiency
11-Hydroxylase deficiency
17-Hydroxylase deficiency

Describes which condition?

A

Congenital adrenal hyperplasia

136
Q

What is 21-Hydroxylase deficiency?

What are the lab findings:

What are the symptoms:

What is the non-classical presentation:

A

The most common deficiency caused by congenital adrenal hyperplasia (auto rec).

Labs show:
Low Aldosterone & Low Cortisol
Elevated Androgens

It classically presents in neonates as:
1) Hyponatremia
2) Hyperkalemia
3) Life-threatening hypotension (salt-wasting type)
4) Clitoral enlargement in females (genital ambiguity)

Non-classically it presents later in life with excess androgens:
1) Precocious puberty in males
2) Hirsutism with menstrual irregularities in females

137
Q

The most common deficiency caused by congenital adrenal hyperplasia (auto rec).

Labs show:
Low Aldosterone & Low Cortisol
Elevated Androgens

It classically presents in neonates as:
1) Hyponatremia
2) Hyperkalemia
3) Life-threatening hypotension (salt-wasting type)
4) Clitoral enlargement in females (genital ambiguity)

Non-classically it presents later in life with excess androgens:
1) Precocious puberty in males
2) Hirsutism with menstrual irregularities in females

A

21-Hydroxylase deficiency

138
Q

What is the non-classical presentation of 21-Hydroxylase deficiency?

A

Non-classically it presents later in life with excess androgens:
1) Precocious puberty in males
2) Hirsutism with menstrual irregularities in females

139
Q

What is the classical presentation of 11-Hydroxylase deficiency?

A

A result of congenital adrenal hyperplasia that results in excessive androgens & weak mineralocorticoid (DOC aka Deoxycorticosterone).

140
Q

A result of congenital adrenal hyperplasia that results in excessive androgens & weak mineralocorticoid (DOC aka Deoxycorticosterone).

It classically presents as:
1) HTN (Na+ retention)
2) Mild hypokalemia
3) Low renin & Low Aldosterone
4) Clitoral enlargement

A

11-Hydroxylase deficiency

141
Q

How does 11-Hydroxylase deficiency classically present as?

A

It classically presents as:
1) HTN (Na+ retention)
2) Mild hypokalemia
3) Low renin & Low Aldosterone
4) Clitoral enlargement

142
Q

What is 17-Hydroxylase deficiency?

A

It leads to reduced cortisol levels & androgens.

It presents with:
1) HTN
2) Mild hypokalemia
3) Low renin & Low aldosterone
4) Primary amenorrhea & no pubic hair
5) Ambiguous genitalia with undescended testes

143
Q

It leads to reduced cortisol levels & androgens.

It presents with:
1) HTN
2) Mild hypokalemia
3) Low renin & Low aldosterone
4) Primary amenorrhea & no pubic hair
5) Ambiguous genitalia with undescended testes

A

17-Hydroxylase deficiency

144
Q

It presents with:
1) HTN
2) Mild hypokalemia
3) Low renin & Low aldosterone
4) Primary amenorrhea & no pubic hair
5) Ambiguous genitalia with undescended testes

A

17-Hydroxylase deficiency

145
Q

Newborns are screened for Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia by evaluating the levels of 17-Hydroxyprogesterone

If elevated it indicates ________

A

Increased 21 & 11 Hydroxylase deficiency

146
Q

Newborns are screened for Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia by evaluating the levels of 17-Hydroxyprogesterone

If reduced it indicates ________

A

17 hydroxylase deficiency

147
Q

21 Hydroxylase deficiency is treated with what?

A

Glucocorticoids

148
Q

17 Hydroxylase deficiency is treated with what?

A

Sex steroids

149
Q

What is acute adrenal insufficiency?

A

An acute insufficiency of adrenal hormones that presents as weakness & shock

It has multiple causes:
1) Abrupt withdrawal from glucocorticoids
2) Receiving treatment for Cushing’s
3) Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome

150
Q

An acute insufficiency of adrenal hormones that presents as weakness & shock

It has multiple causes:
1) Abrupt withdrawal from glucocorticoids
2) Receiving treatment for Cushing’s
3) Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome

Rx: gluco & mineralo corticoids

A

acute adrenal insufficiency

151
Q

What is Waterhouse Friderichsen syndrome & what adrenal-specific condition can it lead to?

A

It is hemorrhagic necrosis of the adrenal glands classically due to sepsis or DIC in young children with an N. meningitidis infection. It can cause acute adrenal insufficiency

152
Q

It is hemorrhagic necrosis of the adrenal glands classically due to sepsis or DIC in young children with an N. meningitidis infection. It can cause acute adrenal insufficiency

A

Waterhouse Friderichsen syndrome

153
Q

What is Addisons disease?

A

aka chronic adrenal insufficiency, it usually arises in conditions that lead to progressive adrenal damage (autoimmune, TB, Metastatic carcinoma (lung), secondary (Pituitary) or tertiary (hypothalamus)

154
Q

aka chronic adrenal insufficiency, it usually arises in conditions that lead to progressive adrenal damage (autoimmune, TB, Metastatic carcinoma (lung), secondary (Pituitary) or tertiary (hypothalamus)

It presents as vague/progressive symptoms:
1) Hypotension
2) Fatigue/weakness
3) N/V/Weight-loss

Labs show:

  1. Hyperpigmentation (high ACTH) & Hypokalemia (low Aldosterone) indicates the cause as primary adrenal insufficiency
  2. No ACTH response to Metyrapone stimulation suggests secondary or tertiary causes
  3. ACTH responses to CRH stimulation indicated tertiary cause (hypothalamus-related)
A

Addisons disease

155
Q

What does Hyperpigmentation (high ACTH) & Hypokalemia (low Aldosterone) in Addison’s disease indicate?

A

the cause as primary adrenal insufficiency

156
Q

What does No ACTH response to Metyrapone stimulation suggest?

A

It can be due to secondary or tertiary causes

157
Q

What does ACTH responses to CRH stimulation indicate?

A

A tertiary cause (hypothalamus-related)

158
Q

What is a pheochromocytoma?

A

A tumor of chromaffin cells that episodically release catecholamines.
It is associated with genotypes MEN2A/2B, Von Hipple Lindau & Neurofibrosis type 1

159
Q

How is malignancy defined in pheochromocytomas?

A

By metastatic spread

160
Q

A tumor of chromaffin cells that episodically release catecholamines.
It is associated with genotypes MEN2A/2B, Von Hipple Lindau & Neurofibrosis type 1

It presents as:
1) HTN
2) Headaches
3) Palpitations
4) Tachycardia
5) Sweating

Labs show:
Elevated catecholamines in the serum/urine

Rx: Adrenalectomy

A

pheochromocytoma

161
Q

What is the rule of 10 regarding a pheochromocytoma?

A

10% are bilateral, familial, malignant, or outside the adrenal medulla

162
Q

It presents as:
1) HTN
2) Headaches
3) Palpitations
4) Tachycardia
5) Sweating

A

pheochromocytoma

163
Q
A