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Micro Final > 2009 Exam > Flashcards

2009 Exam Flashcards

1
Q

________________________________ is an organism that produces very little surface colony and appears as a zone of complete hemolysis that can be enhanced by removing a plug of agar under the colony

A

Brachyspira hyodysenteriae

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2
Q

________________________________ is the only rickettsial organism that multiplies in the intestinal epithelium of mammals

A

Neorickettsia risticii

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3
Q

________________________________ is the only dermatophyte that produces a metabolic byproduct that fluoresces when exposed to UV light

A

Microsporum canis

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4
Q

________________________________ is an obligate intramammary pathogen of cattle.

A

Streptococcus agalactiae

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5
Q

_____________________ is a term that denotes the ability of an organism to move through a viscous substrate such as mucus.

A

Viscotaxis

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6
Q

____________________ is the basic taxonomic unit used to identify the members of the genus Leptospira.

A

Serovariety

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7
Q

__________________________ is the site of primary multiplication of leptospires (first week of infection).

A

liver

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8
Q

_______________________ is the major clinical manifestation of leptospirosis in cattle

A

Abortion

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9
Q

___________ is the primary cell type infected by members of the genus Rickettsia.

A

Vascular endothelium

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10
Q

__________________ are produced by Fusarium roseum and F. tricinctum and primarily cause a Afeed-refusal syndrome

A

Tricothecenes

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11
Q

_____________________ is a heterotroph that can live on dead or decaying organic matter

A

Saprophyte

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12
Q

_______________________ is the Fc-receptor protein of Staphylococcus aureus

A

Protein A

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13
Q

______________________ is the name of a protein antigen that is of major importance in development of resistance to Group A streptococci

A

M-Protein

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14
Q

______________________ and __________________________ are the two Staphylococcus aureus enzymes that are most closely correlated with pathogenicity

A

Coagulase and DNase

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15
Q

_________________________________ is an organism that is harbored in the intestinal tracts of animals and causes mesenteric lymphadenitis and severe enterocolitis in humans that can sometimes mimic appendicitis.

A

Yersinia enterocolitica

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16
Q

______________________ is a bacterial genus that may be able to fuse with host cell membranes and thus exchange antigens with those membranes

A

Mycoplasma

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17
Q

________________________________ is the organism that commonly invades burn wounds and can ultimately cause the death of the patient.

A

Mycoplasma

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18
Q

_________________________________ is the organism that commonly invades burn wounds and can ultimately cause the death of the patient

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

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19
Q

_________________________________ is the cause of glanders in solipeds.

A

Burkholderia mallei

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20
Q

_________________________________ is the cause of melioidosis

A

Burkholderia pseudomallei

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21
Q

_________________________________ is the cause of columnaris disease of catfish.

A

Flavobacterium columnare

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22
Q

_________________________________ is the cause of coldwater disease of adult freshwater salmon and trout and rainbow trout fry syndrome

A

Flavobacterium psychrophilum

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23
Q

_____________________ is the name of the disease in water buffalo, bison and cattle that is caused by Pasteurella multocida types B and E

A

Hemorrhagic septicemia

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24
Q

_________________________________ has been associated with severe respiratory disease in adult cattle especially in the western U.S., respiratory disease in goats and septicemia in lambs

A

Bibersteinia trehalosi

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25
Q

_________________________________ is the cause of granulomatous, tumor-like lesions in the soft tissues of the head and neck of cattle

A

Actinobacillus lignieresii

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26
Q

_________________________________ is an organism that causes fatal, acute septicemia in 1- to 8-week-old pigs and is also recognized as a cause of arthritis, pneumonia and subcutaneous abscesses.

A

Actinobacillus suis

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27
Q

_________________________________ is a respiratory tract pathogen of cattle that produces LOS instead of LPS, has one or more Fc-receptor proteins and releases RNA components.

A

Histophilus somni

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28
Q

_________________________________ is the cause of rhinotracheitis or coryza in turkey poults.

A

Bordetella avium

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29
Q

___________________ is a clostridial toxin that blocks the release of glycine and gamma-aminobutyric acid at the level of the spinal cord and brainstem resulting in spastic paralysis.

A

Tetanospasmin

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30
Q

_________________________________ is the cause of blackleg in ruminants.

A

Clostridium chauvoei

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31
Q

_________________________________ is the cause of ulcerative colitis (quail disease) in birds

A

Clostridium colinum

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32
Q

_________________________________ is the cause of proliferative enteritis in pigs, foals, hamsters and possibly other animal species

A

Lawsonia intracellularis

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33
Q

What allows Clostridium botulinum to survive the processing of foods?

A

It forms spores which are resistant to heat

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34
Q

Why do we need to treat botulism with polyvalent antitoxin?

A

Because there are a number of serologically distinct toxins and the clinical signs are roughly the same

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35
Q

List the four major mycotoxins

A

Aflatoxin
ochratoxin
zearalenone
Ergot alkaloids

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36
Q

What is the method of action of Cholera Toxin?

A

Increases cAMP inside of target cells

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37
Q

What is the method of action of Edema Factor? (B.anthracis)

A

Increases cAMP inside of target cells

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38
Q

What is the method of action of Lekotoxin (M. hemolytica)

A

Forms pores in target cell membranes

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39
Q

What is the method of action of TSST1 (Staph aureus)

A

Acts as a superantigen

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40
Q

What is the method of action of Listeriolysin-O

A

Destabilizes and lyses the phagosomal membrane

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41
Q

What is the method of action of ApX1

A

Forms pores in target cell membranes

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42
Q

What is the method of action of LT toxin (E.coli)

A

Increases cAMP inside of target cells

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43
Q

What is the method of action of Edema Disease (E.coli)

A

Inhibits protein synthesis by NAD-dependent ADP-ribosylation of elongation factor 2.

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44
Q

What is the method of action of Streptolysin O

A

Destabilizes and lyses cell membranes by sequestering membrane cholesterol

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45
Q

What is the method of action of Phospholipase C

A

Hydrolyzes glycerophospholipids and sphingolipids in cell membranes

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46
Q

What is the method of action of Sulfonamides

A

Compete with para-aminobenzoic acid in folic acid synthesis

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47
Q

What is the method of action of 4-Fluoroquinolones

A

Inhibit DNA synthesis by inhibiting DNA gyrase A

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48
Q

What is the method of action of Penicillin

A

Bind to bacterial transpeptidases and block crossbridging in peptidoglycan

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49
Q

What is the method of action of Cephalosporins

A

Bind to bacterial transpeptidases and block crossbridging in peptidoglycan

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50
Q

What is the normal habitat of Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

A

. Intestinal tracts of swine, turkeys and many other animals

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51
Q

What is the normal habitat of Mycobacterium avium

A

Soil and intestinal tracts of birds

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52
Q

What is the normal habitat of Rhodococcus equi

A

Intestinal tracts of foals and soil

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53
Q

What is the normal habitat of Nocardia asteroides

A

Soil

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54
Q

What is the normal habitat of Listeria monocytogenes

A

Plant material and intestinal tracts of herbivores

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55
Q

What is the normal habitat of Mycoplasma bovoculi

A

Ocular mucosa of cattle.

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56
Q

What is the normal habitat of Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis

A

Soil and skin of sheep and goats

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57
Q

What is the normal habitat of Dermatophilus congolensis

A

Soil

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58
Q

Bacteria that are most likely to be phagocytosed are:

a. Relatively hydrophobic
b. Relatively hydrophilic
c. Heavily encapsulated
d. Have a complex O-Antigen
e. Have a simple O-Antigen

A

Relatively hydrophobic

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59
Q

PPD tuberculins are usually preferred because:

a. Give fewer cross-reactions (are more specific) than other types of tuberculins.
b. They are more standardized than other types of tuberculins.
c. They have the extra benefit of immunizing those who are negative on the tuberculin tests.
d. Only a and b above.
e. Only b and c above

A

d. Only a and b above
a. Give fewer cross-reactions (are more specific) than other types of tuberculins.
b. They are more standardized than other types of tuberculins.

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60
Q

The virulence-associated protein A (VapA) is thought to be important in the immune response to:

a. Streptocococcus equi
b. Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis var. Equi
c. Rhodococcus equi
d. Streptococcus suis
e. Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

A

c. Rhodococcus equi

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61
Q

In which of the following does Arcanobacterium pyogenes NOT play an important role?

a. Post-partum metritis in cattle
b. Foot-rot in cattle
c. Liver abscesses in feedlot cattle
d. Subcutaneous abscesses in cattle.
e. Chronic, abscessing mastitis in cattle

A

Liver abscesses in feedlot cattle

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62
Q

The commonly used modified-live vaccine used to immunize against Bacillus anthracis infection:

a. Lacks the genes for the capsule.
b. Lacks the genes for the PA antigen.
c. Lacks the genes for the EF antigen.
d. Lacks the genes for the LF antigen.
e. None of the above.

A

Lacks the genes for the capsule

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63
Q

Pathogenic members of the genus Leptospira are cleared from the blood 10 to 12 days following infection because:

a. The host generates a CMI response by that time and is able to kill the organisms.
b. The host generates an antibody response by that time and the antibody restricts the organisms to areas that are immunologically privileged.
c. The organism causes enough tissue damage by that time that defensins, lysozyme and other natural defense mechanisms are able to clear it.
d. The organism undergoes antigenic shifting and becomes naturally avirulent.
e. None of the above.

A

The host generates an antibody response by that time and the antibody restricts the organisms to areas that are immunologically privileged.

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64
Q

Which of the following is a soil saprophyte commonly found in decaying wood?

a. Coccidioides immitis
b. Histoplasma capsulatum
c. Cryptococcus neoformans
d. Blastomyces dermatitidis
e. Trichophyton equinum

A

Blastomyces dermatitidis

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65
Q

Which of the following is most commonly found in low-lying areas near reservoirs and dams?

a. Coccidioides immitis
b. Histoplasma capsulatum
c. Cryptococcus neoformans
d. Blastomyces dermatitidis
e. Aspergillus flavus

A

d. Blastomyces dermatitidis

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66
Q

Which of the following has a strong predilection to infect neural tissue?

a. Coccidioides immitis
b. Histoplasma capsulatum variety farciminosum
c. Cryptococcus neoformans
d. Blastomyces dermatitidis
e. Sporothrix schenckii

A

c. Cryptococcus neoformans

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67
Q

Which of the following is has been recovered commonly from rotting portions of trees that are contaminated with feces, insect parts and other debris?

a. Coccidioides immitis
b. Histoplasma capsulatum
c. Cryptococcus neoformans
d. Blastomyces dermatitidis
e. Microsporum canis

A

c. Cryptococcus neoformans

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68
Q

Which of the following is commonly associated with bat feces and bird droppings?

a. Coccidioides immitis
b. Histoplasma capsulatum
c. Cryptococcus neoformans
d. Blastomyces dermatitidis
e. Cladosporium species

A

b. Histoplasma capsulatum

69
Q

Which of the following has a yeast form that is commonly found in circulating phagocytes of clinically infected hosts. Which of the following is commonly associated with bat feces and bird droppings?

a. Coccidioides immitis
b. Histoplasma capsulatum
c. Cryptococcus neoformans
d. Blastomyces dermatitidis
e. Cladosporium species

A

b. Histoplasma capsulatum

70
Q

Which of the following is a Biosafety level 3 pathogen transmitted to the respiratory tract by readily aerosolized arthrospores.

a. Coccidioides immitis
b. Histoplasma capsulatum variety farciminosum
c. Cryptococcus neoformans
d. Blastomyces dermatitidis
e. Sporothrix schenckii

A

a. Coccidioides immitis

71
Q

Which of the following is commonly found on woody plant material and is transmitted by traumatic introduction?

a. Coccidioides immitis
b. Histoplasma capsulatum variety farciminosum
c. Cryptococcus neoformans
d. Blastomyces dermatitidis
e. Sporothrix schenckii

A

e. Sporothrix schenckii

72
Q

The major cell type involved in the adverse reaction to endotoxin is:

a. Polymorphonuclear leukocyte
b. Macrophage
c. Eosinophil
d. Mast cell
e. RBC

A

b. Macrophage

73
Q

T or F Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus are not a concern for veterinarians.

A

false

74
Q

T or F PCR of the urine has become increasingly available for diagnosis of leptospirosis, especially in the canine species

A

True

75
Q

T or F Leptospirosis should be included in the list of differentials if humans develop a febrile illness within one month of being involved in a flood or flood cleanup

A

True

76
Q

T or F Recent data indicate that 1/3 of human leptospira infections come from dogs and 1/3 come from rats

A

True

77
Q

T or F We commonly vaccinate feeder pigs against Brachyspira hyodysenteriae

A

False

78
Q

T or F Intestinal spirochetes are common but very few have been associated with disease.

A

True

79
Q

T or F Erythema chronicum migrans is the name of the rash that occurs in about 80% of individuals within the first month following infection with Borrelia burgdorferi

A

True

80
Q

T or F Ixodes scapularis is the only species of tick known to reliably transmit Borrelia burgdorferi

A

False

81
Q

T or F The human Lyme disease vaccine was pulled off the market and critics claimed that it caused Aodd and damaging side effects@.

A

True

82
Q

T or F Many human cases of rat-bite fever are characterized by a chronic relapsing illness with episodes of fever and chills that subside within 36 hours, only to recur in 3 to 9 days.

A

True

83
Q

T or F Streptobacillus moniliformis and Spirillum minus are both causes of rat-bite fever.

A

True

84
Q

T or F Haverhill fever is similar to rat-bite fever except that GI and respiratory signs are more common and transmission is through ingestion rather than a bite wound.

A

True

85
Q

T or F Birds that recover from infections with Chlamydophila psittaci infection can shed the organism in their feces for a very long time and possibly for life.

A

True

86
Q

T or F The primary route of transmission for Chlamydophila psittaci in birds is via the respiratory tract by breathing dust contaminated with feces

A

True

87
Q

T or F Most cases of Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever are reported from the southeastern region of the U.S.

A

True

88
Q

T or F Coxiella burnetii is most commonly transmitted to humans via ticks and is most commonly found in hunters, hikers and others that spend a lot of time outdoors.

A

False

89
Q

T or F PCR is the currently recommend method for diagnosis of Potomac Horse Fever.

A

True

90
Q

T or F Bovine anaplasmosis can only be transmitted through vectors such as ticks and biting flies

A

False

91
Q

T or F The anemia seen in bovine anaplasmosis is due to clearance of RBC=s damaged by infection with the organism and anti-erythrocyte antibody that is generated by the host

A

True

92
Q

T or F Complex polysaccharide and protein antigens are T-cell dependent and the immune response is therefore restricted to the IgM isotype of antibody

A

False

93
Q

T or F Bacterial antigens that are broken down to antigenic peptides in the phagolysosome of macrophages are said to be exogenously processed

A

True

94
Q

T or F An autogenous bacterin is an immunizing product generated from a bacterial isolate obtained from the herd to be immunized

A

True

95
Q

T or F Capsule and toxin production in Bacillus anthracis are dependent on the presence of two large plasmids.

A

True

96
Q

T or F Pyelonephritis in both cattle and swine usually require some type of predisposing factor.

A

True

97
Q

T or F Infection with Nocardia asteroides usually requires some type of predisposing factor such as immunosuppression or traumatic introduction of the organism into tissues.

A

True

98
Q

T or F Mycobacterium avium subspecies paratuberculosis can remain viable in soil and feces for up to 9 months

A

True

99
Q

T or F E. coli STb toxin is more commonly involved in post-weaning scours in pigs.

A

True

100
Q

T or F F18 fimbria are essential for the production of edema disease in swine.

A

True

101
Q

T or F Klebsiella pneumoniae is a good recipient for R-factors (antimicrobial resistance genes

A

True

102
Q

T or F Bibersteinia trehalosi isolates have the same leukotoxin as Mannheimia haemolytica

A

True

103
Q

T or F Respiratory disease in sheep and goats is caused by multiple serotypes of Mannheimia haemolytica whereas disease in cattle is almost always serotype A1

A

True

104
Q

T or F Actinobacillus suis and Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae produce apparently identical Apx1 and Apx2 toxins

A

True

105
Q

T or F Haemophilus parasuis is commonly found in the nasopharynx of many normal swine and is transmitted to piglets at a young age

A

True

106
Q

T or F Haemophilus parasuis commonly causes disease in young piglets without requiring any predisposing factors or stresses

A

False

107
Q

T or F Contagious equine metritis has been eradicated from the U.S.

A

False

108
Q

T or F Francisella tularensis biovar tularensis is only found in the Scandinavian countries whereas biovar palaearctica is found in most of the countries in the northern hemisphere

A

False

109
Q

T or F So-called Adecending@ tetanus is much more common than Aascending@ tetanus

A

True

110
Q

What causes Syphilis in Humans

A

Treponema pallidum subspecies pallidum

111
Q

___________ causes Cat scratch disease in ___________

A

Bartonella henselae

Humans

112
Q

___________ causes Enzootic abortion in sheep

A

Chlamydophila abortus

113
Q

___________ causes conjunctivitis and rhinitis in kittens

A

Chlamydiophila felis

114
Q

___________ causes trachoma, (keratoconjunctivitis) in humans

A

Chlamydia trachomatis biovar 2

115
Q

___________ causes epidemic typhus in humans

A

Ricketsia prowazekii

116
Q

___________ causes ehrlichiosis i, terminal pancytopenia in digs

A

Ehrlichia canis

117
Q

___________ causes potomac horse fever in horses

A

Neorickettsia risticii

118
Q

___________ causes north american blastomycosis in dogs, humans, and cats

A

Blastomyces dermatitidis

119
Q

___________ causes chromomycosis in a wide variety of animals

A

Curvularia

120
Q

___________ causes zygomycosis in a wide variety of animals

A

Mucor

121
Q

___________ causes club lamb fungus

A

Trichophyton verrucosum

122
Q

___________ causes pneumonia in penguins

A

Aspergillus fumigatus

123
Q

___________ is the causes of sporothricosis in dogs, humans, horses

A

Sporothrix schneckii

124
Q

___________ is the cause of salmon poisoning in digs

A

Neorickettsia helminthoeca

125
Q

___________ is the cause of otitis externa (yeast infection) in digs

A

Malassezia pachydermatis

126
Q

___________ causes rhinosporidosis in humans

A

Rhinosporidium

127
Q

___________ is the cause of oral thrush in humans, birds

A

Candida albicans

128
Q

___________ is the cause of cholera in humans

A

Vibrio cholerae

129
Q

___________ in the cause of cholera in chickens, turkerys and geese

A

Pasteurella multocida

130
Q

___________ is the cause of gastroenteritis in humans

A

Vibrio parahemolyticus

131
Q

___________ is the cause of recurrent pyoderma and otitis externa in dogs

A

Staphylococcus schleiferi

132
Q

___________ is the cause of strangles in horses

A

Streptococcus equi

133
Q

___________ is the cause of pigeon fever in horses

A

Corynebacterium psuedotuberculosis

134
Q

___________ is the cause of menigitis in pigs

A

streptococcus suis

135
Q

___________ is the cause of diamond skin disease in

A

Eryosipelothrix rhusiopathiae

136
Q

___________ is the cause of cervical lymphandenitis in swine

A

streptococcus porcinus

137
Q

___________ causes malignant caruncles in humans

A

Bacillus anthracis

138
Q

___________ causes food poisoning in humans

A

Bacillus cereus

139
Q

___________ is the cause of circling disease in ruminants

A

Listeria monocytogenes

140
Q

___________ causes of legionaires disease , pneumonia in humans

A

Legionella pneumophila

141
Q

___________ is the cause of contagious metritis in horses

A

Taylorella equigenitalis

142
Q

___________ causes polynephritis, cystitis in cattle

A

Corynebacterium renale

143
Q

___________ causes polynephritis, cystitis in swine

A

Actinobaculum swine

144
Q

___________ causes caseous lymphadenitis in sheep and goats

A

Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis

145
Q

___________ causes a purulent bronchopneumonia and occasional enteritis and arthritis in foals

A

Rhodococcus equi

146
Q

___________ causes a severe septicemia in newborn foals

A

Actinobacillus Equuli
or

E. coli

147
Q

___________ cuases granulomatous osteomyelitis of the mandible of cattle

A

Actinomyces bovis

148
Q

___________ is the causes of tuberculosis in swine

A

Mycoplasma avium

149
Q

___________ is the cause of swimming pool granulomas in humans/cold blooded animals

A

Mycobacterium marinum

150
Q

___________ is the most common cause of pyometra in dogs

A

E. coli

151
Q

___________ causes gram negative mastitis in dairy cattle

A

E.coli

152
Q

___________ causes UTI in most species

A

E. coli

153
Q

___________ is the cause of bacillary dysentery

A

Shigella dystenteriae

154
Q

___________ is the cause of typhoid fever in humans

A

Salmonella typhi

155
Q

___________ causes UTIs and otits externa in dogs

A

Proteus vulgaris

156
Q

___________ is the cause of scromboid poisoning in humans

A

Morganella morgani

157
Q

___________ causes salmonellosis in turkeys

A

Salmonella arizonae

158
Q

___________ is the casueof the bubonic plague in humans

A

Yersina pestus

159
Q

___________ causes contagious pleuropneumonia in cattle

A

Mycobacterium mycoides subspecies mycoides SC

160
Q

___________ is the causes of enteric septicemia in catfish

A

Edwardseilla ictaluri

161
Q

___________ is the cause of chronic respiratory disease in chickens

A

Mycoplasma gallisepticum

162
Q

___________ causes pinkeye/.keratocnjunctivits in cattke

A

Moraxella bovis

163
Q

___________ causes tuberculosis in cattle/bison

A

Mycobacterium bovis

164
Q

___________ causes pnuemonia in goats

A

Mycoplasma capricolum subspecies caprimeumoniae

165
Q

___________ is the cause of keel disease in ducklings

A

Salmonella anatum

166
Q

___________ is the cause of infectious anemia in cats

A

Mycoplasma haemofelis

167
Q

___________ causes pullorum disease in chickens/turkeys

A

Slamonella pullorum

168
Q

___________ is the cause of chronic respiratory disease in rats

A

Mycoplasma pulmonis

169
Q

___________ is the cause of enzootic pneumonia in swine

A

Mycoplasma hyopneumoniae

Micro Final (14 decks)

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