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Sofia's MCAT Flashcards > 2020-03-10 (last update!) > Flashcards

2020-03-10 (last update!) Flashcards

1
Q

T-cell receptors rely on _____ pathways for activation

A

tyrosine kinase

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2
Q

do shorter or longer phospholipids contribute to increased membrane fluidity?

A

all things being equal, shorter phospholipids also increase fluidity due to having a greater average velocity at the same temperature than larger phospholipids and having a smaller surface area with which to undergo stabilizing London dispersive attractions

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3
Q

What is the Edman degradation?

A

The Edman degradation is a technique used to sequence peptides by progressively removing amino acids

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4
Q

Mass spec allows us to determine the ____ of a sample

A

molecular weight

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5
Q

Gap junctions are most likely to be found in large numbers in which of the following tissues?

A

cardfiac muscle, Gap junctions allow the flow of ions and solutes that would normally be impermeable to the membrane. It is important that cardiac muscle cells have gap junctions so that action potentials can travel through them to coordinate muscle contraction.

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6
Q

What is the difference between anabolism and catabolism?

A

Catabolism describes the “breakdown” of molecules and does not require energy. Anabolism describes “building up” molecules and does require energy.

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7
Q

order the derivatives beginning with the least reactive

A

amides < esters and carboxylic acids < acid anhydrides < acyl halides

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8
Q

What is the difference between a lactone and a lactam?

A

A lactam is a cyclic amide while a lactone is a cyclic ester

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9
Q

thionyl chloride (SOCl2) and Phosphorus pentachloride (PCl5) are reagents commonly used to convert

A

carboxylic acids into acyl halides.

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10
Q

What is convergence theory?

A

Convergence theory states that as nations transition from the beginning stages of industrialization to highly industrialized nations, the same societal patterns will emerge, eventually creating a global culture

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11
Q

What is the formula for current that includes time?

A

I=ΔQ/Δt

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12
Q

WHat enzyme catalyzes the final step of both gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis?

A

glucose 6-phosphatase

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13
Q

What is the formula for catalytic efficiency?

A

kcat/KM

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14
Q

Vmax=

A

kcat[E]

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15
Q

What are the two parts of the pentose phosphate pathway?

A

1.oxidative phase-irreversible; generate NADPH for fatty acid synthesis and detox 2.reversible; generate pentoses (5-C sugars) for nucleotide synthesis

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16
Q

How many carbons does actyl coA have?

A

2

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17
Q

How many carbons does isocitrate have?

A

6

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18
Q

How many carbons does citrate have?

A

6

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19
Q

How many carbons does alphaketoglutarate have?

A

5

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20
Q

How many carbons does succinycoA have?

A

4

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21
Q

How many carbons does succinate have?

A

4

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22
Q

How many carbons does fumarate have?

A

4

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23
Q

How many carbons does malate have?

A

4

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24
Q

How many carbons does oxaloacetate have?

A

4

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25
Q

WHat is RT PCR?

A

Reverse Transcriptase PCR, is a variation of the polymerase chain reaction that typically measures RNA expression levels

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26
Q

What sugars have 6 carbons?

A

Glucose, galactose, and fructose have the same chemical formula (\text C_6\text H_{12}\text O_6C6​H12​O6​start text, C, end text, start subscript, 6, end subscript, start text, H, end text, start subscript, 12, end subscript, start text, O, end text, start subscript, 6, end subscript), but they differ in the organization of their atoms, making them isomers of one another.

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27
Q

What sugard have 5 carbons?

A

Ribose and Deoxyribose

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28
Q

Which types of glycosidic linkages are found in humans?

A

alpha

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29
Q

WHat are common aldoses?

A

ribose, glucose and galactose

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30
Q

What are common ketoses?

A

fructose

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31
Q

What is systems theory?

A

Concepts dealing with systems such as families represent systems theory.

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32
Q

What is institutional memory?

A

Institutional memory is the collective memory of the individuals in an organization about its history, situations the organization has confronted, and what was necessary to deal with them. Long-term employees are valuable as they provide institutional memory for an organization, which means that the organization does not have to figure out what to do from scratch whenever an issue similar to one in the past comes up.

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33
Q

How do you amplify/increase pressure (like is done when your ear amplifies sound)?

A

In order to increase the pressure exerted on the cochlear fluid the ossicles act to both increase the overall force exerted on the fluid as well as decrease the area over which that force is exerted (P = F/A). The area of the oval window must therefore be smaller than that of the tympanic membrane

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34
Q

What are the three ossicle bones?

A

the three ossicle bones are: the malleus, stapes and incus. The stapes is the last bone of the three, and its footplate is what drives the motion of the cochlear fluid.

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35
Q

What is the relationship between wave frequency and the depth it travels along the basilar membrane?

A

The penetration depth of any wave is inversely proportional to its frequency. A traveling wave generated by a low-frequency sound will therefore penetrate further along the basilar membrane relative to a high-frequency sound, and the wave will approach closer to the apex of the cochlea.

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36
Q

What is social functionism?

A

This approach looks at society through a macro-level orientation, which is a broad focus on the social structures that shape society as a whole, and believes that society has evolved like organisms. This approach looks at both social structure and social functions. Functionalism addresses society as a whole in terms of the function of its constituent elements such as customs, traditions, and institutions.

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37
Q

What is social antipositivism?

A

Antipositivism is the belief within social science that the social realm may not be subject to the same methods of investigation as the natural world; the social realm requires a different epistemology in which academics work beyond empiricism and the scientific method.

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38
Q

What is the sick role?

A

The sick person: does not have to fulfill his or her normal roles; should seek medical attention, do as the doctor says, and try to get well; is not held accountable for her or his illness.

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39
Q

What is the availability heuristic?

A

The availability heuristic involves using easily accessible information based on salient characteristics.

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40
Q

What is the familiarity heuristic?

A

The familiarity heuristic involves inferring that past behavior will continue to the present.

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41
Q

What is the representative heuristc?

A

The representative heuristic involves judging that an event occurs at a higher rate than it actually does because of salient characteristics.

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42
Q

What is a main effect?

A

A main effect is the effect of a single independent variable on a dependent variable – ignoring all other independent variables.

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43
Q

Sensory memory is the initial recording of encoded sensory information, and is therefore the most fleeting form of memory storage. There are two main types of sensory memory:

A

iconic memory, responsible for visual information and lasting only a few tenths of a second, and echoic memory, responsible for auditory information and lasting 3 to 4 seconds.

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44
Q

Long-term memory is divided into:

A

implicit memory, also known as nondeclarative memory, and explicit memory, also known as declarative memory. Implicit (nondeclarative) memory accounts for acquired skills and conditioned responses to circumstances and stimuli. This also includes procedural memory, which accounts for motor skills and specific physical actions.

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45
Q

What is potentiation?

A

the increase in strength of nerve impulses along pathways which have been used previously, either short-term or long-term

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46
Q

A meso compound requires?

A

two chiral centers and a plane of symmetry, which no naturally-occurring amino acids have

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47
Q

What is archimedes’ principle

A

when a body is partially or completely immersed in a fluid, it experiences an apparent loss in weight that is equal to the weight of the fluid displaced by the immersed part of the body

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48
Q

What does a -ΔG tell you?

A

just that it is spontaneous, nothing about entropy or enthalpy

49
Q

What changes when a wave moves from one medium to another?

A

the velocity and wavelength, not the frequency

50
Q

What are mutases?

A

Mutase enzymes are a class of isomerases and are specifically involved in moving functional groups around on a molecule. Phosphoglucomutase is specifically involved in the conversion of glucose 1-phosphate to glucose 6-phosphate.

51
Q

Glucokinase specifically catalyzes

A

the phosphorylation of glucose to glucose 6-phosphate.

52
Q

Decarboxylase enzymes are involved anytime

A

CO2 is released. Examples include pyruvate decarboxylase, which catalyzes the conversion of pyruvate to acetyl-CoA and, in the process, releases CO2.

53
Q

What type of potential does an antioxidant need to have?

A

an antioxidant needs to have reducing potential (ex NADH can be an antioxidant but FAD can’t)

54
Q

What is the the enzyme responsible for catalyzing the final step of glycolysis?

A

Pyruvate kinase

55
Q

Is Phosphofructokinase-1 glycolytic or gluconeogenic?

A

glycolytic

56
Q

The three key enzymes of glycolysis are:

A

hexokinase, phosphofructokinase, and pyruvate kinase.

57
Q

What is the role of ATP citrate lyase

A

ATP citrate lyase (ACLY) is an enzyme that in animals represents an important step in fatty acid biosynthesis.[2] By converting citrate to acetyl-CoA, the enzyme links carbohydrate metabolism, which yields citrate as an intermediate, with fatty acid biosynthesis, which consumes acetyl-CoA

58
Q

What is the difference between glycogen and cellulose?

A

Glycogen is a glucose polymer with α-1,4 glycoside links while cellulose has a β-1,4 link between the glucose rings.

59
Q

What is the flow rate of a pipe?

A

Q = ΔPπr 4/8μl where ΔP is the pressure difference, l is the length of pipe, μ is the dynamic viscosity, Q is the volume flow rate, and r is the radius.

60
Q

The mesodermal germ layer eventually differentiates into the

A

kidneys (and its associated ducts), gonads (and its associated ducts), heart, blood vessels, and blood cells, as well as muscle and bone.

61
Q

The respiratory tract comes from the…

A

endoderm–The endoderm is basically responsible for the interior linings of the body, including the linings of the gastrointestinal system, the pancreas and part of the liver, the urinary bladder and part of the urethra, and the lungs.

62
Q

What does the thyroid v paratyroid release?

A

thyroid-T3,T4 (increases body’s metabolic rate), and calcitonin parathyroid-parathyroid hormone (PTH). PTH raises the blood calcium level by: breaking down the bone (where most of the body’s calcium is stored) and causing calcium release

63
Q

What are asters?

A

Asters are radial microtubule arrays found in animal cells. These star-shaped structures form around each pair of centrioles during mitosis. Asters help to manipulate chromosomes during cell division to ensure that each daughter cell has the appropriate complement of chromosomes.

64
Q

One turn of the ß-oxidative cycle for an even-chain fatty acid results in the production of:

A

a single molecule of acetyl-CoA, NADH, and FADH2

65
Q

Fatty acid and sterol synthesis, including synthesis of cholesterol and cholesterol-derived steroid hormones, occurs in the

A

liver

66
Q

Fatty acid and sterol synthesis, including synthesis of cholesterol and cholesterol-derived steroid hormones, occurs in the

A

cholesterol synthesis

67
Q

What marks the begining of the leuteal phase?

A

ovulation (this means that the leuteal phase is when a women can most likely get pregnant), also can rememeber the leuteal phase because that is when the corpus leuteum forms

68
Q

What marks the begining of the uterine cycle?

A

The uterine cycle begins with menstruation, which overlaps with the first part of the follicular phase of the ovarian cycle. During menstruation, the uterine lining built up in the previous cycle is shed.

69
Q

The main protein that makes up most connective tissue is

A

collagen, it is found in tendons, forms connective ligaments within the body, and gives extra support to the skin.

70
Q

Actin is mainly found

A

inside cells and is not a major component of connective tissue.

71
Q

Although keratin is an intermediate filament that gives the skin its strength, it is not commonly found in

A

joints, Generally: keratin-A type of protein found on epithelial cells, which line the inside and outside surfaces of the body. Keratins help form the tissues of the hair, nails, and the outer layer of the skin. They are also found on cells in the lining of organs, glands, and other parts of the body

72
Q

Elastin provides elasticity to connective tissues. A loss-of-function mutation in elastin would cause the joints to be

A

unnecessarily stiff

73
Q

What does the Dicer enzyme produce?

A

siRNA or microRNA which both interfere

74
Q

in which direction is DNA polymerase able to read and synthesize?

A

DNA polymerase is only able to read DNA from 3’ to 5’ and synthesize it from 5’ to 3’.Kcat/Km highest ratio=highest efficiency

75
Q

What is the degeneracy of the genetic code?

A

“Degeneracy” is a term for the fact that multiple distinct codons can correspond to the same amino acid residue. (For example, CUC and CUU both code for leucine.) As a result, a point mutation in the “wobble,” or third, base often does not change the overall peptide at all. Additionally, this concept allows the full set of 64 potential codons to code for only 20 amino acids.

76
Q

Where does amino-acyl-tRNA synthetase attach an amino acid to tRNA?

A

The acceptor stem is where the enzyme amino-acyl-tRNA synthase attaches an amino acid

77
Q

What is reactivity in water based on?

A

Reactivity with water is heavily based on ionization energy. Specifically, elements with low IE values tend to lose electrons easily, allowing them to rapidly form oxides in water. In general, Group 1 elements are more reactive than Group 2 ones, as they lose single electrons very readily. (In fact, sodium and potassium metals are known for exploding when placed in contact with water.)

78
Q

The Pauli exclusion principle states ?

A

that no two electrons can have the same set of quantum numbers

79
Q

The Aufbau principle states?

A

that electrons fill orbitals in order of increasing energy.

80
Q

Hund’s rule states?

A

that each orbital must contain one electron before any electrons are paired.

81
Q

What does the azimuthal quantum number tell us?

A

whether a particular electron is found in a s,p,d, or f subshell. It is also said to describe the shape of a particular orbital (second quantum number)

82
Q

What does the principal quantum number tell us?

A

an electron’s shell and energy level. This number can be found by looking at the element’s row in the periodic table.

83
Q

What does the magnetic quantum number tell us?

A

The magnetic quantum number narrows down the electron’s location to a particular orbital within a subshell. (3rd quantum number)

84
Q

In a combustion reaction where does the do the CHOs from the combused sugar end up?

A

C in the CO2 and H in the H2O, oxygen you dont know, because when you cumbust the sugar racts with only O2 to produce carbon dioxide and water

85
Q

When is Taq polymerase used?

A

in PCR

86
Q

What is immunohistochemistry used for?

A

Immunohistochemistry uses antibodies that are specific to proteins in an attempt to determine which antigens are expressed in a particular region of tissue. This technique has particular applications to cancer research.

87
Q

What is flow cytometry used for?

A

sorting, identifying, and counting individually labeled cells.

88
Q

In size exclusion chromatography which size protein elutes first?

A

large

In size-exclusion chromatography, the beads in the column are permeated by small pores. While small proteins can fit through these pores and become trapped in the beads, large molecules cannot; for this reason, larger proteins tend to elute relatively quickly. Here, the large peak present early in the procedure indicates that a high amount of comparatively large proteins existed in the original mixture.

89
Q

What is the procedure for western blotting?

A

In a western blotting procedure, the proteins in the original mixture are first separated on an SDS-PAGE gel. Typically, in addition to SDS, a reducing agent is used to break disulfide bonds that may be present between cysteine residues. Next, antibodies are used to detect particular species.

90
Q

What is reversed phase chromatography?

A

In reversed-phase chromatography, the stationary phase of the column is hydrophobic and the mobile phase is hydrophilic.

91
Q

the three aromatic amino acids are?

A

ryptophan (W), tyrosine (Y), and phenylalanine (F)

92
Q

Small nucleolar RNAs (or snoRNAs) are involved in the modification of

A

rRNA

93
Q

What does wild type mean?

A

The term “wild type” refers to the traits an animal typically possesses when found in nature. This usually refers to a dominant trait, but not always.

94
Q

In which processes do homologous chromosomes separate into distinct cells?

A

meiosis 1

95
Q

In which processes do sister chromatids separate into distinct cells?

A

meiosis 2 and mitosis

96
Q

remember that for Sn1 reactions only the substitution on the carbon with the leaving group (halide) matter

A

The more alkyl substituents bound to a particular position, the more stable the potential carbocation. Remember, however, that SN1 reactions require the loss of a leaving group before such a charged species can form. Here, our leaving groups are halogen atoms. For this reason, we are looking for an answer in which the halogen is located on a highly substituted carbon.

97
Q

What type of substituent makes something less acidic?

A

An electron donating group because the negative charge of the electrons makes it more likely for the proton to stay.

98
Q

Examples of catecholamines include

A

dopamine, epinephrine (adrenaline), and norepinephrine (noradrenaline).

99
Q

What is the moro reflex?

A

The Moro reflex is an instinctual response to the feeling of falling. An infant will throw his head back, extend his arms, and cry when physical support is withdrawn.

100
Q

muscle fibers: H-zone

A

myosin-only region

101
Q

muscle fibers: z-lines

A

sarcomere boundaries

102
Q

muscle fibers: I-band

A

actin-only region

103
Q

muscle fibers: A-band

A

the entire myosin region

104
Q

what part of the muscle remains the same size during contraction and relaxation?

A

the A-band (the entire myosin region)

105
Q

is cardiac muscle smooth muscle?

A

no, it is a combo of smooth muscle and skeletal muscle

106
Q

What type of muscle cells are most prone to having multiple nuclei?

A

skeletal muscle cells

107
Q

What type of muscle is striated

A

cardiac and skeletal NOT smooth

108
Q

A unique feature of cardiac muscle is that its cells are connected by structures known as intercalated discs, which…..

A

connect the cytoplasm of adjacent cardiac muscle cells, allowing ions to pass from cell to cell. These connections are known as gap junctions, and they allow action potentials to pass rapidly from one cardiac muscle cell to another.

109
Q

What is esterification of fatty acids?

A

its is adding fatty acids to a glycerol molecule to make triacylglycerols and storing fatty acids (happens in the fed state)

110
Q

parent cells begin as diploid and daughter cells formed during meiosis I are _____

A

haploid

111
Q

go over sperm maturation

A

Spermatogonia give rise to primary spermatocytes before meiosis even begins. Meiosis I, then, marks the division of a primary spermatocyte into two secondary daughter cells. At the end of meiosis I, which is also known as reductional division, cells are already haploid; however, chromosomes retain their identical copies in the form of attached sister chromatids. This makes statement II accurate.

I: Again, meiosis I produces secondary spermatocytes.

112
Q

In deuterostomes, the blastopore immediately gives rise to the _____.

A

anus

The blastopore becomes the mouth in protostome, not deuterostome, development.

113
Q

The _____ is a spherical collection of sixteen cells that is the same size as the original zygote

A

morula

Further division results in the blastula, a hollow ball of cells. The blastula then develops into the gastrula, which is an invaginated structure containing three germ layers.

114
Q

-oate is the ending for which type of compound

A

ester

115
Q

An amide is to a lactam as an ester is to a(n):

A

lactone

Just as a lactam is a cyclic amide, a lactone is a cyclic ester.

116
Q

what is the difference between a triple point and a critical point in a phase diagram

A

the triple point is where all three phases meet

the critical point is where liquid and vapor become indistinguishable above this temperature and pressure.

117
Q

formula for freezing point depression

A

Freezing point depression can be calculated using ΔTf = Kfmi, where Kf is a constant, m is molality, and i is the Van’t Hoff factor, or number of dissolved particles per molecule. Here, m is (1.25 mol) / (0.25 kg) = 5 m, while i = 3. ΔTf = Kfmi = (1.86 °C ∙ kg / mol)(5 m)(3) = approximately 28°C. Since water normally freezes at 0°C, its new freezing point will be -28°C.

118
Q

How does freezing point depression depend on number of molecules the dissolved substance dissociates into?

A

The amount of freezing point depression is proportional to the number of molecules the substance dissocaites into

Ex:

Freezing point depression is a colligative property, meaning that it depends on the number of particles in solution. Sucrose is organic and does not dissociate in water, but carboxylic acids will lose a proton at a pH of 7. Malonic acid, then, dissociates into three particles: its deprotonated form and two free protons. Thus, one mole will depress this volume by three times the amount that sucrose affected it, or 11.7°C. Water typically freezes at 0°C, making our new freezing point -11.7°C.

Sofia's MCAT Flashcards (9 decks)

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