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YNCS EPME > 2024 E2-E4 EPME > Flashcards

2024 E2-E4 EPME Flashcards

1
Q

Where should Coast Guard voluntary education services inquiries related to tuition assistance be sent to?

A

ETQC

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2
Q

Registrar services provided by ETQC include which of the following?

A

Joint Service Transcript, Dantes examination reimbursement, degree reporting, solicitation for voluntary education program award

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3
Q

Which directive provides specific guidance on the Coast Guard voluntary credentialing program?

A

Coast Guard VCP Policy COMDTINST 1540.10

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4
Q

Where are tuition assistance waivers submitted for final review?

A

ETQC

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5
Q

Where can a link to the ASVAB AFCT Waiver Request Guide be found?

A

Course Support and Testing on ETQC website

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6
Q

The Harry W. Colmery Veterans Educational Assistance Act is also known as the _____.

A

Forever GI Bill

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7
Q

Under the Post-9/11 GI Bill, a Veteran enrolled at more than one-half time can qualify for a monthly housing allowance based on DoD’s Basic Allowance for Housing (BAH) rate for an _____ with dependents.

A

E5

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8
Q

The Montgomery GI Bill-Active Duty provides up to _____ months of education benefits.

A

36 Months

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9
Q

The GI Bill Comparison Tool offers information based on which of the following GI Bill benefits?

A

Post 9/11, Montgomery, Select Reserve, Veteran Readinessand Employment, Dependant Educational Assistance

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10
Q

Veterans in their second 6 months of OJT & Apprenticeship Training programs may use their GI Bill benefits to receive _____ of the applicable Monthly Housing Stipend.

A

80%

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11
Q

In which of the following cases is Tuition Assistance authorized for?

A

Annual cap of $3750 per AD/Reserve member, not to exceed $250 per semester hour.

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12
Q

One purpose of the _____ program is to provide developmental incentives for personnel with high ability, dedication and the capacity for professional growth to remain in the Coast Guard.

A

Advanced Education

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13
Q

Which of the following is a responsibility for a student who has been accepted into the Advanced Education program?

A

B: Gain acceptance to the Educational institution and the specific degree program
C: Complete necessary pre-reqs
D: Act as a CG Liason
E: Liason with edecational institutions military advocate
F: Monitor and Comply with Fiscal Requirement
G: Carry a full credit hour load year round
H: Maintain academic proficiency
I: Complete program study requirements within time slots
J: Maintain Coast guard requirements and standards

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14
Q

Who acts as subject matter expert to assist Coast Guard members with voluntary education programs?

A

ESO

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15
Q

Which of the following is one of the four firearm safety rules?

A

1: Treat all firearms as if they are loaded
2: Always maintain proper muzzle control
3: Keep finger off the trigger until ready to shoot
4: Know your target is what is beyond it

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16
Q

Which of the following is a requirement to advance to E-3?

A

By the Commanding Officer

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17
Q

Which of the following is a requirement to advance to E-4?

A

A minimum of 6 months time in service

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18
Q

The _____ and ASVAB tests are different version of the same battery of tests.

A

AFCT or Armed Forces Classification Test

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19
Q

Class “A” Course graduates who had their advancement to E-4 withheld upon graduation due to receiving an “UNSAT” conduct while attending a Class “A” Course, are required to complete how many months of good conduct prior to being advanced?

A

6 Months

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20
Q

Which of the following ratings have no direct path of advancement from E-3 to E-4?

A

IV (Investigator) and DV (Diver)

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21
Q

Where are “A” school rating requirements listed?

A

ALCOAST message system by the Rating training Advisory Council

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22
Q

Which stress management term is defined as “bad” stress?

A

Negative Stress and associated with a loss of control

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23
Q

“Good” stress is related to which stress management term?

A

Positive stress and associated with a sense of control

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24
Q

Which term is defined as “the non-specific response of the body to any demands placed upon it or what you feel after you encounter a stressor”?

A

Stress

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25
Q

What are stressors?

A

Whatever causes Stress

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26
Q

What term is defined as a stress management tool used to measure a person’s personal stress load?

A

StressMap: A stress management tool used to measure a persons personal stress load

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27
Q

Stress is defined within the Coast Guard Stress Management Program as:

A

The non-specific response of the body to any demands placed upon it after you encounter a stressor

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28
Q

The services provided by the _____ are available for professional assistance with Stress Management.

A

Employee Assistance Program Coordinator (EAPC)

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29
Q

Which Stress Management awareness and skills training promotes an understanding of stress, awareness of support resources, and provides practical stress navigation tools to help build resilience of sailors, families, and commands?

A

Operational Stress Control

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30
Q

How can you contact the Employee Assistance Program?

A

1-855-CGSUPRT (247-8778) or www.CGSUPRT.com

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31
Q

Who is eligible for the Office of Work-Life Stress Management Program?

A

Active Duty, Reserve, Spouse and Civilian employees of the Coast Guard

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32
Q

Identify a signal of distress which is an expected stress reaction associated with critical incidents.

A

Emotional, Cognitive, Behavioral Physiological and Spiritiual Responses

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33
Q

The National Institute of Mental Health (NIMH) offers which as an example of a way to manage stress?

A

Keep a Journal, Eat Healthy, Get Regular Sleep, Relaxation exercises, avoiding excess caffeine, indentifying and challenging negative thoughts, reaching out to friends and family.

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34
Q

Which of the following is an intention of the Substance Abuse Prevention Program?

A

to provide training, education, treatment and administrative processing resources in support of Coast Guard’s policy governing substance use, abuse and chemical dependency.

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35
Q

The National Institute of Alcohol Abuse and Alcoholism (NIAAA) low-risk guidelines suggest that “zero” drinks is the low risk option when _____.

A

when one is driving, using machinery, cleaning a weapon, pregnant, or on certain medications

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36
Q

Key behaviors for low-risk alcohol use include what model?

A

Zero, One, Two, Three model

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37
Q

Where can you find additional clarification on low-risk drinking guidelines?

A

CG-111 or rethinkingdrinking.gov

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38
Q

Which of the following is an intention of the Substance Abuse Prevention Program?

A

Prevention education. An evidence based alcohol program for members who show signs of misuse

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39
Q

What is one responsibility of a Command Drug and Alcohol Representative (CDAR)?

A

The CDAR will facilitate placing members into treatment and will ensure that all documentation required by the facility is complete.

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40
Q

What is Substance Abuse Prime for Life training used for?

A

Prevention education. An evidence based alcohol program for members who show signs of misuse

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41
Q

One intention of the Substance Abuse Prevention Program is to _____.

A

The CG SAP Program strategy is to reduce the negative consequences related to substance use.

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42
Q

What is the definition of substance abuse?

A

Abusing Substances such as drugs or alcohol.

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43
Q

What is considered substance abuse?

A

When you are taking drugs and alcohol in excess

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44
Q

According to the National Institute on Alcohol Abuse and Alcoholism (NIAAA), as an individual’s BAC increases, the risk of _____ increases.

A

Harm

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45
Q

According to the National Institute on Alcohol Abuse and Alcoholism (NIAAA), drinking too much over time can raise your risk for _____, cancer, liver disease, and other illnesses

A

Alcohol associated

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46
Q

According to the National Institute on Alcohol Abuse and Alcoholism (NIAAA), more than _____ people die from alcohol-related causes in the United States each year.

A

95,000

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47
Q

Being able to “hold your liquor” or having a high tolerance for alcohol is _____.

A

A concern

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48
Q

What is considered binge drinking for men?

A

5 or more drinks in two hours

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49
Q

What is considered binge drinking for women?

A

4 or more drinks in two hours

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50
Q

Binge drinking is a pattern of drinking that brings BAC to what percent or higher?

A

0.08%

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51
Q

What BAC would be associated with the stage of intoxication indicated by a person being slightly impaired?

A

0.08%

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52
Q

What BAC would be associated with the stage of intoxication indicated by a person being “sloppy” drunk?

A

0.16%

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53
Q

What BAC would be associated with the stage of intoxication indicated by stupor or blackout?

A

0.30%

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54
Q

What BAC would be associated with the stage of intoxication indicated by coma and risk of death?

A

40%

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55
Q

A sign of alcohol poisoning is _____.

A

Passes out and cannot be woken up, puking while asleep, has cold clammy or pale skin, breathing is slow and irregular

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56
Q

Youth who drink alcohol are more likely to experience _____.

A

Literally every bad option on the test

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57
Q

Which of the following is a reason women face higher risks of drinking alcohol?

A

Pound for pound women have less water in their bodies than men

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58
Q

What is a standard drink for 80 proof hard liquor?

A

1.5 oz

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59
Q

How many grams of pure alcohol is in a “standard” drink?

A

14 grams

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60
Q

How many fluid ounces of table wine are in a standard drink?

A

5 oz

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61
Q

How many fluid ounces of beer are in a standard drink?

A

12 oz

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62
Q

Using the BAC calculator, what would be the BAC percentage for a 150 pound male who consumed 3 oz. of 40% alcohol over one hour?

A

0.05%

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63
Q

Across the United States, a recorded Blood Alcohol Content (BAC) test of _____ or higher alcohol is proof of DUI without any other evidence.

A

0.08%

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64
Q

A medical professional must perform an analysis and diagnosis for potential _____ upon commission of an alcohol incident or referral.

A

AUD or Alcohol use Disorder

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65
Q

A member diagnosed within the first _____ days of CG service as drug/alcohol abusive or dependent is considered physically disqualified for enlistment.

A

180

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66
Q

Which of the following is required for self-referral for potential substance abuse?

A

Requesting through CDAR, Chaplain, Command, SAPS, or health care provider

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67
Q

Which statement reflects Coast Guard policy on tobacco use and abuse?

A

CG discourages all forms and use of tobacco to protect people and environment.

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68
Q

Which example would constitute unauthorized use of a prescription drug?

A

No current prescription within 6 months or verified medical use that would account for popping on the urinalysis

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69
Q

Which of the following is considered prohibited substance abuse?

A

Controlled or Synthetic substances

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70
Q

Which of the following constitutes a drug incident?

A

1: Intentional use of druugs for non-medical purposes
2: Wrongful possesion of drugs
3: Traffiking of drugs
4: Intentional use of inhalants
5: A civil or military conviction for wrongful use, possesion

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71
Q

Urinalysis is the procedure employed to obtain urine samples under controlled conditions, maintaining a chain of custody on each sample, and_____.

A

Scientifically analyzing the samples to detect the presence of drugs

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72
Q

Which of the following would be the consequence of a drug incident?

A

Separation

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73
Q

Which term is defined as self-inflicted death with evidence, either explicit or implicit, or intent to die?

A

Suicide

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74
Q

What term is defined as a self-inflicted potentially injurious behavior for which there is evidence, either implicit or explicit, that the person did not intend to kill himself/herself?

A

Self Harm

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75
Q

What term is defined as any interpersonal action, verbal or nonverbal, without a direct self-injurious component, passive or active, for which there is evidence, either explicit or implicit, that the person is communicating that a suicide-related behavior might occur in the near future?

A

Suicide threat

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76
Q

What term is defined as a self-inflicted potentially injurious behavior with a non-fatal outcome for which there is evidence, either explicit or implicit, of intent to die?

A

Suicide Attempt

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77
Q

For reporting purposes within the Suicide Prevention Program, self-harm with no injury is reported as _____.

A

Self Harm level 1

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78
Q

For reporting purposes within the Suicide Prevention Program, self-harm with injury is reported as _____.

A

Self Harm level 2

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79
Q

For reporting purposes within the Suicide Prevention Program, self-harm resulting in death is reported as _____.

A

Self Harm level 3

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80
Q

For reporting purposes within the Suicide Prevention Program, suicide attempt resulting in injury is reported as _____.

A

Suicide attempt level 2

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81
Q

For reporting purposes within the Suicide Prevention Program, suicide attempt resulting in no injury is reported as _____.

A

Suicide attempt level 1

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82
Q

What term is defined as any self-reported thoughts of engaging in suicide-related behaviors?

A

Suicide related ideations.

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83
Q

What would be the cause to report a Self-Harm Level 3 in the Suicide Prevention Program?

A

Death

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84
Q

What term is defined as a self-inflicted potentially injurious behavior where intent is unknown?

A

Undetermined Suicide Related Behavior

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85
Q

Dismissing _____ as “manipulation” is one of the surest ways to increase suicide risk.

A

Suicidal Ideations

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86
Q

In one survey, more than half of 26,000 students across 70 colleges and universities reported having at least one _____ at some point in their lives.

A

Episode of suicidal thinking

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87
Q

What are any interpersonal acts of imparting, conveying, or transmitting suicide-related thoughts, wishes, desires, or intent; not to be construed as the actual self-inflicted behavior or injury known as?

A

Suicide related communication

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88
Q

What type of suicide-related communication is a proposed method of carrying out a design that can potentially result in suicide-related behavior?

A

Suicide Plan

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89
Q

Which of the following is part of the mnemonic for recognizing warning signs and circumstances associated with suicidal behavior?

A

Ideation, substance abuse, purposelessness, anxiety, feeling trapped, hopelessness, withdrawal, anger, recklessness, mood changes

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90
Q

_____ is not an easy thing to do, but it is essential for suicide prevention.

A

Asking

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91
Q

What may be helpful to lead into the question “Are you thinking about killing yourself?”

A

To consider how the conversation will go in your mind and role play to consider all the possibilities, help ease you into the conversation

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92
Q

What mnemonic is used as an aid for what to do when you suspect someone is thinking of suicide?

A

A.C.E. Ask Care Escort

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93
Q

During which step of suicide prevention may the at-risk member attempt to make a joke or attempt to deflect the direct question?

A

Ask

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94
Q

During the _____ step of suicide prevention you should actively listen.

A

Care

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95
Q

During which step of suicide prevention should you remove or take possession of any means that could be used for self-injury?

A

Care

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96
Q

During which step of suicide prevention is it important to not promise confidentiality?

A

Care

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97
Q

In which step of suicide prevention is active listening likely to produce relief?

A

Ask

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98
Q

During which step of suicide prevention should you encourage the person to seek help?

A

Care

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99
Q

You may express optimism that the person will be helped and will feel better if it seems appropriate and genuine during which step of suicide prevention?

A

Care

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100
Q

During which step in suicide prevention will you adopt an attitude that you are going to help the person, and that this will save his or her life?

A

Escort

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101
Q

During which step of suicide prevention should you escort the person to the nearest emergency room, HCP, or mental healthcare professional?

A

Escort

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102
Q

If you ask a person “Are you thinking about killing yourself?” and they make a joke of the question, what should you do?

A

Ask Again

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103
Q

If a person tacitly indicates he/she has had thoughts of suicide, what information should you get on how bad the situation is?

A

How? Situation? History?

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104
Q

Who can you contact to acquire contact information for specific sources of help for suicide prevention?

A

Regional Work Life Office

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105
Q

Which personnel are required to develop Personal Fitness Plans?

A

All AD and Select Reserve must submit a CG-6049

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106
Q

Who do your submit your completed Personal Fitness Plan to?

A

Supervisors in April and October

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107
Q

The most current Personal Fitness Plan must be kept on file or electronically saved by _____.

A

The member or supervisor

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108
Q

Physical fitness guidelines for general health as set forth by the CDC include what amount of moderate-intensity aerobic activity per week?

A

Muscle strengthening activities on two or more days a week that work all major muscle groups

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109
Q

All active duty members must engage in fitness activity as outlined in their Personal Fitness Plan a minimum of _____ per week.

A

Engage in a fitness activity as outlined in their PFP, minimum 180 mins a week

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110
Q

It is strongly recommended that the Personal Fitness Plan include _____ minutes per week of cardiorespiratory activity.

A

150 mins/ week

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111
Q

It is strongly recommended that the Personal Fitness Plan include _____ minutes per week of strength training.

A

30 mins

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112
Q

Because the effects of physical activity are cumulative, exercise sessions may vary in length, with a minimum of _____ minutes, in order to be beneficial.

A

10 mins

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113
Q

In general, physical activity sessions should be spread out over at least how many days per week?

A

3 days/week

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114
Q

Physical activity should produce a training effect, as measured by a _____ level of intensity.

A

Medium to vigorous level

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115
Q

According to the CDC, adults should perform 150 minutes per week of aerobic activity at what level of intensity?

A

Medium intensity

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116
Q

What is the form number for the Personal Fitness Plan?

A

CG-6049

117
Q

Coast Guard operations are inherently complex, dynamic, dangerous, and by nature, involve _____.

A

Some level of risk

118
Q

What is a critical human factor that will increase the potential for error-induced mishaps if not managed?

A

mission analysis, leadership, adaptability and flexibility, situational awareness, decision making, communication, and assertiveness

119
Q

Deliberate use of the Risk Management process _____ by reducing member exposure to hazards.

A

Increases mission success

120
Q

The potential gains of conducting the activity or mission must justify, or warrant, the _____.

A

the expected risk exposure

121
Q

What provides a framework to identify and assess hazards, evaluate the risk level, and weigh the risk against the potential benefits?

A

The RM Process

122
Q

What initial deliberate analysis is updated prior to any mission activity throughout the day to satisfy the time-critical risk management requirement, and expedite response actions?

A

using GAR 2.0 to consider PEACE and STAAR elements.

123
Q

When is Risk Management (RM) most effective?

A

RM is most effective when hazards are identified early and there is ample time to evaluate and implement mitigations and controls to reduce risk exposure.

124
Q

Since all Coast Guard missions and operating environments are fluid and dynamic, the Risk Management process is _____.

A

continuous and adaptive

125
Q

Where are the steps of Risk Management (RM) described?

A

The five-steps of RM are described in “Risk Management Fundamentals”

126
Q

What are units encouraged to use to conduct “what can go wrong” analyses on an as-needed-basis, when new missions/activities are introduced to the unit?

A

Units are encouraged to use the Risk Assessment Matrix (RAM)

127
Q

What is a function of physiological and psychological factors that support the ability of crewmembers to perform safely and effectively?

A

Crew endurance is a function of physiological and psychological factors

128
Q

Additional elements can be added to GAR 2.0 risk to _____.

A

to address unique operational realities

129
Q

Which is a model used to identify hazards and explore mitigation strategies during risk assessments?

A

The GAR 2.0

130
Q

_____ is defined as the possibility of loss or injury due to exposure to a hazard.

A

Risk

131
Q

_____ is defined as a process to identify, assess, control, mitigate and manage hazards associated with an operation or activity.

A

RISK

132
Q

How many actions are there in the Assess Hazards step in the Risk Management (RM) process?

A

The Coast Guard has adopted a 5-step RM process that consists of 1) Identifying Hazards, 2) Assessing Hazards, 3) Developing Controls and Making Decisions, 4) Implementing Controls, and 5) Supervising and Evaluating Controls

133
Q

Which is an action taken during the first step in the Risk Management (RM) process?

A

Identifying Hazards

134
Q

What are captured in GAR 2.0 to make warranted risk decisions?

A

The PEACE/STAAR analyses are captured in GAR 2.0

135
Q

What model is used to identify those elements considered essential to the safe and effective execution of an operation or activity?

A

PEACE MODEL

136
Q

What deliberate risk assessment should units perform at the start of each day or watch?

A

GAR 2.0

137
Q

Which models, when used in tandem, generate the necessary information to establish a shared mental model up and down the chain of command, assist in decision making, and encourage robust risk management?

A

PEACE/STAAR analyses.

138
Q

Who determines whether a particular use of a government motor vehicle is for official purposes?

A

unit commander, commanding officer, or officer-in-charge.

139
Q

When are CG owned motor vehicles authorized to transport spouses and dependents?

A

Motor vehicles are authorized to transport an employee, spouse and dependents together from the workplace to an official function to which the spouse and dependents were invited and the employee is participating in an official capacity. No additional cost must be incurred by the Government and there must be free space available that is not needed for official purposes

140
Q

Which of the following would be an authorized use of a CG owned motor vehicle?

A

OFFICIAL PURPOSES, CEREMONIES, NON-CG EMPLOYEES IN OFFICIAL CAPACITY, SPOUSE AND DEPENDANTS WITH MEMBER, MILITARTY RECRUITS, OFFICIAL TRAVEL

141
Q

Only Government employees that possess a _____ state, territorial, or District of Columbia driver license are permitted to operate a motor vehicle.

A

current and unrestricted

142
Q

To reduce the potential for traffic mishaps caused by operator fatigue, commands must identify hazards and reduce risks when assigning long-distance driving duties to personnel who have been on-duty within the previous _____ hours.

A

8 HOURS

143
Q

To reduce the potential for traffic mishaps caused by operator fatigue, members must not exceed _____ hours of combined duty-hours and driving hours.

A

14 HOURS

144
Q

Which form is used to report accidents involving a government motor vehicle?

A

SF-91

145
Q

Personnel convicted of a serious moving violation while operating a GMV, must _____.

A

COMPLETE a driver improvement course

146
Q

What term is defined as the process (or steps) involved in managing one’s personal finances, including income, expenses, and investments, for an individual or family?

A

Personal financial management

147
Q

The definition of which term includes prudent day-to-day management of personal finances?

A

Personal financial readiness

148
Q

What term is defined as the act of evaluating an individual’s or family’s income and expenditures and recommending short and long-term actions to achieve financial goals and ensure individual, family and mission readiness?

A

Financial planning and counseling

149
Q

The Personal Financial Management Program (PFMP) consists of how many elements?

A

7

150
Q

Which of the following is an element of the Personal Financial Management Program (PFMP)?

A

Education and training
Counselling
Information and referral
Command financial specialist program
Outreach
Collaboration and coordination
Cg suprt personal financial wellness program

151
Q

Commands with at least _____ personnel assigned, must have a trained Command Financial Specialist (CFS)

A

25

152
Q

What is the early withdraw penalty tax for the Thrift Saving Plan?

A

10% if under 59.5

153
Q

The compliance tab in CGBI is broken down into _____ categories, based on level of compliance.

A

3

154
Q

What will you need to do if your preferred email address is not listed as an option when signing up for email notifications in CGBI?

A

update your contact info in DA to include your preferred email

155
Q

If your personal readiness data in CGBI need corrections, select the _____ icon in the top-right corner of the “Skills” Tab.

A

get more information

156
Q

What is a purpose of the EES?

A

A.To set standards by which to evaluate the performance and behavior of all enlisted members.
b. To inform enlisted members of the performance standards they will be measured against.
c. To provide a means by which enlisted members can receive feedback on how well they are measuring up to the standards.
d. To capture a valid, reliable assessment of enlisted members’ performance so the Coast Guard may advance and assign members with a high degree of confidence.
e. To provide the Coast Guard with a tool to support a wide variety of human resource decisions including discharges, reenlistments, conduct determination, advancement eligibility, assignments and reductions in rate.
f. To provide members’ of boards and panels with the necessary information to make selections and decisions based on enlisted members observed performance and potential

157
Q

Which of the functions is the evaluee’s responsibility within the EES?

A

Familiarization, performance, evaluation input, acknowledgement, verification

158
Q

The _____ comprised of designated members who execute the enlisted evaluation report process for enlisted members.

A

Rating chain

159
Q

Which of the following is a factor type of performance within the EES?

A

Military- Measures ability to bring credit to CG

Performance- measures willingness to acquire and use knowledge

Professional Qualities- measures qualities the CG Values in it’s people

Leadership- measures ability to direct, guide, develop, influence and support others

160
Q

A new period of eligibility for the Good Conduct award begins _____.

A

The day after the effective date of the EER in which an UNSAT conduct mark was awarded. If confinement is imposed by NJP or CM, eligibility starts on the day of release regardless if on probation. IF no confinement is included in sentence, starts the day following conviction or awarding of NJP.

161
Q

The recommendation for advancement portion on the evaluation report _____.

A

may not be appealed to an appeal authority.

162
Q

Who is normally the appeal authority for an EER?

A

Written Appeal. If this meeting does not lead to an agreement between the approving official and the member, the member can appeal in writing and submit the appeal to the appeal authority indicated in the Enlisted Evaluation System Procedures Manual, PSCINST M1611.2 (series), via the commanding officer. If the member has been reassigned, they must submit the appeal to the appeal authority for the former command, via the commanding officer of that command.

163
Q

What is the definition given in the Recruit Training Master Pamphlet for effective communication?

A

An effective communicator is successful in establishing an active two-way link with another individual or group.

164
Q

What are the common barriers to effective communication?

A

Physical / Distance * Ambient Noise * Distracting Movement * Language (dialect, accent) ____________________________________________________________________________________________ Perceptual Barriers * Past experience - can lead to assuming intentions or behaviors of individuals. * Stereotypes - making large sweeping generalizations with different groups of people. * Emotional blocking - fear or worry can cloud the thought process. * Social status - people treat each other based on economic conditions

165
Q

How can you overcome the common barriers to effective communication?

A

Practice active listening to overcome barriers to communication. * Suspend judgment by practicing nonjudgmental listening. * Resist distractions; focus on the person. Make eye contact. * Wait before responding. Listen with an open mind before responding. * Make nonjudgmental comments. Ask open-ended questions. * Observe body language and voice tone. ____________________________________________________________________________________________ Overcoming Barriers Deterrents * Avoid assumptions; listen to the whole story. * Eliminate external and internal distractions. * Avoid push-button issues that you know have the potential to make the listener upset. * Avoid daydreaming. * Do not prepare your response while someone is talking.

166
Q

What is a means to test understanding of a message for effective communication?

A

Parroting - repeat back the same words you heard. * Paraphrasing - the idea in words you can understand. This allows the sender to confirm the idea they sent. * Clarifying - ask open-ended questions

167
Q

What is one type of listening for effective communication?

A
  • Inactive - This is the kind of listening you want to avoid. It is inefficient and unproductive. “In one ear and out the other.” * Selective - This kind of listening is probably the most common. It’s when you hear what you want to hear. * Active - Listening is a conscious effort to listen for the complete message. * Reflective - Listening to the whole message and reflecting back on what was said. Reflective is used to clarify what is being said.
168
Q

What is a reason for feedback in effective communication?

A
  • Achieve personal growth. * Receiver gains insight into something they may not have observed about themselves. * Feedback creates an open environment * It helps you prepare for the future by not dwelling on the past.
169
Q

For effective communication, what is a basic rule to follow for giving feedback?

A
  • Be specific and to the point. Express exactly what happened. * Focus on behavior of the person and not on the person. * Direct feedback toward changeable behavior only. * Feedback must be solicited. When someone asks for help, that person is open to feedback. * Feedback must be timely. Do not wait to give it. * Check for understanding. Use active listening skills
170
Q

What is the Coast Guard’s definition of leadership?

A

A leader is one who influences and inspires others toward a goal.

171
Q

The Coast Guard Leadership Development Framework consists of _____ categories of leadership competencies.

A

5 Categories; leading self, leading others and teams, leading performance and change, leading programs and coalitions, leading the cg
28 Competencies
Accountability, Value Alignment, Self-Awareness, Interpersonal Relationships, Health and Wellness, Judgment, Communication, Customer Service, influence and Negotiation, Teamwork, Personnel Development, Personnel Support, Technical Credibility, Cultural Awareness, nnovation and Process Improvement, nclusive Collaboration, Conflict Resolution, Problem Solving, Vision Alignment, Partnership, Strategic Thinking, Talent Management, Resource Management, Technology Management, Financial Management, Inclusive Culture, External Awareness, Political Savvy

172
Q

Onboard ship salutes shall be dispensed with after the first daily meeting with what exception?

A

CO of the ship or officers senior to the CO, to visiting officers, officers making inspections, officers when addressing someone.

173
Q

You must render salutes to which of the following?

A

All officers of the armed forces, NOAA, Public Health Service, and foreign armed services. Also national ensign

174
Q

If in a motor vehicle during the National Anthem and conditions permit, the senior person should _____.

A

Stop vehicle, remain seated at attention

175
Q

When in uniform at a parade, if the flag passes you, you shall _____.

A

salute

176
Q

When in civilian attire at a parade, when the flag passes you shall _____.

A

Stand at attention

177
Q

The Code of Conduct is an ethical guide for members of the Armed Forces that has _____ articles.

A

6

178
Q

All members of the Armed Forces of the United States are expected to measure up to the standards embodied in the Code of Conduct _____.

A

while in combat or in captivity

179
Q

Which of the following would be a prohibited political activity for a member of the Armed Forces?

A

MAY NOT, Speak before a partisan political gathering, including any gathering that promotes a partisan political party, candidate, or cause.
MAY NOT, Participate in any radio, television, or other program or group discussion as an advocate for or against a partisan political party, candidate, or cause.

180
Q

Which of the following would be an authorized political activity for a member of the Armed Forces?

A

Attend partisan and nonpartisan political fundraising activities, meetings, rallies, debates, conventions, or activities as a spectator when not in uniform and when no inference or appearance of official sponsorship, approval, or endorsement can reasonably be drawn.

181
Q

The National Terrorism Advisory System (NTAS) consists of how many types of advisories?

A

Bulletins and Alerts

182
Q

Which FPCON applies when an increased and more predictable threat of terrorist activity exists?

A

Bravo

183
Q

Which FPCON requires the movement of cars and objects at least 25 meters from buildings?

A

Bravo

184
Q

Which FPCON applies when a general threat of possible terrorist activity exists but warrants only routine security posture?

A

Normal

185
Q

Which FPCON requires that the implemented security measures must be capable of being maintained indefinitely?

A

Alpha

186
Q

Which FPCON requires weapons to be issued to guards?

A

Charlie

187
Q

Which Type I PFD provides greater mobility when the use of law enforcement or other types of gear are required?

A

Stearns Model I600 Type I PFD or Standard Navy PFD

188
Q

Boat characteristics include which two types of frames?

A

transverse and longitudinal

189
Q

Members with a PFB waiver will trim facial hair as to not to exceed what length?

A

1/4

190
Q

Which grooming standard applies to moustaches?

A

Will not extend below the top of the upper lip or beyond the corners of the mouth.

191
Q

Who can grant a permanent shaving waiver for personnel who are diagnosed with Pseudo Folliculitis Barbae (PFB)?

A

Commanding officers or Officers-In-charge

192
Q

The Revenue Cutter Service began with _____ cutters at a cost of $1000 each.

A

10

193
Q

In 1838, Congress enacted legislation in response to steamboat boiler explosions that would evolve over the next several decades into what agency?

A

Steamboat inspection service

194
Q

The first time that a federal agency was specifically tasked with looking for people in danger was in _____ when the Revenue Cutter Gallatin was ordered to patrol the coast.

A

1831

195
Q

The United States Coast Guard was formed when the Revenue Cutter Service and Life-Saving Service were merged on what date?

A

28 JANUARY 1915

196
Q

When was the United States Coast Guard transferred to Department of Transportation?

A

01 APRIL 1967

197
Q

When was the United States Coast Guard transferred to the Department of Homeland Security?

A

01 MARCH 2003

198
Q

Alexander Hamilton was appointed to be the first _____.

A

Secretary of the Treasury

199
Q

Who was the Coast Guard’s first aviator?

A

Elmer Stone

200
Q

Who was the first Commandant of the United States Coast Guard?

A

Ellsworth Price Bertholf

201
Q

On June 19, 1911, Ellsworth Price Bertholf was named Captain Commandant of the _____.

A

United States Revenue Cutter Service

202
Q

Where did SM1 Douglas Munro aid a battalion of Marines during landing and rescue?

A

Point Cruz, Guadalcanal during WWII

203
Q

What vessel is credited with firing the first naval shot of the Civil War?

A

USRC HARRIET LANE

204
Q

The USCGC TAMPA was sunk by _____ during World War I.

A

torpedo from a German U-boat. 111 DIED

205
Q

An explosion that killed more than 1,600 people in Nova Scotia led Congress to establish _____ duties for the United States Coast Guard.

A

Captain of the port

206
Q

Captain of the Port duties were assigned to the United States Coast Guard during which military conflict?

A

WW1

207
Q

During World War I, how many USCG cutters went overseas to perform convoy escort duty between Gibraltar and Great Britain?

A

6 (not named)

208
Q

During World War II, which Coast Guard officer led a 16 member unit of his special task force on a raid to a German arsenal in Cherbourg, France?

A

Captain Quentin R. Walsh

209
Q

Which Coast Guard officer was awarded the Navy Cross for heroic actions during the liberation of 50 American paratroopers who had been prisoners since D-Day?

A

Captain Quentin R. Walsh

210
Q

During Vietnam, the United States Coast Guard conducted _____, which patrolled the South Vietnamese coast to stop the flow of war materials and personnel from going to the Viet Cong.

A

Operation Market Time

211
Q

During Vietnam, how many Point Class patrol boats from the Coast Guard were sent to Vietnam to support maritime interdiction operations?

A

26

212
Q

Where did Coast Guard Port Security Units deploy in 1990-1991?

A

Persian Gulf For Desert Shield/Storm

213
Q

In which year did the United States Coast Guard conduct the largest domestic SAR mission in United States history following Hurricane Katrina?

A

2005

214
Q

In 2010, United States Coast Guard reserves were activated in response to the Deepwater Horizon oil rig explosion that forcefully pumped oil and gasses into Gulf waters for _____ days.

A

87 Days

215
Q

DC3 Nathan Bruckenthal was posthumously awarded which award for his actions on 24 April 2004?

A

Bronze Star with Combat “V”

216
Q

Who served as a boarding officer on the USS FIREBOLT (PC 10) in Iraq when he was mortally wounded?

A

Nathan Bruckenthal

217
Q

How many times has the National Ensign been changed since 1776?

A

26

218
Q

The Coast Guard Ensign consists of _____ perpendicular stripes, alternating red and white.

A

13

219
Q

The _____ is displayed as a mark of authority for boardings, examinations, and seizure of vessels for the purpose of enforcing U.S. laws.

A

Coast Guard Ensign

220
Q

The _____ provided a symbol of authority on Revenue Cutters, as neither officer nor crew had uniforms.

A

Coast Guard Ensign

221
Q

The _____ was created to fly in place of the national flag while in American waters.

A

Coast Guard Ensign

222
Q

On 1 August 1799, Secretary of the Treasury, Oliver Wolcott, issued an order specifying the design of the _____.

A

CG Ensign

223
Q

During parades and ceremonies, the Coast Guard Standard is adorned with _____.

A

43 Battle Streamers

224
Q

The design of the _____ is obscure, but it may have evolved from an early jack.

A

Coast Guard Standard

225
Q

The _____ is the upper left corner of the Coast Guard Ensign.

A

Coast Guard Standard

226
Q

This flag is used during parades and ceremonies.

A

CG Standard

227
Q

What is carried in all ceremonies representing heroic actions in all naval encounters from 1798 to the present?

A

Battle Streamers

228
Q

Battle streamers are attached to the _____, replacing cords and tassels.

A

CG Standard

229
Q

Individual units may only display those _____ that they have earned.

A

Battle streamers

230
Q

Only _____ may display a complete set of battle streamers.

A

Major headquarters commands

231
Q

The United States Coast Guard adopted battle streamers in 1968, following the practice established by the _____.

A

u.s. marine corps

232
Q

The _____ is flown on the bow of a vessel, only while at anchor or moored in port.

A

Union jack

233
Q

The presence of the _____ indicates that a cutter is under the command of a commissioned officer.

A

Commissioning Pennant

234
Q

The _____ is used on invitations, programs, certificates, diplomas, and greetings.

A

CG Seal

235
Q

The first Coast Guard Seal and Emblem were approved by Treasury Secretary Andrew W. Mellon in _____.

A

1927

236
Q

The Coast Guard _____ was ordered to be used on the Coast Guard Ensign as a distinctive logo in 1957.

A

Emblem

237
Q

The historical significance of the Coast Guard _____ dates back to the Revenue Cutter Service.

A

Shield

238
Q

The _____ consists of a wide red bar forward of a narrow blue bar both canted at 64 degrees on the bow with CG emblem superimposed.

A

CG Stripe

239
Q

The _____ was developed in the 1960s by the industrial design firm Raymond Loewy/Williams Snaith, Inc.

A

CG Stripe , 1964 proposed 1967 implemented

240
Q

When was the Coast Guard Motto adopted?

A

Per the book October 1896 and May 1897
Also 21 May 1897 is specifically mentioned

241
Q

The earliest recorded use of the phrase “Semper Paratus” appeared in a newspaper article in the city of _____, praising the Revenue Cutter Ingham.

A

New Orleans

242
Q

The music for Semper Paratus was written by _____.

A

Captain Francis Saltus Van Boskerck

243
Q

What is a Safety Data Sheet (SDS)?

A

detailed informational document prepared by a manufacturer or importer of a hazardous chemical

244
Q

What must be readily accessible to all workers while in their work area, when workers are required to use HAZMAT or when workers are at risk of exposure to HAZMAT?

A

SDS

245
Q

If the Safety Data Sheet (SDS) is not available, who must the unit notify to obtain the SDS?

A

The manufacturer

246
Q

The standard Globally Harmonized System (GHS) format for a safety data sheet includes _____ sections, in a specified order.

A

16

247
Q

Specific hazard information may not be present on a chemical container. As a result, you must consult the _____ to prevent improper use or handling.

A

SDS

248
Q

What is the Active and Reserve Gold Badge assignment standard tour length?

A

2 Years

249
Q

Who must provide the Commander/Commanding Officer endorsement for all CSELs except the MCPOCG and MCPO-CGR?

A

CSEL, RFMC, SEL
CSEL- command senior enlisted leader

250
Q

What program is intended to assist you in becoming familiar with your new community and the resources available when you are reassigned?

A

Relocation Assistance Program

251
Q

Who can provide you with community information, demographics information, relocation packages, and state information when you are reassigned?

A

Transition/Relocation Managers

252
Q

Your _____ can help you utilize the Office of Work-Life Adoption Reimbursement Program.

A

Family Resource Specialist

253
Q

Who is your point of contact for information relating to the Coast Guard Scholarship Program?

A

Family Resource Specialist

254
Q

What form is used to enroll my dependent family member with medical special needs into the Special Needs Program (SNP)?

A

dd-2792

255
Q

What is the title for staff members at Health, Safety, and Work-Life Regional Practices specifically trained to assist individuals and commands when maltreatment incidents occur?

A

Family Advocacy Specialist

256
Q

One purpose of the Family Advocacy Program is to _____.

A

Prevention, identification, reporting, investigation, and treatment of intimate partner and child maltreatment.

257
Q

CGSUPRT is part of HSWL’s _____.

A

Office of work life

258
Q

Members can call _____ 24 hours a day, 365 days a year, to speak with an experienced and highly trained counselor.

A

CG SUPRT

259
Q

The _____ has been designed to capture a valid, reliable assessment of enlisted members’ performance, so the Coast Guard can advance and assign them with a high degree of confidence.

A

Enlisted Evaluation System

260
Q

The end of marking periods for pay grades are the last day of which months?

A

E-1 January (all) & July (AD only)
E-2 January (all) & July (AD only)
E-3 February (all) & August (AD only)
E-4 March (all) & September (AD only)
E-5 April (all) & October (AD only)
E-6 May (all)
E-7 September (all)
E-8 February (AD only) or November (Reserves)
E-9 June (all)

261
Q

The Marking Official should route the completed evaluation report to the approving official no later than ____ days after the evaluation report period ending date.

A

9 days

262
Q

Which factor type in the EER measures the member’s ability to bring credit to the Coast Guard through personal demeanor and professional actions?

A

Military

263
Q

Which factor type in the EER measures a member’s ability to direct, guide, develop, influence, and support others performing work?

A

Leadership

264
Q

Performance Standards are the written criteria that outlines the expected performance to receive a mark of _____ in each competency.

A

2,4,6

265
Q

Appeals to the approving official’s decision on the advancement recommendation _____.

A

15 days after the signature date on the acknowledgement section of the counseling sheet

266
Q

The appeals process is designed to review marks the evaluee believes were based on which of the following?

A

Incorrect Information, Prejudice, Discrimination Disproportionately low marks for the particular circumstances

267
Q

What must be contained in an appeal letter for an EER?

A

The specific competencies in dispute and supporting documentation

268
Q

What responsibility does the member have in the EER appeal process?

A

Request and audience
Written appeal
The appeal letter
Submission deadline
Appealing After the Deadline If appealing more than 15 calendar days (45 calendar days for reservists) after the date the member signed the evaluation report acknowledgment section, the member must explain the circumstances that precluded them from submitting the appeal within the prescribed time limit.

269
Q

As a result of an EER appeal, what actions may an approving official take?

A

The approving official may meet with the member and come to a resolution

270
Q

What is the deadline for active duty members to submit an appeal for their EER?

A

15 calendar days

271
Q

What is the deadline for reservists to submit an appeal for their marks?

A

45 Calendar Days

272
Q

The Discipline and Conduct manual stipulates that coercing or encouraging another member to fully or partially disrobe is an example of _____.

A

Hazing

273
Q

Hazing can include which of the following?

A

Abusive tricks
Throwing personnel over the side
Tacking on crows
Forcing consumption
Group wrestling
Encouraging excessive amounts of alcohol consumption
Abuse of water
Shaving/Cutting hair
branding
coercing to Disrobing
Taping or tying limbs
Handcuffing
Using LE restraints
Placing foreign liquids
Offensive touching
Striking
Threatening violence
Oral or written berating

274
Q

Which directive requires a commanding officer to “prohibit unit introductory initiations or hazing of personnel”?

A

United States Coast Guard Regulations 1992, COMDTINST M5000.3 (series)

275
Q

Which is true of hazing?

A

actual or implied consent does not eliminate the perpetrator’s culpability
- Traditional service initiation ceremonies, including Chief’s Initiations and equator, international dateline, and Arctic and Antarctic Circle crossings, are authorized, provided commands comply with governing directives when conducting such ceremonies.

276
Q

Subjecting an individual military member to harassment or ridicule for the purposes of “inclusion” is defined as _____.

A

Hazing

277
Q

Which is true of hazing and bullying?

A

Hazing and bullying erodes mission readiness and will not be tolerated

278
Q

If a person knowingly and voluntarily submits to hazing, ____.

A

May be held accountable as well

279
Q

Which of the following would be an example of an appropriate relationship?

A

(1) Two crewmembers going to an occasional movie, dinner, concert, or other social event. (2) Members jogging or participating in wellness or recreational activities together.

280
Q

An interpersonal relationship in a professional work environment would be prohibited in what case?

A

Supervisors and subordinates in private business together

Supervisors and subordinates in a romantic relationship

281
Q

Which of the following is an example of unacceptable conduct?

A

Supervisors and subordinates gambling

Giving or receiving gifts

Changing rosters or work schedules

Instructors/Recruiters soliciting, proving alcohol, lending money, using personal vehicles to transports possible recruits, employing a possible recruit for personal services

282
Q

Which would be an acceptable romantic relationship?

A

Enlisted to enlisted / officer to officer peer to peer relationship

Military and Civilian CG employee

283
Q

Officer instructors at officer entry level accession programs engaging in a romantic relationship with an individual who has graduated from, or who last attended, an entry level accession program within the preceding 365 days _____.

A

Prohibited

284
Q

Engaging in sexually intimate behavior in which of the following situations would be prohibited?

A

Aboard any Coast Guard vessel, or in any Coast Guard-controlled work place

285
Q

A romantic relationship involving a former recruiter and a prospective member are prohibited until what point?

A

365 days after last contact

286
Q

Violating policy on limited personal use of government office equipment and services is punishable under which article of the UCMJ?

A

Article 92

287
Q

Which of the following is an example of prohibited use of government office equipment?

A

Using government equipment for sexual material

Intentionally creating, copy, or transmitting material that may be discriminatory to fellow employees

Loading personal or unauthorized software

Making unauthorized configuration changes

Using equipment as a staging ground

Deliberate introduction of viruses

Intentionally creating, copying, or transmitting
SPAM

Subscribing or downloading media not authorized by the CG

Connecting personally-owned IT equipment
Misuse of sensitive information

288
Q

What is the dollar value limit placed on gifts given to an official superior on an occasional basis?

A

$20 or less no more than $50 in one year

289
Q
A

YNCS EPME (1 decks)

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