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Flashcards in 204 Deck (58):
1

2

According to M.P. 204.01 Hazardous Materials (R 04/98), command should consider establishing _________ whenever possible for other responding units.

Level 2 staging

3

According to M.P. 204.01 Hazardous Materials (R 04/98), take immediate action to evacuate and/or rescue persons in critical danger, if possible, providing for ____________.

The safety of rescuers first.

4

According to M.P. 204.01 Hazardous Materials (R 04/98), the primary objective (during size up) is to identify the type of materials involved in situation, and the hazards presented, before formulating a __________.

Plan of action.

5

According to M.P. 204.01 Hazardous Materials (R 04/98), the action plan must provide for… (5)

1. safety of all personnel 2. evacuation of endangered area, in needed 3. control of situation 4. stabilization of haz materials and/or 5. disposal/removal of hazmat

6

According to M.P. 204.01 Hazardous Materials (R 04/98), as a general policy, the hazardous materials team will respond to any situation where a ______________.

Private contractor is required to clean up hazardous materials.

7

According to M.P. 204.01 Hazardous Materials (R 04/98), what two zones are associated with a hazmat incident?

Limited access zone (LAZ) Evacuation zone (EZ)

8

According to M.P. 204.01 Hazardous Materials (R 04/98), in which zone are personnel potentially n immediate danger from hazardous conditions?

Limited access zone. It should be geographically described and identified with yellow fire line tape.

9

According to M.P. 204.01 Hazardous Materials (R 04/98), which zone poses a lesser degree of risk to personnel?

Evacuation zone.

10

According to M.P. 204.01 Hazardous Materials (R 04/98), once the hazmat sector has been established, hazmat sector will define and establish a ______________.

Hot, warm and cold zone.

11

According to M.P. 204.01A Hazardous Materials Evacuation (R 11/96), what are the three levels of evacuation?

Site evacuation Intermediate Level Evacuation Large Scale Evacuation

12

According to M.P. 204.01A Hazardous Materials Evacuation (R 11/96), describe a site evacuation.

It involves a small number of citizens, easily evacuated and collected upwind at the perimeter area for usually less than an hour or two.

13

According to M.P. 204.01A Hazardous Materials Evacuation (R 11/96), describe intermediate level evacuation.

Affects off-site homes/businesses (usually fewer than 100 persons) that remain out of area for 2-4 hours.

14

According to M.P. 204.01A Hazardous Materials Evacuation (R 11/96), describe large scale evacuation.

Possibly thousands of evacuees, out of their homes and businesses for many hours if not days.

15

According to M.P. 204.01A Hazardous Materials Evacuation (R 11/96),in place sheltering can be considered during which circumstances?

-hazardous material has been identified as low or moderate health risk -material released frim container and dissipating -leaks controlled rapidly before evac can be completed -exposure is short term and low health risk -public adequately protected by staying indoors

16

According to M.P. 204.01A Hazardous Materials Evacuation (R 11/96), what areas should be evacuated first?

-those at greatest risk -greatest concentrated areas next (apt complex)

17

According to M.P. 204.01A Hazardous Materials Evacuation (R 11/96), what should you wear during door to door evacuations?

-Uniform and helmet

18

According to M.P. 204.01A Hazardous Materials Evacuation (R 11/96), what method should be used to evacuate if door to door is not possible?

-3 five second blasts on yelp -PA evac instructions on max vol -proceed slowly -initiate notification at the beginning of every block and every 50 yards after

19

According to M.P. 204.01A Hazardous Materials Evacuation (R 11/96), what should you do if a citizen refuses to leave?

-Uniform, helmet, scba -ask for next of kin/write it down -documentation (address)

20

According to M.P. 204.01A Hazardous Materials Evacuation (R 11/96), anytime more than ________ persons are evacuated, the duty deputy advises the city manager or his designee of the situation.

10

21

According to M.P. 204.01A Hazardous Materials Evacuation (R 11/96), the decision to return evacuees to their homes is the sole responsibility of the ____________ or ___________.

-incident commander -EOC staff if it is operating

22

According to M.P. 204.02 Mercury Releases (R 07/94), what are the three types of Mercury release?

MOST COMMON -Elemental mercury -Inorganic Mercury LEAST COMMON -Organic

23

According to M.P. 204.02 Mercury Releases (R 07/94), where is Elemental mercury found and what are the signs/symptoms?

-BP cuffs, thermometers, labs, also same processes as inorganic -fever, chills, dyspnea, n/v, headache (supportive care with transport)

24

According to M.P. 204.02 Mercury Releases (R 07/94), where is inorganic mercury found and what are the s/s?

-scientific instruments, electrical equipment, felt making, caustic soda manufacturing, disc batteries -burning mouth, sore throat, n/v with severe gingivitis (supportive care with transport

25

According to M.P. 204.02 Mercury Releases (R 07/94), where is organic mercury found and what are the s/s?

-mining, smelting, refining ops -hearing defects, loss of concentration

26

According to M.P. 204.02 Mercury Releases (R 07/94), what are the command responsibilities?

-try to determine amount released, source, size of affected are -evacuate, isolate, and deny entry

27

According to M.P. 204.02 Mercury Releases (R 07/94), when is it okay for FD personnel to take possession of mercury?

-when a resident brings it to the station, but not from a commercial business

28

According to M.P. 204.02 Mercury Releases (R 07/94), the AZ department of environmental quality has determined that a mercury release that occurs in a residence, including the interior of apartments, is household _____________. As a result the release is exempt from cleanup requirements.

-hazardous waste

29

According to M.P. 204.03 Radiological Hazards (R 04/98), how should radiological incidents with fire be addressed?

-initiate normal tactical firefighting ops -approach from upwind -do not ventilate -minimize water use -control water runoff/impound for disposal -minimize exposure of personnel -use full PPE

30

According to M.P. 204.03 Radiological Hazards (R 04/98), if a nuclear weapon involves fire, evacuate the area of ___________ in all directions, immediately.

-2000 ft

31

According to M.P. 204.04 Flammable Liquid Incidents (R 03/09), what are the 4 primary areas of concern at a flammable liquid incident?

-extinguishment of flammable liquid fires -spills without fire -disposal -firefighter safety

32

According to M.P. 204.04 Flammable Liquid Incidents (R 03/09), the ___________ with flammable liquids makes them a particular concern for the FD.

-frequency of encounters

33

According to M.P. 204.04 Flammable Liquid Incidents (R 03/09), the main operational problems with flammable liquids are fire extinguishment, ignition ____________, and __________ of spills.

-prevention -disposal

34

According to M.P. 204.04 Flammable Liquid Incidents (R 03/09), the preferred agent for flammable liquid fire fighting is _____________.

AFFF (Aqueous Film Forming Foam) or Class B Foam

35

According to M.P. 204.04 Flammable Liquid Incidents (R 03/09), when the fuel is ethanol or ethanol based, fire attack should utilize an ____________ due to the high alcohol content of the fuel. It is also required when dealing with any polar (___________) flammable liquid.

-alcohol resistant aqueous film forming foam or AR-AFFF

36

According to M.P. 204.04 Flammable Liquid Incidents (R 03/09), explain the extinguishing action of class B foam on flammable liquid incidents.

It is based on its ability to rapidly cover the flammable liquid surface with a film, which prevents the escape of flammable vapors (may have difficulty sealing against hot metal surfaces).

37

According to M.P. 204.04 Flammable Liquid Incidents (R 03/09), the application of class b foam should be _______ to avoid breaking the seal and agitating the liquid below.

-gentle

38

According to M.P. 204.04 Flammable Liquid Incidents (R 03/09), dry class A compressed air foam (@ 1%) can be used to extinguish _______ flammable liquid fire,

-small (ie car with leaking fuel tank)

39

According to M.P. 204.04 Flammable Liquid Incidents (R 03/09), class A foam has ______ ability to suppress vapors; ______ is an extreme possibility.

-NO -reignition

40

According to M.P. 204.04 Flammable Liquid Incidents (R 03/09), if extinguishment with CAFS is being performed during a rescue, _________ application of new foam is required as long as crews are in the hazard zone.

-continuous

41

According to M.P. 204.04 Flammable Liquid Incidents (R 03/09), it may be more important for command to wait until there us enough class B foam on site to initiate a coordinated attack. One 95 GPM class B foam line is needed for every _______ square feet of spill area. The initial fire attack will require ______ gallons of concentrate when used at 3% and 374 when used at _______. Water master streams should be used to cool and protect exposures during the interim.

-600 -187 -6%

42

According to M.P. 204.04 Flammable Liquid Incidents (R 03/09), cover spills with class B foam to seal vapors. The application will need to be repeated regularly, as the seal will break down in __________minutes. One 95 gpm class B Foam line is needed for every 600 square feet. The initial application will require _____ gallons when used at 3% and 86 gallons of concentrate when used at _________.

-10-15 -43 -6%

43

According to M.P. 204.05 Natural Gas Emergencies (R 10/97), natural gas is ______ than air and will usually dissipate rapidly in the outside environment.

-lighter

44

According to M.P. 204.05 Natural Gas Emergencies (R 10/97), the flammable limits are approximately ____ to ____ in air. Natural gas itself is nontoxic, however, it _________ oxygen and can result in asphyxiation if in a confined space.

-4% -15% -displaces

45

According to M.P. 204.05 Natural Gas Emergencies (R 10/97), burning natural gas should not normally be extinguished, since this would change the situation from a visible to invisible hazard with explosive potential. Fire should be controlled by ___________.

-stopping the flow

46

According to M.P. 204.05 Natural Gas Emergencies (R 10/97), if gas company personnel must excavate to shut off a leak, provide stand by protection with a charged 1 ½ inch line and _____ firefighters in full PPE.

-2

47

According to M.P. 204.07 Clandestine Drug laboratories (R 06/97), shutting off the water supply to a cooking process can result in an ________________.

-explosion

48

According to M.P. 204.07 Clandestine Drug laboratories (R 06/97), what are the common indicators of clandestine drug laboratories.?

-unusual odors like ether, acetic, solvents and odors of urea. -glassware normally associated with school laboratories -heating elements, hot plates or heating mantles -vacuum pumps, plastic or rubber tubing -marked and unmarked chemical containers

49

According to M.P. 204.07 Clandestine Drug laboratories (R 06/97), personnel that encounter a suspected laboratory should ___________.

-withdraw to a safe location.

50

According to M.P. 204.07 Clandestine Drug laboratories (R 06/97), the color of the flames may appear to be an ______________, or the flames may be of several different colors. An unusual color of smoke or odor may also be present.

-unusually bright or dark orange

51

According to M.P. 204.07 Clandestine Drug laboratories (R 06/97), a defensive mode may be appropriate for personnel safety. Standard protective clothing and scba may not afford complete protection. An acceptable alternative is to __________ and allow the fire to burn. Diking may be necessary.

-protect exposures

52

According to M.P. 204.08 Confined Space Rescue (R 07/11), what is the definition of a confined space?

-a space large enough for personnel to physically enter. -a space not designed for continuous employee occupancy -an area with limited entry and egress

53

According to M.P. 204.09 Trench rescue Operations (R 07/11), what is an excavation?

Any depression, hole, trench, or earth wall, man made or natural, of four feet or greater.

54

According to M.P. 204.09 Trench rescue Operations (R 07/11), begin an immediate size up of the situation while ensuring the apparatus remains at least ______ feet from the location of trench failure. Command shall announce that level 1 staging should take place at least _______ feet from the trench failure.

-50 -150

55

According to M.P. 204.09 Trench rescue Operations (R 07/11), establish a hazard zone perimeter ______ feet from the collapse area. Remove all non-essential civilian personnel at least _______ feet away from the collapse area. Re-route all non essential traffic at least ______ and shut down all heavy equipment within that area.

-50 -150 -300

56

According to M.P. 204.10 Mountain Rescue Operations (R 07/11), what is the difference between non-technical and technical rescue?

-Non technical: rescues with angles of inclination less than 40 degrees. Most first responders have the equipment and training to affect this type of rescue. -technical: rescues with angles of inclination from 40-90 degrees. Performed by TRT and require rope rescue.

57

According to M.P. 204.10 Mountain Rescue Operations (R 07/11), the first arriving TRT unit staffed with a TRT Company Officer should be assigned __________.

Rescue Sector.

58

According to M.P. 204.12 Structural Collapse Rescue Operations (R 07/11), remove all non-essential civilian personnel at least ______ feet away from the HAZARD ZONE PERIMETER.

-150 FEET