Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

From Flashcardlet > 311-MIDTERM > Flashcards

311-MIDTERM Flashcards

Midterm-Patient Assessment

1
Q

Define APNEA.

A

Absence of spontaneous ventilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Define EUPNEA.

A

Normal RATE and DEPTH of breathing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Define BRADYPNEA.

A

Less than normal RATE of breathing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Define TACHYPNEA.

A

Rapid RATE of breathing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Define HYPOPNEA.

A

Decreased DEPTH of breathing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Define HYPERPNEA.

A

Increased DEPTH of breathing with or without an increased rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Define SIGHING RESPIRATION.

A

Normal rate and depth of breathing with periodic deep audible breaths

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Intermittent Breathing.

A

Irregular breathing with periods of apnea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Define TREOPNEA.

A

Dyspnea in one lateral position but not in the other lateral position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Define PLATYPNEA.

A

Dyspnea caused by upright posture and relieved by a recumbent position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Define ORTHODEOXIA.

A

Arterial oxygen desaturation (hypoxemia) that is produced by assuming an upright position and relieved by returning to a recumbent position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Define AIR HUNGER.

A

A grave sign indicating the need for immediate transfusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Describe Biot’s Respirations.

A

Episodes of rapid, uniformly deep inspirations, followed by long periods (20-30 seconds) of apnea, commonly seen in patients suffering from meningitis or increased intracranial pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Describe Cheyne-Stokes Respirations

A

Apnea lasting 10 to 30 seconds followed by gradually increasing depth and frequency of respirations associated with cerebral disorders and congestive heart failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Define DYSPNEA.

A

Shortness of breath or a difficulty in breathing of which the individual is aware (pt. has to state shortness of breath)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Describe physiology of HYPERVENTILATION.

A

Increased alveolar ventilation caused by an increased ventilatory rate, an increased depth of breathing, or a combination of both that causes the PaCO2 and PACO2 to decrease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Describe physiology of HYPOVENTILATION.

A

Decreased alveolar ventilation caused by a decreased ventilatory rate, a decreased depth of breathing, or a combination of both that causes the PaCO2 and PACO2 to increase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Describe Kussmaul’s Respirations.

A

Both an increased depth (hyperpnea) and rate of breathing (tachypnea) commonly associated with diabetic acidosis (ketoacidosis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Define ORTHOPNEA.

A

Condition in which an individual is able to breathe comfortably in the upright position, but cannot breathe in the recumbent position (lying down). This is determined by asking the pt. how many pillows they use to sleep at night

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Describe Apneustic Breathing.

A

Prolonged inspiration (associated with brain damage)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Describe Paradoxical Respiration.

A

A portion of the chest wall moves in with inspiration and out during expiration (associated with chest trauma)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Define Abdominal Paradoxus.

A

Inward movement of the anterior abdomen during inspiration (this is best seen in supine position). Associated with diaphragmatic fatigue as commonly seen in severe COPD patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Describe Asthmatic Breathing.

A

Prolonged expiratory phase (associated with partial airway obstruction)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Define Pulse Pressure.

A

The difference between systolic and diastolic pressures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Normal Pulse Pressure range?

A

35 to 40 mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Normal range for Systolic pressure in adults?

A

90-140 mmHg (Average being 120 mmHg)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Normal range for Diastolic pressure in adults?

A

60-90 mmHg (Average being 80 mmHg)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Define HYPERTENSION.

A

A blood pressure persistently above 140/90 mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Define Malignant Hypertension.

A

A Diastolic pressure higher than 120 mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Define Hypertensive Crisis.

A

A sudden severe increase in BP to a level exceeding 200/120 mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Define HYPOTENSION.

A

Blood pressure less than 90/60 mmHg in adults

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Describe Postural Hypotension.

A

BP can fall significantly when patient sits up (and hypovolemia or vasodilation is present)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Causes of YELLOW Sputum.

A

Pulmonary infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Yellow Sputum indicates?

A

Presence of white blood cells, bacterial infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Explain Objective Data versus Subjective Data.

A

Objective Data-Measurable symptoms (Examples:Temp, HR, RR, BP, ABG, etc.)

Subjective Data- Unmeasurable symptoms (ex: what patient states–headache or stomach ache)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Define Differential Diagnosis.

A

the determination of which of two or more diseases with similar symptoms is the one from which the patient is suffering, by a systematic comparison and contrasting of the clinical findings.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Color of Purulent Sputum.

A

Yellow/Green

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Explain why it is necessary to take a patient’s vital signs.

A
  1. To determine relative status of vital organs (heart, blood vessels, and lungs)
  2. Identify physiologic problems or improvements
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What would the doctor order if they were concerned about a patient’s fluid status such as a pt. with congestive heart failure.

A

I/O tracking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Define Tachycardia.

A

Higher than normal Heart Rate. Above 100bpm.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Define Pulse Deficit.

A

The difference in the auscultated beat and the peripheral pulse beats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Define Bradycardia.

A

Below normal heart rate. Below 60 beats per minute.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Explain Chief Complaint.

A

The problem or condition that brought the patient to the hospital.

44
Q

List the causes of Tachypnea.

A

May be caused by:

  • Exercise
  • Atelectasis
  • Fever
  • Reduced arterial blood oxygen content (arterial hypoxemia)
  • Metabolic acidosis
  • Anxiety
  • Pain
45
Q

Describe the difference in a traditional medical record versus a POMR.

A

ADD.

46
Q

Describe the difference in Chest Pain and Pleuritic Chest Pain.

A

Pleuritic pain: located laterally or posteriorly, worsens with deep breath described as sharp, stabbing pain

Non-pleuritic pain: located typically in center of anterior chest and may radiate to the shoulder or back, described as dull ache or pressure type of pain

47
Q

Describe Hemoptysis.

A

Coughing up blood or blood streaked sputum from the lungs.

48
Q

Describe Hematamesis.

A

Vomiting blood from the gastrointestinal tract.

49
Q

Describe Restrictive Lung Diseases.

A

Low compliance of the lungs or chest wall. Decreased volume of the lungs.

50
Q

Describe Obstructive Lung Diseases.

A

Increased resistance to air flow.

51
Q

Calculating Smoking History in Pack-Years.

A

(Number of packs patient smokes a day) multiplied by (number of years patient has been smoking) (Ex. 2 packs a day for 10 years= 20 pack-years)

52
Q

Name the sounds heard when taking Blood Pressure.

A

Korotkoff Sounds—-used to determined systolic and diastolic pressures

53
Q

Explain causes of Tachycardia.

A
  • Anxiety
  • Fear
  • Exercise
  • Fever
  • High ambient temperature
  • Low blood pressure
  • Anemia
  • Hypoxemia
  • Medications
54
Q

Explain causes of Bradycardia.

A
  • Cardia arrhythmia
  • Cardiomyopathy
  • Cervical spinal injury
  • Hypothermia
  • Hypothyroidism
  • Myocardial infarction
55
Q

Explain causes of inaccurate BP measurement.

A 
Cuff too tight/loose
Incorrect positioning
Excessive pressure placed in cuff
Inflation pressure held in cuff
Incomplete deflationary of cuff between measurements
Cuff is too small
56
Q

Define Pulsus Alternans

A

Alternating succession of strong and weak pulses.

57
Q

Define Pulsus Paradoxus /Paradoxical Pulse.

A

Significant decrease in pulse strength during spontaneous inhalation.

58
Q

Define Psychogenic Dyspnea.

A

Pain related dyspnea. Continuous hyperventilation or deep sighing respirations at maximal depth.

59
Q

Define Paroxysmal Nocturnal Dyspnea.

A

Sudden onset of difficulty breathing that occurs when a sleeping patient is lying down.

60
Q

Define Fever.

A

Abnormally high body temperature.

Also called hyperthermia or hyperpyrexia.

61
Q

What constitutes a High-grade fever?

A

> 101 degrees F

62
Q

What constitutes a low-grade fever?

A

Temperature between 99.5-101 degrees F

63
Q

Describe Early Inspiratory Crackles and what causes them.

A

They are not silenced by a cough or change in position.

Causes: COPD, Chronic Bronchitis, Emphysema, and Asthma

64
Q

Describe Coarse Crackles.

A

Often produced by the movement of excessive secretions or fluid in the airways as air passes through

65
Q

Describe Fine Crackles.

A

Result when the terminal airways pop open late in inspiration because fluid or secretions have accumulated.

66
Q

Conditions that cause Late Inspiratory Crackles

A

Atelectasis, pneumonia, pulmonary edema, and fibrosis

67
Q

Describe the sounds associated with pleural friction rub and name causes of this sound pleural surfaces become inflamed and the roughened edges rub together during breathing.

Causes: Pleurisy and Pleural effusion

A

Creaking or grating type of sound that occurs when

68
Q

Define BRONCHOPHONY.

A

Abnormal voice sounds over lung consolidation

68
Q

Define BRONCHOPHONY.

A

Abnormal voice sounds over lung consolidation

69
Q

Define EGOPHONY.

A

Sound of normal voice tones as heard through the chest wall during auscultation

69
Q

Define EGOPHONY.

A

Sound of normal voice tones as heard through the chest wall during auscultation

70
Q

Define PECTORILOQUY.

A

Transmission of the sounds of speech through the chest wall

70
Q

Define PECTORILOQUY.

A

Transmission of the sounds of speech through the chest wall

71
Q

Explain where the normal apical pulse is located on the patient.

A

It is located at the apex of the heart, in the 5th intercostal space on the left mid-clavicular line

71
Q

Explain where the normal apical pulse is located on the patient.

A

It is located at the apex of the heart, in the 5th intercostal space on the left mid-clavicular line

72
Q

Name the condition that causes an S2 sound.

A

Pulmonary Hypertension

72
Q

Name the condition that causes an S2 sound.

A

Pulmonary Hypertension

73
Q

Define cor pulmonale. Explain signs/symptoms.

A

Right ventricular failure and pulmonary hypertension due to chronic lung disorders. Pedal Edema can be seen as the main symptom of cor pulmonale

73
Q

Define cor pulmonale. Explain signs/symptoms.

A

Right ventricular failure and pulmonary hypertension due to chronic lung disorders. Pedal Edema can be seen as the main symptom of cor pulmonale

74
Q

Define HEPATOMEGALY

A

Abnormal enlargement of the liver. The hepatic vein becomes engorged with blood. Collection of fluid then builds up in peritoneal cavity and can impair function of diaphragm.

74
Q

Define HEPATOMEGALY

A

Abnormal enlargement of the liver. The hepatic vein becomes engorged with blood. Collection of fluid then builds up in peritoneal cavity and can impair function of diaphragm.

75
Q

Name conditions associated with Digital Clubbing.

A

Lung cancers/tumors, Cystic firbosis, chronic heart disease, congenital heart disease, liver and gastrointestinal disease

75
Q

Name conditions associated with Digital Clubbing.

A

Lung cancers/tumors, Cystic firbosis, chronic heart disease, congenital heart disease, liver and gastrointestinal disease

76
Q

Name the cause of Pedal Edema in a lung disease patient.

A

When venous return is decreased due to hypoxemia the blood becomes engorged in peripheral blood vessels which causes fluid collection in subcutaneous tissues of ankles (due to gravity)

76
Q

Name the cause of Pedal Edema in a lung disease patient.

A

When venous return is decreased due to hypoxemia the blood becomes engorged in peripheral blood vessels which causes fluid collection in subcutaneous tissues of ankles (due to gravity)

77
Q

Explain what poor capillary refill indicates.

A

It suggests peripheral vascular disease, arterial blockage, heart failure, or shock

77
Q

Explain what poor capillary refill indicates.

A

It suggests peripheral vascular disease, arterial blockage, heart failure, or shock

78
Q

Explain what cool extremities indicates.

A

Inadequate perfusion/ blood circulation

78
Q

Explain what cool extremities indicates.

A

Inadequate perfusion/ blood circulation

79
Q

Explain where/how to determine the rate and rhythm of the heart is performed.

A

Apex of the heart located in the 5th intercostal space, of the left mid-clavicular line

79
Q

Explain where/how to determine the rate and rhythm of the heart is performed.

A

Apex of the heart located in the 5th intercostal space, of the left mid-clavicular line

80
Q

Explain what an S4 sounds indicates.

A

This indicates a Myocardial infarction

80
Q

Explain what an S4 sounds indicates.

A

This indicates a Myocardial infarction

81
Q

Define Hoover’s Sign.

A

Inward movement of the lower lateral margins of the chest wall with each inspiratory effort due to low, flat diaphragm as seen in emphysema

81
Q

Define Hoover’s Sign.

A

Inward movement of the lower lateral margins of the chest wall with each inspiratory effort due to low, flat diaphragm as seen in emphysema

82
Q

Name disease associated with Barrel chest.

A

Emphysema or COPD

82
Q

Name disease associated with Barrel chest.

A

Emphysema or COPD

83
Q

Explain what Abdominal Paradoxus indicates.

A

Diaphragm Fatigue

83
Q

Explain what Abdominal Paradoxus indicates.

A

Diaphragm Fatigue

84
Q

Define Subcutaneous Emphysema.

A

Accumulation of air in the subcutaneous tissues due to leakage from the lung

84
Q

Define Subcutaneous Emphysema.

A

Accumulation of air in the subcutaneous tissues due to leakage from the lung

85
Q

Name causes of Biot’s Respirations.

A

Increased intracranial pressure

85
Q

Name causes of Biot’s Respirations.

A

Increased intracranial pressure

86
Q

Name most common cause of Jugular Venous Distension.

A

Hypervolemia, Right and left sided heart failure, mediastinal tumors

86
Q

Name most common cause of Jugular Venous Distension.

A

Hypervolemia, Right and left sided heart failure, mediastinal tumors

87
Q

Name conditions that cause Pleural Friction Rub

A

Pleurisy, Pulmonary embolism, T

87
Q

Name conditions that cause Pleural Friction Rub

A

Pleurisy, Pulmonary embolism, TB

From Flashcardlet (17 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions