311 UNIT TWO EXAM Flashcards

Ethical Principles, Patient Education, and Healthcare Reimbursement

1
Q

Define AUTONOMY

A

Deals with the ability to govern one’s self.

*Exceptions include children and mentally incompetent

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2
Q

Define BENEFICENCE

A

Means to always do good for those we serve–our patients

*Application of the principle of nonmaleficence

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3
Q

Define CONFIDENTIALITY

A

Means that information entrusted to us in the line of duty should not be revealed to others except when necessary for us to carry out our duty

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4
Q

Define FIDELITY

A

An obligation, or faithfulness, to our duty

*Deals with loyalty

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5
Q

Define JUSTICE

A

States that everyone is entitled to equal care

*Equality of care refers to both to access to care and the level of care

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6
Q

Define NONMALEFICENCE

A

Means NOT to inflict harm

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7
Q

Define SANCTITY OF LIFE

A

Means that life has value and must be preserved

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8
Q

Define UTILITARIANISM

A

Means that the greatest good should be done for the greatest number of people

*Considered as both Ethical Principle and Ethical Theory

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9
Q

Define VERACITY

A

Means honesty

  • Applies to the question whether to tell the truth or alter the truth when the fact may be harmful
  • -Ex: When family members request that their loved ones not be told the truth or if the physician decides not to be completely truthful with the patient.

**As an RT, defer questions to attending physician

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10
Q

Define PATERNALISM

A

Means to protect someone from his or her own judgements

*The parents were bound to their child when you were born

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11
Q

Define QUALITY OF LIFE

A

Implies that if there is no quality of life, then life is not worth living

*When individuals are alive but lack major bodily functions or survive only by means of life support equipment

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12
Q

Define REPARATION

A

Means there is an obligation to repair any harm caused to others either accidentally or intentionally

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13
Q

Name the Characteristics of RTs.

A
  • Completes accredited RT program
  • Obtains professional credentials
  • Participates in continuing education activities
  • Adheres to code of ethics put forth by his/her institution and/or licensing board
  • Joins professional organizations
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14
Q

Explain Civil Law

A

Addresses dealings among citizens, governmental entities, and corporations

*Involve disputes over contracts or compensation for injuries and damages by one party to another

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15
Q

Name Two Divisions of Public Law.

A

Criminal and Administrative Law

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16
Q

Explain Criminal Law

A

Deals with acts or offenses against the welfare or safety of the public

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17
Q

Explain Administrative Law

A

Consists of countless regulations set by governmental agencies

*Healthcare facilities are inundated by a host of administrative and agency rules that affect almost every aspect of operation

**RTs are obligated to abide by these rules and regulations

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18
Q

Purpose of Professional Practice Acts

A

These offer guidance on ethical dilemmas, and layout guidelines for ethical conduct

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19
Q

Purpose of The Respiratory Care Practice Act

A

Contributes to the effort to regulate the practice of respiratory care

*An example of a uniform act that many states have adopted

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20
Q

Describe the AARC Code of Ethics

A

ADD INFO

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21
Q

Explain the potential liability of Respiratory Care.

A

RTs have a legal responsibility to perform duties in a competent manner

*Failure to do so will result in a situation where the practitioner must assume professional liability for their actions

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22
Q

Define TORT

A

This is a civil wrongdoing committed toward someone that results in harm or injury

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23
Q

Name the basic functions of a Tort

A
  • To keep the peace between individuals

- Substitute a remedy for personal injury instead of vengeance

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24
Q

Name the three basic forms of Torts

A

Negligent torts, intentional torts, and torts in which liability must be assessed regardless of fault (manufacturers-defective products)

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25
Q

Define and explain an Intentional Tort

A

This always involves a willful act that violates another’s interest

*The practitioner intended to commit the act

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26
Q

Define and explain a Negligent Tort

A

This does not always have to involve any action at all, but instead can consist of an omission (absence) of an action

*Concerned with the compensation of an individual for loss or damages arising from the unreasonable behavior of another

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27
Q

Name the types of Intentional Torts

A
  • Assault
  • Battery
  • Invasion of Privacy
  • Defamation of Character
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28
Q

Define ASSAULT

A

An action that that places someone in fear of personal injury

*Example: threat, accompanied by a physical manifestation to do bodily harm (clenched fists)

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29
Q

Define BATTERY

A

Act of actually carrying out a threat to do bodily harm

*Can be as simple as touching someone without their consent

**A practitioner could be accused of battery if there is failure to obtain permission to perform a given procedure

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30
Q

Define INVASION OF PRIVACY

A

When a practitioner purposely seeks information about a patient that the practitioner does not need to know in order to perform their duties or publicly revealing the information

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31
Q

Define DEFAMATION OF CHARACTER

A

When private information is used in a manner that is harmful to the patient

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32
Q

Name the two types of Defamation of Character

A

Libel and Slander

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33
Q

Define Libel

A

Refers to a written a statement made to be harmful against the patient

*Must be untrue and seen by a third party

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34
Q

Define Slander

A

Refers to a spoken statement made to be harmful against the patient

*Must be untrue and heard by a third party

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35
Q

Name the four “D’s” of Negligence

A
  • Practitioner owes a DUTY to patient
  • Practitioner was DERELICT with that duty
  • Breach of duty was the DIRECT cause of damages
  • DAMAGE or harm came to patient
36
Q

Describe “Res Ipsa Loquitur”

A

An important doctrine of negligence that practitioners should be aware of that means “the thing speaks for itself”

  • This is invoked when negligence is obvious
  • Example: An improperly assembled ventilator circuit cause patient to experience sever hypoxemia, it may be said that “the improperly assembled circuit speaks for itself
37
Q

Name factors that validate a negligence claim

A

First: Practitioner must clearly have had a duty to perform

Second: It must be clear the practitioner failed to perform at an acceptable level of competence

Third: It must be clear that the failure of the practitioner to perform at an acceptable level was the direct cause of damages suffered by the patient

38
Q

The Top 5 Causes of Death in the US are:

A
  1. Heart disease
  2. Cancer
  3. Cerebrovascular disease
  4. Chronic obstructive lung disease
  5. Accidents
39
Q

Roles of RTs in Patient Education:

A
  • Bedside clinician
  • Diagnostician
  • Technical expert
  • Troubleshooter
  • Patient Advocate
  • Care coordinator
  • Counselor
  • Patient educator
40
Q

Effective patient education can only occur when:

A

Learning has occurred

41
Q

Health Belief Model (HBM)

A

A tool that scientists use to try and predict health behaviors

*Based on the theory that a person’s willingness to change their health behaviors is primarily due to several factors

42
Q

Factors that affect a person’s willingness to change their health behaviors:

A

Perceived:

  • Susceptibility
  • Severity
  • Benefits
  • Barriers
43
Q

Perceived Susceptibility

A

Idea that people will not change their health behaviors unless they believe they’re at risk

44
Q

Perceived Severity

A

The idea of the probability that a person will change his/her health behaviors to avoid a consequence depends on how serious he/she considers the consequence to be

45
Q

Perceived Benefits

A

The idea that its difficult to convince people to change a behavior if there isn’t something in it for them

46
Q

Perceived Barriers

A

The idea that patients think that changing health behaviors is going to be so hard, physically and socially

47
Q

Cues to Action

A

External events that prompt a desire to make a health change

*Helps move a patients from wanting to make a health change to actually making the change

48
Q

Self Efficacy

A

Looks at a person’s belief in his/her ability to make a health related change

49
Q

Locus of Control Theory

A

Describes the extent to which people believe they are in control of their own choices. People who believe they are in charge of their own health status (internal locus of control) are more likely to make necessary changes than those who believe others are in control (External Locus of Control)

50
Q

Name the Four Major Components of Patient Education

A
  1. Assessment
  2. Planning
  3. Implementation
  4. Evaluation
51
Q

Assessment in Pt Ed.

A

Process of collecting information to help plan and implement teaching activities

52
Q

Planning in Pt Ed.

A

Construction of an individualized patient education program

53
Q

Implementation in Pt Ed.

A

Actual process of teaching

54
Q

Evaluation in Pt Ed.

A

Enables the teacher to determine whether learning has occurred

55
Q

List Factors that Affect Learner Readiness

A
  • Lack awareness of diagnosis
  • Previous knowledge and experience of disease
  • Intellectual ability
  • Motivational level
  • Physical condition
  • Psychological state
  • Lack of perceived need to learn
56
Q

Common Problems of the Learner

A
  • Lack of readiness
  • Physical obstacles
  • Emotional obstacles
  • Language barriers
  • Lack of motivation
57
Q

Name the SMART Objectives

A
  • Specific
  • Measurable
  • Attainable
  • Relevant
  • Timelines
58
Q

What grade level should patient literature be written?

A

Fifth grade level

59
Q

Cognitive Learning Domain

A

Mental skills (Knowledge-facts)

60
Q

Affective Learning Domain

A

Growth in feelings or emotional areas (Attitude)

61
Q

Psychomotor Learning Domain

A

Manual or physical skills (Skills)

62
Q

Most effective Evaluation method

A

Verbal exams

63
Q

Use this system when teaching children

A

A reward system

64
Q

Define Health Promotion

A

The science and art of helping people change their lifestyle to move toward a state of optimal health

65
Q

Disease Prevention

A

Covers measures not only to prevent the occurrence of disease and to arrest its progress and reduce its consequences

66
Q

Secondary and Tertiary Prevention

A

Seeks to arrest or retard existing disease and to reduce the occurrence of relapses

-Example: Effective Rehablilitation

67
Q

Healthy People 2010 Goals

A
  1. Increase quality and years of a healthy life
  2. Eliminate health disparities
    * Focused on health of population rather than the individual
68
Q

What percentage of smokers report that they would like to quit but cannot.

A

70%

69
Q

Disease Management

A

A method of applying the best healthcare practices to a population with a chronic illness one person at a time

70
Q

Living Will

A

A type of advanced directive, that is a legal document that describes the kind of medical treatments or life-sustaining treatments a patient would want if they were seriously or terminally ill.

71
Q

Durable Power of Attorney for Healthcare

A

This advanced directive states whom the patient has chosen to make healthcare decisions for them

72
Q

Do Not Resuscitate (DNR) Order

A

This is a request not to have CPR if the patient’s heart stops or if they stop breathing

73
Q

Why is it important for respiratory therapists to document every procedure and service they provide to third–party payers?

A

So the medical coder can capture the appropriate charge and reimbursement rate

74
Q

What are the rights of healthcare delivery?

A

Provision:

  • Of the right care
  • In the rate setting
  • By the right provider
75
Q

What are the functions of healthcare? Give an example of each.

A
  • Financing: Purchasing health insurance
  • Insurance: Protection against risk
  • Delivery: Provision of services
  • Payment: Determination of reimbursement methodology and disbursement of funds
76
Q

Who are the stakeholders in providing and delivering healthcare services?

A
  1. Purchasers-employers, federal government
  2. Plans-insurance companies or insurers
  3. Providers-hospitals, Dr., RTs, RNs
  4. Payers-insurance companny or HMO
  5. Patients-consumers
77
Q

What is a knowing disregard for the truth in providing unnecessary or excessive services?

A

Fraud

78
Q

What are the characteristics of a health maintenance organization (HMO)?

A
  • Emphasis on preventive services
  • Provision of a complete range os services for a fixed fee
  • Requirement that all care be provided by participating providers
  • Adherence of services to established standards of quality
79
Q

Which model of health maintenance organization (HMO) entails the provision of physician services through a salaried staff of physicians employed by the HMO?

A

Staff Model

80
Q

Which type of organization provides services at a discounted fee–for–service rate for participating physicians? If a patient wishes to use a non–participating physician, he/she usually has to pay a higher fee.

A

Preferred Provider Organization (PPO)

81
Q

Which reimbursement system is based on a classification of patients into specific groupings, all entailing a predetermined amount of reimbursement?

A

Prospective Payment System

82
Q

Egophony

A

Sound of normal voice tones as heard through the chest wall during auscultation

83
Q

Bronchophony

A

Abnormal voice sounds over lung consolidation

84
Q

Whispered Pectoriloquy

A

Transmission of the sounds of speech through the chest wall

85
Q

Poor Capillary Refill Indicates?

A

It suggests peripheral heart disease, arterial blockage, heart failure, or shock

86
Q

Crepitus

A

Crackling chest noise, ususally heard in someone with pneumonia