8/28- HemeOnc Review Flashcards

(43 cards)

1
Q

What are the main 2 diseases that cause stem cell failure?

A
  • Acquired
  • Congenital (Fanconi’s)
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2
Q

What causes stem cell failure (or aplasia)? What does BM look like?

A

Aplastic anemia - Empty marrow

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3
Q

What is the condition where the stem cell differentiates but is ineffective? What does BM look like?

A

MDS - Cellular marrow but cytopenic pt - Dyspoietic cells

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4
Q

What is the condition where the stem cells differentiate but proliferators are out of control? What does BM look like?

A

MPD (neoplasms) - Marrow is hypercellular - High Hct, WBC, or platelets - Abnl megakaryoctyes—fibrosis, big spleen

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5
Q

What is the condition where the stem cells proliferate out of control but do not fully differentiate? What does BM look like?

A

Acute myelogenous leukemia (AML) - Cellular marrow with primitive cells (blasts) replace marrow and circulate

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6
Q

What can cause pure red blood cell aplasia?

A
  • Congenital (Diamond-Blackfan) - Parvovirus - Thymoma (autoimmune) - MDS (5q minus syndrome)
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7
Q

T/F: Anemia of CRD involves platelet dysfunction? Why/why not?

A

True! Bleeding in uremic pts

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8
Q

What may cause reticulocytosis (4)?

A
  • Treatment/resolution of hypo-proliferative anemia (recovery after aplastic crisis, from relative hypoproliferative state like moving from Houston to Denver, or with treatment of iron, folate, or B12 deficiency) - Bleeding (in iron replete pt) - Myelophthisis (marrow w/ fibrosis or tumor) - Hemolytic anemia
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9
Q

What are the main microcytic anemias (4)?

A
  • Iron deficiency anemia - Sideroblastic anemia - Thalassemias - Anemia of chronic disease
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10
Q

What are hepcidin levels/characteristics in the following states: - Anemia of chronic inflammation - Hemochromatosis - Renal failure

A
  • Anemia of chronic inflammation: increased - Hemochromatosis: mutate or downregulated - Renal failure: not cleared; higher levels
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11
Q

What are the key characteristics of Beta thal minor. Hb allotype specifics?

A
  • Decreased beta chain production - Damage to RBCs from excess alpha - Increased A2 on electrophoresis!
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12
Q

What are the key characteristics of Alpha thal minor. Hb allotype specifics?

A
  • Decreased alpha chain production due to gene deletions - Common in Black Americans - Damage due to beta tetramer (hemoglobin H) - Normal hemoglobin electrophoresis
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13
Q

What is a common cause of congenital sideroblastic anemia?

A

dALA synthase deficiency - Pyridoxine may be effective

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14
Q

What is the inheritance of sideroblastic anemia?

A

X-linked (some AR)

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15
Q

What is the most important cause of cobalamin (B12) deficiency from an impaired absorption standpoint?

A
  • Gastric bypass - (Also pernicious anemia)
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16
Q

What substances will be elevated in folate deficiency? B12 deficiency?

A

Folate - Increased homocysteine B12 - Increased homocysteine - Increased MMA

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17
Q

What are some RBC characteristics you will see with liver disease (histo)?

A
  • Target RBCs - Acanthocytes/spur cells
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18
Q

What symptoms/signs are seen with macrocytosis?

A
  • Megaloblastic anemia - Liver disease (target RBCs, acanthocytes/spur cells) - Extreme reticulocytosis - Hypothyroidism - Artifactual: cold agglutinin disease
19
Q

How do you treat hypoproliferative anemias?

A
  • Iron - B12 - Folate - EPO
20
Q

What organs are affected in hemochromatosis? How?

A
  • Liver: cirrhosis, hepatoma - Heart: congestive CM, conduction blocks/arrhythmias - Endocrine: diabetes, pituitary (hypogonadism, etc.) - Joints - Skin
21
Q

What gene commonly is affected in hemochromatosis?

A
  • HFE gene near HLA-A on chrom 6 - Also TfR-2 (ferroportin) can cause the phenotype as well
22
Q

What could this be? (Pic 1)

23
Q

When do we commonly see cold agglutination?

A
  • Mycoplasmic infections - Indolent lymphomas
24
Q

What do EPO levels look like in secondary erythrocytosis vs. primary?

A

Secondary: EPO high Primary (polycythemia vera): EPO low

25
What are common translocations in AML?
- t(8;21)- good prognosis - t(15;17)- AML type 3, acute promyelocytic leukemia (response to ATRA, presents with DIC) - inv(16)- AML type 4
26
What translocation is commonly seen in Burkitt's lymphoma? Gene expressed?
t(8;14) - Bcl-2
27
What translocation is commonly seen in follicular lymphoma? Gene expressed?
t(14;18) - C-myc BCL6
28
What are some tie ins/closely related lymphomas and leukemias?
(pic 2)
29
What is Richter's transformation?
CLL transforming into malignant lymphoma
30
What do they following translocations correspond to? - t(14;18) - t(11;14) - t(8;14) - t(2;8) - t(8;22)
- t(14;18): Follicular lymphomas (NHL), BCl-2 - t(11;14): Mantle cell lymphomas, Cyclin D1 - t(8;14): Burkitt lymphomas, IgH/K/n and c-myc - t(2;8): Burkitt lymphomas, IgH/K/n and c-myc - t(8;22): Burkitt lymphomas, IgH/K/n and c-myc
31
Describe staging process/criteria
Stage I: 1 LN region/structure Stage II: \> 1 LN, same side of diaphragm Stage III: both sides of diaphragm Stage IV: extranodal sites beyond "E" designation (e.g. bone marrow, liver...) Also A: No B symptoms B: B symptoms E: single extranodal site S: spleen X: bulky
32
Lytic bone lesions are seen in what condition?
Multiple myeloma
33
What causes this? (pic 3)
Coumadin
34
What is the initial anticoagulant of choice for new thrombosis?
DOACs (2) - NOT warfarin!!
35
Where in pregnant women is thrombosis most commonly seen?
Left leg
36
When is risk of thrombosis highest in pregnant women?
6 week period post partum
37
What deficiency is common in newborns? Results in what?
Vitamin K deficiency - Causes hemorrhagic disease of the newborn
38
What chemotoxic drugs cause neuropathy?
- Taxanes - Platinum (oxaliplatin) - Vinca alkaloids
39
What chemotoxic drugs cause cardiac issues?
Anthracyclines (doxorubicin)
40
What chemotoxic drugs cause hand-foot syndrome?
5FU/capecitabine
41
What chemotoxic drugs cause nephrotoxicity?
Cisplatin
42
What chemotoxic drugs cause diarrhea?
- 5FU - Irinotecan
43
What are the side effects of Sunitinib (Sutent), VEGFR?
- Rash - Hand Foot - Diarrhea