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Kalitta 747-400 Captain Upgrade OKE > 747-400 Upgrade OKE (July 2023) > Flashcards

747-400 Upgrade OKE (July 2023) Flashcards

1
Q
  1. When is a takeoff alternate required?
A

Weather conditions below the lowest approach minimum to departure airport.

GOM 5072

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2
Q

What requirements & distance does the takeoff alternate need to comply with?

A

Within 2 hours of departure airport at normal cruise speed, still air & 1 engine Inop.

GOM 5-7

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3
Q

When do we perform a max thrust takeoff?

A
  1. Listed on release
  2. Contaminated runway
  3. Wind shear
  4. When required by an MEL
  5. When 30 day periodic max power takeoff is required
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4
Q

What weather is required to designate an airport as a takeoff alternate?

A

Condition A

For airports with at least 1 operational navigational facility providing a straight in non precision approach procedure, or Cat 1 precision approach:

A. Add 400 feet to the MDA or DA as applicable;
B. Add 1 statue mile or 1600 meters to the landing minimum

Condition B

For airports with at least 2 operational navigational facilities, each providing a straight in approach procedure to different suitable runways:

A. Add 200 feet to the higher MDA or DA of the 2 approaches used;
B. Add 1/2 status mile or 800 meters to the higher authorized landing minimum of the 2 approaches used.

Condition C

For airports with a published CAT II approach:

A. A ceiling of at least 300 feet HAT is required;
B. A visibility of at least 3/4 statue mile or RVR 4000 feet is required.

Condition D

For airport with a published CAT III approach:

A. A ceiling of at least 200 feet HAT is required
B. A visibility of at least 1/2 statue mile or RVR 1800 is required

GOM 5-79

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5
Q

When determining the required weather condition at your ETA are PROB & TEMPO conditions controlling in a TAF?

A

YES

Those conditions are controlling during the specified time frame for the purposes of release & continuation of at flight.

TEMOP forecast will show an improvement.
Credit for improving weather in a TEMPO cannot be taken.

GOM 5-75

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6
Q

When is a new flight plan required?

A
  1. Aircraft Changes
  2. Aircraft has landed at a point not listed on original flight release.
  3. Aircraft has remained on the ground at an intermediate stop for more than 6 hours.
  4. Change in destination while aircraft is on the ground.
  5. DMI is added after flight is released that restricts operations below FL250. (Review Fuel Burn)
  6. Actual aircraft weight exceeds the flight planned weight by more than 10,000 lbs.
  7. Change in ATC route while aircraft is on the ground.

NOTE: Significant changes to an ATC routing or changes that result in the need for additional fuel to meet min fuel requirements require a new flight release meet min fuel requirements require a new flight release.

  1. ADS-B component/system failure discovered prior to departure when ADS-B airspace is planned on initial release.
  2. Air turn back to point of departure.

GOM 9-46

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7
Q

Where can the aircraft BOW listed on the flight plan be verified?

A

Weight and Balance Bulletin.
W&B Sheet

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8
Q

What phase of flight require use of headsets and boom mic?

A

Below 18,000 feet MSL.

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9
Q

If an approach requires TACAN equipment, may that procedure be used if it is in the FMS database?

A

YES

As long as the approach is line selectable & loaded from current FMS database & all required fixes are displayed.

GOM 5-133

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10
Q

When is the earliest you may slow to the appropriate max holding speed?

What are the domestic & international holding speeds?

A

Earliest you can slow is 3 min before holding fix ETA.

DOMESTIC
0-6000 = 200
6001-14000 = 230
Above 14000 = 265

PANS OPS CAT A-E
0-14000 = 230
14001-20000 = 240
20001-34000 = 265
Above 34000 = .83

PANS OPS 2nd Edition
0-6000 = 210
6001-14000 = 220
Above 14000 = 240

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11
Q

Where are the touchdown zone lights located on the runway & how far do they extended?

A

Start 100 feet beyond the threshold & extend to 3000 feet or midpoint of runway.

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12
Q

Above what altitude must one pilot don & use O2 mask when the other pilot is absent from his duty station?

A

Above FL 410

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13
Q

When must one pilot be on O2 mask al all times?
Normal or 100%

A

Above FL410
100%

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14
Q

Why do you configure to gear up & Flaps 20 on a go around?

A

To improve our climb gradient.

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15
Q

You are part of an augmented crew. You have just flown to your destination. Crew scheduling has notified you that you are to ferry the aircraft. What must flight following complete prior to your departure?

A

Tail end checklist

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16
Q

When is a new TLR required prior to departure?

A

QNH is more than .10 (3.4 hPa) below planned condition.
QNH is greater than planned QNH.
OAT is greater than the maximum temperature for takeoff.
OAT is greater than 10 degree C or above planned condition.
OAT is outside the range provided for landing performance.
TOW is more than 10,000 lbs below PTOW.
TOW is greater than the weight listed in the PTOW PLUS table.
TOW is greater than the heaviest weight shown in the landing distance section.
If a performance limiting MEL or CDL exists that is not shown in the TLR remarks section.

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17
Q

How much polished strut need to be showing on each landing gear?

A

Some

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18
Q

When must the security inspection be conducted?

Who must be conduct it?

A

A security inspection must be accomplished at each originating flight or whenever the cockpit and / or upper check cabin has been unattended between flights.

Security inspection should be done by GSC.

The inspection normally is performed in conjunction with normal preflight duties by flight crew.

It shall consist of a physical search to area for any suspicious items or personnel.

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19
Q

When is the max distance form the airport you may accept a visual approach?

A

35 miles

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20
Q

What is the max speed when conducting a procedure turn course reversal maneuver in the US?

A

200 it’s

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21
Q

What is the only scenario that allows you to begin an approach (prior to the FAF) when reported visibility is below published minimums (excluding PIC emergency authority)

A

If RVR for specific runway is below minimums, but the prevailing visibility (metar over the airport) is at or above minimums an approach may be conducted to runway other than RVR runway.

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22
Q

On a CAT III approach, to continue below AH what condition must be met?

A

LAND 3 & no auto throttle faults.

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23
Q

Are you authorized to conduct circling approaches or circling maneuvers?
If so, under what conditions?

A

YES

Unless ceiling less than 1000 feet or visibility less than 3 miles or weather below published circle minimums.

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24
Q

If visual reference is lost during a circling maneuver, describe the missed approach procedure.

A

Turn towards the runway or airport, then follow the published missed approach for original runway.

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25
Q

What is the max distance from the runway you may fly during a circling maneuver?

A

1.7 nm @ 140 kts
2.3 nm @ 165 kts

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26
Q

What is the validity period for the FDE summary on the flight release?

A

20 min prior to ETD & 2 hours after ETD

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27
Q

When may a flight depart early?

A

Must have authorization from the flight follower if earlier than 20 min.

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28
Q

You approach the aircraft for the exterior preflight & see that both outboard ailerons are unlocked & appear to be flown. What would you do?

A

It is normal.
Nothing to do.

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29
Q

You are operating aircraft N782CK. While walking the preflight inspection, the IRP notices that there are four straps longitudinally across the top of the pallet located in position 1A.

Are you legal to depart?

A

Yes, we are legal to depart.

Four (4) straps are required for vertical restraint - (ERF)

Six (6) cargo straps will be placed longitudinally/laterally across the top of the built-up pallet and net.

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30
Q

What is the max crew duty day for an augmented crew operating under FAR 121 supplemental rules assigned to a domestic flight?

A

No pilot of airplane that has a crew of 3 pilots may be on duty for more than 18 hours in any 24 consecutive hours

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31
Q

What is the max flight time for an international flight conducted under FAR 121 supplemental rules, operating with a basic crew?

A

If a certificate holder conducting supplemental operation schedules a pilot to fly more than 8 hours during any 24 consecutive hours, it shall give him an inter venting rest period at or before the end of 8 scheduled hours if flight duty.

This rest period must the at least twice the number of hours flown since the preceding rest period, but not less than eight hours.

The certificate holder conducting supplemental operations shall relieve that pilot of all duty with it during that rest period.

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32
Q

What is the max number of hours that you can fly in a 90 day period when operating as a double crew?

A
  1. 350 hours during any 90 consecutive days

Or

  1. 1000 hours during any 12 calendar month period
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33
Q

You have been assigned to a basic crew twice in a 30 day period.

What is the max number of hours that you can fly in an augmented crew during that 30 day period?

A

100 hours in any calendar month

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34
Q

You have flown 26 hours in the last running 72 hours.

What is the consequence?

A

If a pilot has flown 20 or more hours during any 48 consecutive hours or 24 or more hours during any 72 consecutive hours, he must be given at least 18 hours of rest before being assigned to any duty with the air carrier.

In any case, he must be given at least 24 consecutive hours of rest during any 7 consecutive days. (1in7)

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35
Q

If a FO has less than 100 hours in type.

Can your FO perform the takeoff when the reported RVR i s 1800?

A

NO

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36
Q

Who is jointly responsible for initiating, continuing, diverting, &/or terminating company flights IAW the FARs, company procedures, & company Opspecs?

A

PIC and DO

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37
Q

If the DO delegates the functions for initiating, continuing, diverting & terminating flights to flight following also bear the responsibility of these functions?

A

NO

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38
Q

Then PIC has full control & authority for the operation & safety of the aircraft without limitation.

True or false?

A

Ture

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39
Q

What is the GOM’s definition of standardization of flight procedures?

A

Scandalization of flight procedures creates an environment in which each occupant will know what to expect form others & what others expect of him/her, therefore maximizing crew coordination & efficiency, regardless of changes in crew parings.

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40
Q
  1. What is the purpose of the aircraft loading checklist?
  2. Who can review & sign the document?
A
  1. To inform PIC the aircraft has been loaded properly & configured for departure.
  2. PIC & Loadmaster
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41
Q

After the weight & balance computations are generated on the computer,

what steps must be computed once the forms are printed?

A

Circle ZFW + TOW + CG

Verify TGW is no more than 10000 lbs less than PTOW on the TLR

Verify TGW is no more than weight shon on PTOW Plus table of the TLR

Sign the W&B load sheets.

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42
Q

What FAA approved computerized runway analysis system is used to compute real time takeoff & landing data for air crews & flight follower?

A

Aero Data (TLR)

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43
Q

What are the limitation on the use of convective meteorological visibility?

A

Should not be used when:

  1. When reported RVR is available.
  2. For calculating takeoff minima.
  3. For other RVR minimum less than 800m.
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44
Q

Under what circumstances can you select DRY for dispatch landing performance?

A

When intended landing runway is either smooth surface or grooved & scattered showers in the vicinity are forecast with runway conditions reported as dry & no significant increase in precipitation forecasted prior to ETA.

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45
Q

What are the required documents in the trip envelope at the completion of a trip?

A
  1. Aircraft loading checklist
  2. W&B form
  3. All Recipt’s and invoices
  4. Aircraft log pages (Yellow & Pink Copies)
  5. Engine monitoring data form
  6. Flight release
  7. Hazmat form
  8. Ground security check form
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46
Q

Can a flight be released based on a METER?

A

Yes, as long as METAR history shows reasonable trend of weather conditions above.

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47
Q

Pertaining to alternate airport weather minimums, can aircraft without baro VNAV use the minimums contained in the LNAV/VNAV column for computations?

A

No, must use LNAV column for computation.

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48
Q

Minimum required fuel calculations are based on what 4 factors?

A
  1. Destination Fuel
  2. Alternate Fuel
  3. Additional Fuel
  4. Reserve Fuel
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49
Q

When determining that the aircraft gross weight is suitable for takeoff, which 3 weight limit must be considered?

A
  1. Max structural takeoff gross weight (TOGW)
  2. TOGW limited by takeoff performance under the conditions existing at the time of takeoff.
  3. TOGW considering fuel burning before landing to be below max landing gross weight.
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50
Q

How much shiny strut need to be showing?

A

Some

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51
Q

Recite the exterior safety inspection?

A
  1. Chocks in place
  2. Landing gear door position
  3. APU fire handle on APU control panel stowed
  4. Flight control surface position & condition
  5. APU exhaust area is cleared
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52
Q

Recite the cockpit safety inspection

A
  1. Battery switch - ON
  2. Standby power selector - AUTO
  3. Hydraulic pumps - OFF
  4. Windshield wiper - OFF
  5. Landing Gear Lever - DOWN
  6. Flap position indicator & lever - AGREE
  7. Alternate Flap selector - OFF
  8. Weather Radar - TEST
  9. Transponder - STBY
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53
Q

Minimum O2 limits for dispatch for dispatch.

  1. Crew
  2. Passenger
  3. Portable
A
  1. 1400
  2. 1400
  3. 1200
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54
Q

Must you carry & use a flashlight for preflight during daylight hours?

A

YES

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55
Q

Do additional preflight procedures exit for cold weather operations?

Where can they be found?

A

YES

AOM 1 SP-104-105

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56
Q

For DHL flights, who assumes responsibility for accomplishing the final walk around?

A

Loadmaster

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57
Q

When operating outside of the US, International civil aviation organization (ICAO) standard procedures apply, except where a country files a statement of differences with the ICAO.

Where can these differences be found?

A

Jeppesen FD under ”ATC state rules & procedures” for that country

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58
Q

What are the international basic fuel requirements?

A

To fly to & land at the airport it was released

Then to fly for a period of 10% of the time required to fly from the departure to destination airport

Then to fly to & land at the most distant alternate

Then to fly for 30 min at holding speed at 1500 feet above the alternate airport under standard temperature condition.

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59
Q

What are B-43 fuel requirements?

A

Fly to & land at the airport to which it was released

Then fly to for a period of 10 % of the time spend in Class 2 Nav area

Then to fly & land at the most distant alternate

Then to fly for 45 min at normal cruising fuel consumption

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60
Q

What are B-44 fuel requirements?

A

To fly & land at the airport to which it is released

Then to fly for a period of 10% of the total time form the point of re-released to the airport it is re-released

Then to fly to & land at the most distant alternate

Then to fly for 30 min at holding speed at 1500 feet

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61
Q

What are the international No Suitable Alternate fuel requirements?

A

Kalitta AIr does not utilize the fuel provisions of FAR 121.645(C)

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62
Q

Under B-43 & B-44, what deviations form flight plan must be reported to flight following?

A
  1. ETA at destination exceeds 15 min from planned ETA
  2. Cruise altitude varies by 4000 feet or more from planned cruise
  3. The airplane deviates more than 100nm from the planned route
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63
Q

What are the planned min fuel for landing at an alternate airport?

A

12000 Lbs

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64
Q

How is the rerelease fuel pad designated on the flight release?

A

R/R Pad fuel is considered “EXTRA” fuel and not considered part of the minimum required fuel.

It may be reduced/removed for operational considerations.

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65
Q

You are released under B-44, using ACARS, what flight crew action initiates the process?

How is the rerelease documented?

How is the re-release accepted?

A

2 hrs prior to the rerelease point, the flight crew shall contact flight following to coordinate the rerelease.

The flight follower generates a new operational analysis based on the latest information received from the pilots

  1. Fuel remaining
  2. Altitude
  3. Any maintenance issues impacting the flight

If the new analysis indicates that sufficient fuel remaining (plus the PIC concurs) the flight may be operated to the intended destination.

The pilots shall record the pertinent information (Weather, NOTAM, etc) on their copy of the flight release, including the time & the flight follower’s initials.

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66
Q

When does a charted non compulsory reporting point become a compulsory reporting point in the Pacific.

A

Requested by ATC

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67
Q

You must divert to a new destination.

Procedurally what are the 3 required steps for a deviation?

A

The use of these strategies is at the discretion of the pilot. As a guideline, the considerations are as follows:

  1. If the Diversion TIME is the most critical consideration, a high speed (consistent with fuel requirements) could be chosen.
  2. If the Diversion FUEL is the most critical consideration, LRC speed would be the logical choice.
  3. If OBSTACLE Clearance is the most critical consideration, the Max L/D speed, which is the default engine-out speed in the FMC, would be used until the terrain is no longer a factor.
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68
Q

You have suffered the loss of 2 engines encountered, your ETP airport of ABC is closer than your ETP airport of XYX. Are you required to divert to ABC?

A

No, but have a good reason

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69
Q

If your destination airport is changed while you are in flight, what must the flight follower accomplish?

A

All numbers
Landing Permit
Weather

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70
Q

You have received your North Atlantic Clearance, but have not yet reached your Oceania entry points, & you lose one long range navigation unit, what you need to do?

A

Must have 2 LRN to enter
Must have 1 LRN after entry point

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71
Q

You are entering the North Atlantic MNPS. You have requested your clearance but have not yet obtained the 3 required elements of route, altitude & Mach number. What should you do at the boundary?

A

Call Gander on CPDLC or HF radio or Satellite Com.

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72
Q

You are flying through Western Europe in class A airspace.

Can you climb using visual separation from adjacent traffic?

A

YES

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73
Q

Who can sign the Gen Dec?

A

PIC or authorized agent

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74
Q

You are being released to an airport located in a non ICAO member country.

What must be accomplished prior to departure?

A

Jeppesen FD
Pubs
Regions
XYZ Airway Manual
Air Traffic Control and State Rules and Procedures

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75
Q

The operation control center & the flight crew must notify which US agencies prior to every arrival?

A
  1. Customs
  2. Immigration
  3. Agricultural
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76
Q

Can you deviate from your oceanic route for weather?

A

YES

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77
Q

At US stations when is it acceptable to open the cargo doors upon arrival?

A

After CBP clears personnel & cargo

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78
Q

At US stations when is it acceptable to leave the aircraft upon arrival?

A

After CBP clears personnel & cargo

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79
Q

While taxiing into a stand a ground crew begins to move the light wand in his right hand in a rapid horizontal future eight motion while pointing at the ground below your right wing with his left arm,

What is the problem?
A

Brake or engine fire

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80
Q

If no climb gradient is published for a departure,

What is a minimum climb speed must be maintained?

A

200 Feet per nautical mile

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81
Q

If a flight is “vectored” off of a noise abatement procedure,

What crew action is required?

A

Note on the flight release

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82
Q

When are you considered “established” on course?

A

Within half - full scale deflection for the ILS & VOR or within 5 degree of the required bearing for the NDB.

An aircraft is considered to be established on course during RNAV & RNP operations anytime it is within 1 times the required accuracy for the segment being flown.

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83
Q

On the terminal procedure, unless otherwise noted,

What is the radius of protection of the MSA in reference to the charted fix?

A

MSA normally have 25 NM radius.

However, for conventional navigation systems, this radius may be expanded to 30 NM necessary to encompass the airport landing surfaces.

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84
Q

What is the differences between QNE & QNH?

A

QNE = Altimeter setting 2992 Hg or 1013 HP

QNH = Altimeter setting the actual surface barometric pressure corrected to the value that would theoretically exist at sea level. On the ground, altimeter set to QNH indicates the height of the reporting station above MSL.

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85
Q

You are conducting an ILS CAT 3 approach.
At 1000 feet the FMA changes to “LAND 2”.
The AH is now what?

A

DH

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86
Q

What nav errors in the long range navigation units need to be recorded after landing?

A

1 - 2 hours. 7.0 NM / H
2 - 3 hours. 5.4 NM / H
3 - 5 hours. 4.7 NM / H
5 - 8 hours. 4.0 NM / H
8 - 14 hours. 3.2 NM / H
14 - 18 hours 2.0 NM / H

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87
Q

Are flight crew required to review the information in the Aeronautical Info Publication prior to operating in a particular host country, or is it sufficient that operations control center personnel have reviewed the information?

A

YES, they are required to review the information.

Foreign country entry and exit considerations is important to remember responsibility for a flight rests ultimately with the PIC.

Most relevant information is found in the entry section of the appropriate Jeppesen Airway manual. More detailed information can be obtained from operations control center personnel.

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88
Q

Where can they entry requirements (reported permits, customs and immigration procedures, etc.) for a particular host country be found?

A

Jeppesen Airway Manual.

Crew members should check with the charter coordinator and refer to the entry section of the appropriate Jeppesen Airway Manual to verify procedures for entry into another country. A Ground Handler or representative can verify local requirements.

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89
Q

When arriving into a foreign country by commercial airline, your passport was stamped for entry. If you are departing the country as an operating crew member, does your passport need an exit stamp, or may you depart using a general declaration form?

A

An EXIT stamp is required.

  1. When leaving the airport, keep a copy of the GenDec.
  2. Comply with the local requirements for entry and exit.
  3. In many foreign countries, if a crew member plans to commercial into or our of an airport and his/her passport need to be stamped, the crew member must ensure the passport has a corresponding stamp for the opposite procedure.
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90
Q

When do you need a permit to proceed?

A

When stopping at a US airport to change crew, refuel, before continuing on to a final destination without meeting the full inspection requirements of a normal entry. The detailed entry inspection requirements for the cargo will be completed at the final destination.

The captain enters the required data and signs the form at the final destination.

A minimum of 4 copies of the form are needed, one reach for
1. The local customs office
2. The trip envelope
3. The customs documents package
4. The loadmaster’s cargo service documents envelope

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91
Q

If HF communications is lost while in Oceanic Airspace what other communication options are available for position reporting?

A

The SatCom will be used to communicate with ATC or AIRINC.

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92
Q

If disinfection is required prior to entry into a particular country, who is recommended to dispense the spray?

A

A supernumerary

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93
Q

How must a flight crew determine the appropriate holding speed for a given country?

A

Jeppesen Airway Manuals

  1. Jeppesen FD
    1. Pubs
      1. Regions
        1. *** Airway Manual
          1. ATC
            1. State Rules and Procedures
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94
Q

When should flight crews default to ICAO holding speeds for a given host country?

A

Whenever a statement of differences is not found in the Jeppesen Airway Manual.

When operating outside of the US, ICAO standard procedures apply, except where a country files a statement of differences with the ICAO. These differences are found in the Jeppesen Airway manual.

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95
Q

In remote ocean area when communicating via HF radio, are you speaking directly to ATC?

A

NO

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96
Q

When must you accomplish an ADS/CPDLC logon, if required, using the ATC Logon/Status page?

A

Jeppesen FD Pro and the GOLD manually in couple 365 give pilots sufficient information to know when and with whom to logon.

97
Q

What page would you go to verify if the Data Link is ready?

A

ATC LOGON/STATUS page

98
Q

Under what condition would you select ADS OFF?

A

It is KA policy to not turn off ADS-C unless requested by ATC to do so.

99
Q

What is the required response time for an ATC uplink?

What do you do if you cannot responded in time?

A

ONE minute.

A Standby response should be sent.

100
Q

When operating outside the US, and cleared to a point with no routing specified,
what action must be taken by the flight crew?

A

Clarify the rounding or if cleared direct use specific phraseology indicating
“Cleared present position direct to ____________.”

101
Q

If a flight is approaching an FIR boundary and has been unable to establish communication with the appropriate controller, what action should be taken?

AIRSPACE ENTRY WITHOUT A CLEARNACE

A

At anytime pilots cannot contact a controller the flight may not be operating in accordance with a clearance needed for safe operation. However, the only other choice is to hold at the FIR boundary while establishing communications.

Generally, a flight should continue as flight planned and the flight crew should establish communications as soon as possible.

Each country has its own rules regarding this subject. The commonwealth of independent states, for example, especially prohibits entry without direct communications with ATC.

These require to are in the ATC section of the Jeppesen Airways Manuals.

102
Q

Is KA authorized to operate in areas designated as “NO FIR”?
IF so, what special procedures should be utilized?

A

NO

If you found yourself in a “NO FIR”, refer to the (6.1.6.8) advisory services procedures in the GOM.

103
Q

When verifying routing on a flight plan consisting of class II segments, what specific check is required in addition to the checks performed on all international flights.

A
  1. For all class II segments of flight,verify what the computer flight plan coordinates agree with the actual coordinates form Jeppesen HI/LO charts or the NAT track message, as appropriate.
  2. Check flight plan times, distances and fuel loading for reasonableness. Ex, divide the fuel burn by the flight time and verify the average fuel burn per hour is reasonable.
  3. Compare flight plan winds with upper level winds aloft meteological charts.
104
Q

List some of the approved methods for a reasonableness check prior to entry and after exiting MNPS airspace.

A

LRNS accuracy reasonableness checks may be accomplished by any of the following methods:

  1. Current Position: selects and tune a VOR with DME and compare present position with displayed bearing and distance.
  2. Abeam Radial or FIx: Use AOM procedures to fix a NAVAID offset from the aircraft track.
  3. Overhead: select and tune a route waypoint ground-based NAVAID with DME and verify that the RMI needle swing, DME distance bottoming out, and the FMS leg change all occur simultaneously.
  4. RADAR: obtain an ATC radar fix overhead a station or intersection that is a route waypoint and verify that FMS leg change occurs simultaneously with the ATC radar fix.
105
Q

When should 2000 be set in the transponder?

A

FIR aircraft shall utilize the code assigned by ATC.

Outside the US, when leaving an area in which the transponder has not been used and entering an area in which the transponder will be used, select code 2000.

Unless otherwise directed by ATC, pilot flying in NAT airspace shall operate transponders continuously in mode A/C code 2000, except that the last assigned code shall be retained for a period of 30 minutes after entry into NAT airspace or after leaving a surveillance service area.

106
Q

What is SLOP or strategic lateral offset procedure, and what are the 3 positions the aircraft can be flown in?

A

0, 1, or 2 NM to Right of the centerline.

107
Q

Can a KA 747-400 be flown in the NAT tracks with 1 HF radio deferred?

A

Yes, but only what MEL relief.

SATCOM installed any be operated with one HF radio deferred provided the SATCOM system is operative.

For overwater operation, more than 30 minutes flying time or 100 NM form the nearest shore, you must have

  1. 2 transmitters
  2. 2 microphones
  3. 2 headsets or one headset and one speaker
  4. 2 independent receivers.
108
Q

What is the Worldwide Air to Air frequency?

A

123.45 MHz

109
Q

ICAO Maximum holding speed

A

Normal condition / Turbulence condition

Altitude Levels. Normal / Turbulence
0-14000. 230 280
14001 - 20000. 240. 280 or 0.8M
20001 - 34000. 265. 280 or 0.8 M
Above 34000. 0.83 0.83 M

110
Q

PANS-OPS 2 Maximum holding speed

A

Levels. Normal / Turbulence

0 - 6000 210. 280 or 0.8 M
6001 - 14000. 220. 280 or 0.8 M
Above 14000. 240. 280 or 0.8 M

111
Q

What are the standard holding times based on Altitude?

A

At or below 14000 1 min

Above 14000. 1.5 min

112
Q

List 3 example of observed or encountered phenomena require it a special air report to ATS.

A
  1. Moderate turbulence
  2. Severe turbulence
  3. Moderate Icing
  4. Severe icing
  5. Severe mountain wave
  6. Thunderstorm with or without hail
  7. Heavy dust or sand storm
  8. Volcanic ash cloud.
  9. Pre eruption volcanic activity or volcanic eruption
113
Q

At airport that have approved SMGCS procedures, below what RVR will the procedures go into effect?

A

Taxing in low vis below 1200 RVR

114
Q

You are at your re-release point, and you were unable to communicate with the company to coordinate your re-release when dispatched under B-44, what do you do?

A

It is mandatory to proceed to the released airport after coordinating with ATC

115
Q

Should a crew member suspect they may have exceeded any local noise restrictions, what action should be taken?

A

Submit an event log detailing the situation

Notify ATC
Make a note on flight release
Return to proper flight path
Notify CPO after landing

116
Q

Whenever a clearance is received en-route during non-radar operations,
what flight plan annotations must be made by the flight crew?

A

The flight crew shall write down the clearance on the master flight release, along with the time it was received and the controlling frequency. When a route is necessary, the flight crew shall clearly cross out old waypoints and enter the new waypoints in their place.

117
Q

Described the check required after passing a waypoint in class II airspace,
What is being determined by this check?

A

Approximately 10 min after passing each waypoint, the LRNS positions should be plotted in accordance with the plotting chart annotation requirements.

  1. Record the coordinates of the steering system on the plotting chart
  2. Record the time (UTC)
  3. Plot coordinates on the plotting chart
  4. Verify on course tracking
118
Q

Does a straight line drawn on a Jeppesen Lambert Conformal en our the or plotting chart represent a great circle or rhumb line?

A

A great circle route on these chats is approximated by a straight line.

119
Q

ICAO criteria for approaches list a range of speeds for aircraft in the various segments of an approach.

What is the ICAO range of speeds for a category D aircraft on final approach?

A

130 to 185 knots

120
Q

Describe one of the four generally recognized maneuvers related to course reversal procedures, as outlined in GOM Ch. 6.

A

ICAO procedure turns must be flown as depicted on the chart.

45/180 turn
80/260 turn
Procedure hold
Base turn/tear drop

121
Q

In the event a missed approach is initiated prior to arriving at the missed approach point, what is expected of the pilot in regard to vertical and lateral maneuvering?

A

It is expected that the pilot will normally proceed to the missed approach point and then follow the missed approach procedure in order to remain within the protected airspace.

This does not preclude flying over the MAP at an altitude / height grater than that required by the procedure.

122
Q

When are you required to complete a plotting chart?

A

The use of plotting chart is required for all operations where the route segment between the operational service volume of ICAO standard NAVAIDs exceeds 725 NM for all turbojet aircraft.

123
Q

Can KA crew accept land and hold short clearance when LAHSO is in effect?

A

NO

124
Q

You Depart EDDP for KCVG, you request your oceanic clearance and a random route has been filed by the company. ATC issues the same route in your oceanic clearance.

Do you need to perform the SLOP procedure?

A

NO

You do not end to perform the SLOP procedure but yes, you can if you want to.

125
Q

What deviation is considered to be a GNE within NAT airspace?

A

A deviation of 10 NM or more.

126
Q

In several areas, such as over the Andes in S American the MEAs for en-route segments may be well above the engine out capabilities of the particular aircraft and weight.

KA authorized to traversed such routes?

If so, are there any special provisions that must be met? Explain.

A

YES, provided the aircraft weights are reduced to allow compliance with en outreach obstruction clearance criteria, or if the weights are not reduced, the area prescribed “escape routes’ or if the aircraft can drift down beyond limiting obstacles.

Must maintain
1000 feet above all obstacles within 5 SM on each side of the route
OR
The aircraft can continue to an airport where a landing can be made while clearing all terrain by 2000 feet.

127
Q

When flying in less develop area, and after receiving a “direct via” off routing, what altitude should be consulted on the ensure obstacle clearance requirements can be met?

What type of terrain clearance doss that altitude afford?

A

Grid MORAs provide a minimum of 1000 feet obstacle clearance, or 2000 feet in mountainous terrain.

128
Q

If operating in RVSM airspace and the flight encounters turbulence resulting in an altitude deviation of 350 feet, what actions are required?

A

The captain is responsible to submit an EVENT LOG for any altimetry errors and for a deviation of more than 300 due to turbulence.

129
Q

Often the transition level is shown on Jeppesen Approach Charts as “by ATC”. Although the controller should announce the transition level in these circumstances, often they do not. What are some indicators that a flight has been cleared through a transition level?

A

When cleared to an altitude, instead of a Flight Level.

When given an altimeter setting.

Some Jeppesen Approach Plates will show transition level.

Verification with ATC.

130
Q

During Class II operations, within ____ minutes of each waypoint, both pilots should verify that the subsequent waypoint in the navigation display agrees with the current ATC clearance.

What specifically must be checked?

A

Within 2 Min.

Coordinates of the next two waypoints should also be checked.

Prior to the switchover, verify that the “HEADING” and “DISTANCE” for the next leg match the computer flight plan.

131
Q

When temperature is colder than ISA, true altitude will be ________ than indicated altitude.

A

When the temperature is colder than the International Standard Atmosphere (ISA), true altitude will be LOWER than indicated altitude.

132
Q

Under what conditions should the altitude correction procedures found in GOM Ch. 6 be followed?

A

In the U.S. - when reported temperature is at or below the published airport cold temperature restriction.

Internationally - when reported temperature is at or below -30°C.

133
Q

Generally speaking, to which altitudes should the altitude correction procedures of GOM Ch. 6 be applied?

What altitudes should not be corrected?

A

Apply to US Airports when the temperature is at or below the published airport cold temperature restriction on the approach plate.

Foreign airports, when the reported airport temperature is below -30 degrees C.

Pilot should not correct altimeter barometric reference settings.

Pilot must not correct altitudes published SID, ODP, STARS.

Corrections SHOULD be made to:

● “at, “at or above”, and “at or below” altitudes on all designated segments, for all
published procedures and runways except as noted below.
● MDA/DA
● ONLY when cleared to do so by ATC for:
○ ATC-assigned altitude
○ when flying on a radar vector in lieu of a published Missed Approach Procedure (MAP).

● ATC-assigned altitude, except as noted above.
● when flying on a radar vector in lieu of a published Missed Approach Procedure (MAP),
except as noted above.
● Standard Instrument Departments (SIDs)
● Obstacle Departure Procedures (ODPs)
● Standard Terminal Arrivals (STARs).

134
Q

When operating at high altitude airports, increases of approximately ___% higher True Airspeed (TAS) is achieved in the 8,000 to 10,000 feet range

A

20%

135
Q

According to GOM Ch. 6, what are some of the effects of operating at the high-than-normal true airspeeds associated with high-altitude airport operations?

A

Higher TAS during approach requires greater turn radius, higher landing and takeoff speeds, potential for hot brakes (higher speeds and lower air density for cooling), and cause missed approach climb capability problems.

During the approach the aircraft may seem to be fast visually, because it is faster than normal.

Higher TAS during approach requires greater turn radius, higher landing and takeoff speeds, potential for hot brakes (higher speeds and lower air density for cooling), and cause Missed approach climb capability problems.

Higher rates of descent. A flight will be very close to the GPWS “sink rate” warning activation rates at high altitudes and weights. As a result, pressurization scheduling will differ from normal.

Hot brakes will likely increase the turnaround time at high altitude airports. Hot brakes may also be a problem after takeoff.

136
Q

What is the minimum fuel temperature and what should be done if the fuel temperature decreases below the limit?

A

In-flight tank fuel temperature must be maintained at least 3° C above the fuel freezing point of the fuel being used.

137
Q

How do you identify the Fuel Freeze point for the type of fuel being used?

A

Refer to the chart (QRH) based on Fuel Type.

138
Q

Describe the ICAO ground-handling signal for a brake fire.

A

Rapid horizontal figure (8) eight motion with either arm pointed at the source of the fire

139
Q

If the SELCAL does not test on initial contact, what steps shall the flight crew take prior to initiating a constant listening watch?

A
  1. Verify proper SELCAL code.
  2. Verify that the SELCAL VHF/HF selectors are set to HF.
  3. Verify that the HF squelch is set to MIN or OFF.
  4. Verify the HF Gain set to MAX or INCR; and (if necessary).
  5. Request a new tes
140
Q

In regard to communicating with controllers outside of the U.S., what four recommendations should be used by crew members in order to avoid miscommunications?

A
  1. Use proper ICAO phraseology.
  2. Speak slowly and clearly and spell identifiers using the phonetic alphabet (if necessary)
  3. Anticipate the controller
  4. Obtain assistance; ask other pilots to monitor communications, even ACMs (or others), especially if they speak the local language. If unsure of what has been said, insist on verification, no matter how many times it takes.
  5. If necessary, practice sterile cockpit techniques from the top of descent until parked at the ramp.
141
Q

What is the minimum required information to be included in a position report?

A
  1. Aircraft identification.
  2. Position.
  3. Time.
  4. Flight level or altitude.
  5. Next position and time over.
  6. Ensuing significant point.
  7. Pertinent remarks.
142
Q

What does IC mean on the TAKEOFF REPORT LAYOUT? What does the N below it mean?

A

IC – Improved climb indicator for PMRTW.

“Y” = Yes, PMRTW is based on the use of Improved Climb;

“N” = No, PMRTW is not based on the use if improved climb.

143
Q

Is the planned landing weight (PLDW) on the TLR, the weight we use for ACARS landing weight performance entry?

What is the number/weight we enter?

A

No

Use last actual calculated Estimated arrival Fuel (EFOA).

144
Q

With the use of CPDLC/ADS-C, separation of aircraft will be

A

May vary, based on operation but for North Atlantic Region, lateral separation can be brought down to 25 NM.

Oceanic: In general navigation errors in excess of 10 nautical miles will result in investigation and possible violation.

145
Q

After receipt of a “Conditional Clearance” the PNF should?

A

Accept clearance.

Print clearance and display it.

If print does not work, keep the message displayed on the CDU.

146
Q

Under what condition would you select ADS OFF?

A

It is Kalitta Air policy to not turn off ADS-C unless requested by ATC to do so.

147
Q

When reporting by ADS-C only, can flight crews remove non-compulsory ATC waypoints?

A

No, but they should discontinue voice position reports.

148
Q

What must supernumeraries be briefed on, and who must brief them?

A

The laminated briefing card should be used as a guide to cover the following:

● Passenger information signs
● Seat belts
● Oxygen
● Sterile cockpit below 10,000 ft.
● Emergency exits and procedures
● Other exits
● Smoking
● Emergency procedures and equipment, including procedures for extended overwater
operations if applicable
● Electronic devices
● Seat back upright and tray tables stowed for takeoff and landing
● Fire or smoke
● Carry-on Baggage and Equipment

149
Q

What are the wind limits when operating the Main Cargo Door?

A

Door Operating 40 KTS
Door Opened 65 KTS

150
Q

When do the NO SMOKING and FASTEN SEAT BELT sign automatically illuminate regardless of switch position?

A

Anytime supernumerary oxygen deploys

151
Q

Can the APU provide bleed air in flight?

If so, up to what altitude?

A

Yes.

Up to 15,000 feet.

152
Q

What is the Max. Differential Pressure (Relief Valve), Takeoff and Landing?

A

Max Differential Pressure (Relief Valve) - 9.4 PSI

Max Differential Pressure - Takeoff and Landing - 0.11 PSI

153
Q

Under what condition may the #1 or #2 window heat be inoperative?

A

● Window heat must be on for all normal flight conditions.

● The window heaters may be inoperative on one No. 1 or one No. 2 window provided operation is not predicated on flights into known or forecasted icing, windshield air (anti fogging systems) are operative and remaining No. 1 and No. 2 window heaters are operative

154
Q

While in flight, Nacelle Anti-Ice must be on when?

A

Icing conditions exist when indicated by the primary ice detection system (if installed),
or else when the TAT inflight, is 10°C or below and visible moisture in any form is present (such as clouds, fog with visibility of one mile or less, rain, snow, sleet and ice crystals).

Nacelle anti-ice must be ON when ice crystal icing conditions exist, even when the temperature is below -40°C OAT. For flight in ice crystal icing conditions, for the primary ice detection system (if installed) the nacelle anti-ice switches should be in the ON position during flight. The primary ice detection system does not respond to ice crystals.

155
Q

When are the 4 pitot-static probes heated?

A

When any engine is operating.

156
Q

Are the TAT probes heated?
When?

A

Two Total Air Temperature (TAT) probes are electrically heated for anti-ice protection in flight.

157
Q

When can the autopilot be engaged after takeoff?

A

400 feet after takeoff.

158
Q

What are the minimum and maximum glideslope angles?

A

3.25 degrees and 2.5 degrees

159
Q

On takeoff, prior to 65 KIAS, the Flight Director roll bar commands wing level while the pitch bar commands a fixed attitude of:

A

Approximately 8 degrees up

160
Q

What is the restriction on the center VHF with an operational ACARS system?

A

With an operational ACARS system, the center VHF radio is not approved for ATC voice communications.

161
Q

When should HF radios not be used?

A

Do not operate HF radios during refueling operations.

162
Q

With 121.5 selected in the R VHF, can the receiver volume control for that radio be turned off?

A

No.

Will not select off when related transmitter selected ON, or 121.500 tuned in radio tuning panel Active Frequency indicator.
B

163
Q

How can we tune DATA into the C VHF?

A

By tuning above 136.000 or below 118.000 MHz

164
Q

What busses are powered with # 1 & 2 external power available but not on?

A

Ground Handling Bus

165
Q

What electrical bus isolation occurs during autoland?

A

AC and DC busses 1, 2, and 3 are automatically isolated.

AC bus 4 continues to power the synchronous bus, and will power any other AC bus if its generator fails.

166
Q

Before starting engines with the APU inop, what must be done to pressurize the #4 hydraulic system?

A

Turn on AC powered,
System 4 Auxiliary Pump pressurizes.

167
Q

Before starting engines with the APU inop, what must be done to pressurize the #4 hydraulic system?

A

Turn on AC powered, System 4 Auxiliary Pump.

168
Q

With an EEC in Alternate Mode (ALTN), when should takeoff thrust be set?

A

Takeoff thrust must be set after brake release.

169
Q

When will stby ignition turn on if the switch is in NORM?

A

When AC power is lost.

170
Q

If the EGT limit is exceeded what is indicated? On takeoff?

A

If the takeoff limit is exceeded, the indication changes to red regardless of phase of flight. If the continuous limit is reached, the indication changes to amber except during Takeoff/Go-Around when it is inhibited for five (5) minutes.

171
Q

With a main cargo fire, arming the Main Deck fire switch does what?

A

• enables main deck fire suppression

• turns off two packs

• configures equipment cooling to closed loop and turns off all airflow to main deck and airflow and heat into lower cargo compartments

• closes master trim air valve

172
Q

After a fire test pass, what two systems are no longer being monitored by the AC?

A

The Wheel Well Fire Detector Loop and the Bleed Duct Leak Detector Loops.

173
Q

How many overheat loops are installed for the APU?

A

None

174
Q

While operating below maneuvering speed (Va) is it permissible to make rapid or large alternating control inputs?

A

No.

Avoid rapid and large alternating control inputs

175
Q

The flaps are not to be extended above what altitude?

A

20,000 FT

176
Q

When are the stab trim switches on the control wheel inhibited?

A

If multiple autopilots are engaged

177
Q

What is the maximum allowable in-flight difference between Captains and F/O’s altitude display for RVSM operations?

A

200 feet.

178
Q

What is the maximum allowable on-the-ground altitude display differences for operations in RVSM?

A

Sea Level to 5,000 feet

CAP/ FO 35 feet
CAP/ FO & Field Elev. 75 feet

10,000 feet

CAP/ FO. 40 feet
CAP/FO & Field Elev. 75 feet

179
Q

From engine start to shutdown, what is the primary means of alerting crews to non- normal conditions or improper configurations?

A

ENGINE INDICATION AND CREW ALERTING SYSTEM (EICAS)

180
Q

Operations for using QFE are?

A

Prohibited

181
Q

What is the minimum equipment required for a coupled CAT I ILS approach?

A
  1. Localizer/Gllideslope
  2. Approach light system
  3. Sequence flashing lights
  4. Runway Centerline
  5. RVR transmit meter (One)
182
Q

When must the CWT override/jettison pumps be switched off?

A

If the Center Wing Tank (CWT) is empty, the pumps should be OFF.

On the ground, with less than 17,000 lbs of fuel in the CWT, the pumps should be OFF.

If FUEL LO CTR L or R message is displayed, the pumps should be OFF.

In climb, if FUEL LO CTR L or R message is displayed and tank quantity is approximately 7,000 lbs, Center L and R Pump switches should be selected off.

In cruise, when either FUEL LOW CTR message displays and CWT fuel quantity is less than 3,000 lbs, the pumps should be OFF.

If the FUEL PRESS CTR L or R message is displayed, the corresponding CWT override/jettison pump must be selected OFF.

183
Q

What is the fuel freeze point of Jet A?

A

-40°C.

184
Q

What is the Conditional Minimum Ramp Fuel (Excluding Ballast)?

A

Standard Minimum Ramp Fuel (excluding ballast).

72,000Lbs

Conditional Minimum Ramp Fuel (excluding ballast)

53,000 Lbs

185
Q

What is the Standard Minimum Ramp Fuel (Excluding Ballast)?

A

Standard Minimum Ramp Fuel (excluding ballast)

72,000Lbs

Conditional Minimum Ramp Fuel (excluding ballast)

53,000 Lbs

186
Q

Once activated, how long will the scavenge pump operate?

A

Until the pressure switch for the fuel scavenge pump senses low pressure, or the total time of pump operation exceeds 120 minutes

187
Q

With the loss of systems 2 & 3, why is there a speed additive for the approach?

A

Stablizer Trim is inoperative.

Elevator feel in degraded mode

Decrease ability to flare

This example is from the HYD OVHT SYS QRH Procedure but it applies to any situation where you have lost both 2 & 3 hydraulic systems.

188
Q

What is the minimum hydraulic quantity for dispatch?

Where do you read that value?

A

Verify RF not displayed.
Desired minimum quantity is .80.

Status Display

189
Q

With the # 4 Aux pump on and providing pressure, will the HYD SYS FAULT light be off or on?

A

OFF

190
Q

What is the maximum takeoff weight when operating with gear extended?

A

720,000 lbs

191
Q

On takeoff roll, when does RTO arm?

What kind of braking is provided?

A

Above 85 knots.

Maximum braking.

192
Q

What does the brake torque limiting system do?

A

A brake torque sensor is provided at each wheel. The sensors detect excessive torque during braking to prevent damage to landing gear. When excessive torque is detected, a signal is sent to the antiskid valve to release brake pressure to that wheel.

193
Q

What range must be selected to use the GPWS – Look Ahead Terrain Alerting system?

A

Any range. The database is contained in the GPWS computer and does not rely on mode or range selection.

194
Q

When is the Windshear alert system active?

A

Windshear System (Not Predictive)
Rotation to 1,500 feet radio altitude

Predictive Windshear
Active below 2,300 ft Radio Altitude.

Enabled below 1,500 ft Radio Altitude for Excessive Windshear detected by GPWS.

Cautions and Warnings are generated only when the airplane is below 1,200 ft AGL.

Cautions are inhibited during takeoff from 80 knots until reaching 400 feet AGL.

Warnings are inhibited during takeoff above 100 knots until reaching 50 feet AGL.

Cautions are inhibited during approach and landing below 400 feet AGL.

Warnings are inhibited during approach and landing below 50 feet AGL.

195
Q

When are the Fire Bell and master Warning lights inhibited?

A

During takeoff from V1 until reaching 400 feet Radio Altitude

OR

25 seconds after V1, whichever occurs first.

196
Q

With the Lower Lobe Cargo Conditioned Airflow Rate Selector (LLCCAFR) switch in the OFF position, what is the temperature range available with the Lower Lobe Temperature Selector?

A

Plus or minus 6°C within the range of 18°C to 29°C from the coolest temperature selected.

197
Q

What determines when the packs will go to Normal Flow?

A

During cruise.

The standard packs will operate normally in HI Flow throughout the climb. Upon reaching stabilized cruise with ECO mode enabled, the standard packs will revert to Normal flow when commanded by the airplane’s Pack Controller logic.

198
Q

When the Engine Bleed Air Switch is selected off, what valves close?

A

The respective

engine bleed air valve,
PRV bleed valve,
HP bleed valve are closed.

199
Q

With the Engine Bleed Air Switch off, and no fault detected, what components are available?

A

Nacelle Anti-Ice.
Thrust Reversers.

200
Q

Under what circumstances must Nacelle Anti Ice be selected ON on the ground?

A

When icing conditions exist or are anticipated

● Icing conditions exist when OAT is 10°C or below and visible moisture in any form is present (such as clouds, fog with visibility of one mile or less, rain, snow, sleet and ice crystals).

● Icing conditions also exist when the OAT is 10°C or below when operating on ramps, taxiways or runways when surface snow, ice, standing water or slush may be ingested by the engines or freeze on engines, nacelles or engine sensor probes.

201
Q

What are the engine run up procedures with Nacelle Anti Ice selected ON?

A

60% N1 for 30 seconds every 15 minutes and before takeoff.

202
Q

What is required if operation is conducted in moderate to severe icing conditions for prolonged periods with the N1 less than 70%?

A

Increase thrust on one engine at a time to a minimum of 70% N1 for 10 to 30 seconds every 10 minutes.

203
Q

What does the careted EICAS message

“>ANTI ICE”

mean?

A

Any nacelle or wing anti-ice system is on, and:

• TAT greater than 12° C

• The ice detector does not detect ice

204
Q

On descent into Delhi with convective activity in all quadrants, what steps must be taken to improve engine flameout margins with TAT below 10 degrees C?

A

Pack High Flow Switch - ON

Nacelle Anti-Ice Switches - ON

At or below 22,000 feet: Wing Anti-Ice Switch - ON

205
Q

What does the carroted EICAS message

“>Autopilot”

mean?

A

Selected autopilot operating in degraded mode. Active roll and/or pitch mode may have failed (caution and beeper)

206
Q

On a go around, what should the FMA indications be after one push of the TOGA buttons, and what do the indications mean?

A

● roll and pitch activate in TO/GA

○ Roll
■ Maintain present ground track

○ Pitch
■ If current airspeed remains above the target speed for 5 seconds, the target airspeed is reset to current airspeed, (to a maximum of the IAS/MACH window speed plus 25 knots)

● Autothrottle activates in thrust (THR) to establish a 2000 FPM climb

207
Q

During an approach and landing, when does TOGA arm and disarm?

A

Go-around arms and the reference thrust limit changes to GA when the flaps are out of up or glide slope is captured.

Pushing either TO/GA activates a go-around.

TO/GA switches are inhibited 2 seconds after radio altitude decreases through 5 ft on landing.

Enabled again 3 secs after radio alt increases through 5 ft after a rejected landing.

208
Q

With VNAV armed for takeoff, when passing 400 feet what changes will occur with your FMA, FMC commanded speed, and EICAS N1 Indicators?

A

● at 400 feet, VNAV activates when armed. Pitch commands the current airspeed. [ VNAV
SPD ] Autothrottle sets the selected reference thrust and annunciates THR REF

● at acceleration height, pitch commands speed to 5 knots below takeoff flap placard
speed.
As flaps are retracted, pitch commands an acceleration to 5 knots below the placard speed of the commanded flap position

● When flaps are up, pitch commands an acceleration to VNAV climbspeed. VNAV climb speed is the greater of:
○ 250 knots,
○ VREF + 100 knots, or
○ speed transition associated with origin airport

● at thrust reduction point (either an altitude or flaps 5), the FMC changes the reference thrust limit to the armed climb limit (CLB, CLB 1, or CLB 2)

209
Q

If a TOGA throttle switch is not pressed prior to 50 knots, what will the autothrottle system do on takeoff?

During takeoff prior to lift–off

A

● with speed less than 50 KIAS, pushing a TO/GA switch activates the autothrottle in thrust reference (THR REF) and advances thrust levers to the selected reference thrust limit. If the autothrottle is not engaged by 50 knots, it cannot be engaged until above 400 feet.

● at 65 knots, autothrottle annunciation changes to HOLD

● during takeoff, the FMC records barometric altitude as the airplane accelerates through 100
knots. This altitude is used to activate LNAV and VNAV, enable autothrottle activation (if not active), command acceleration for flap retraction, and set climb thrust if an altitude has been selected.

210
Q

What does the Offside Tuning Light indicate?

A

● the panel is selected to a radio normally associated with another radio tuning panel

● a communication radio not normally associated with that radio tuning panel has been selected and may be tuned by another radio tuning panel.

211
Q

At 30 west you spill coffee on your audio control panel, rendering it inoperative.

What do you do?

A

Switch OBS ACP to Capt or F/O as appropriate.

212
Q

How is the oxygen mask microphone activated and deactivated on A/C N740CK and N741CK?

A

An oxygen mask microphone is enabled and the boom microphone is disabled when the oxygen mask left stowage door is open.

The oxygen mask microphone is disabled and the boom microphone is enabled when the left oxygen mask stowage box door is closed and the RESET/TEST lever is pushed

213
Q

How do you listen to the Inner Marker when conducting an “RA Not Authorized” Category II approach?

A

Approach (APP) Receiver Selector

Selects approach receiver to be monitored: • APP L - left ILS
• APP C - center ILS
• APP R - right ILS
• MKR - marker beacon.

214
Q

The left PFD, ND, and FMC are normally powered by?

A

APU Standby Bus

215
Q

Under normal operation,

what powers the main and APU Standby busses?

A

The main standby bus is normally powered by AC bus 3

The APU standby bus is normally powered by the Captain’s transfer bus.

216
Q

What causes DISC to illuminate in the CSD Disconnect Switch?

A

IDG Disconnect

High oil temperature
Low oil pressure
Uncorrectable frequency fault

217
Q

Do the AC BTBs and DCIRs open at any time when there is no cockpit annunciation?

A

During automatic precision approach below 1,500 feet radio altitude, AC and DC busses 1, 2, and 3 are automatically isolated.

This provides an independent power source for each of the three autopilots. AC bus 4 continues to power the synchronous bus, and will power any other AC bus if its generator fails.

218
Q

You are being released to a destination where a Category III approach is to be conducted.

Enroute, the number 4 Generator has been disconnected. Can you still conduct a category III approach?

A

Yes.

Autoland: CAT II/III Required Indications and Equipment

● Required minimum of 3 Generators

219
Q

The aircraft is dark. External power is connected to the left receptacle.

Can you light your path to the cockpit?

How?

A

Yes.

By using the Flight Deck Access Light Switch at Door 1 Left.

220
Q

The number 1 EEC has gone to alternate mode.

Which line no longer appears on the number 1 N1 indicator?

A

The Maximum continuous N1
Alt mode does not provide over boost protection.
Yellow thrust line no longer appears

221
Q

When will the engine oil quantity appear magenta when the oil quantity is in the normal range?

A

Oil differential reached

If there is an increase in oil quantity during cruise (indicator malfunction or leaking fuel/oil heat exchanger), the EICAS oil partial engine indications display may appear.

However, for this condition the low quantity displays in magenta, even though that oil quantity may be normal.

222
Q

With autostart functioning normally, under what conditions must the start be manually aborted?

A

No N1 by idle N2
No Oil Pressure by idle N2
Engine Fire.

Hot Start, in flight.
No EGT rise, in flight.

223
Q

When will the EICAS Memo Message APU RUNNING be displayed?

A

APU RUNNING is displayed when the APU selector is ON and APU N1 RPM exceeds 95% N1.

224
Q

What is the total time of fire suppression available to the lower lobe cargo compartments?

What are the immediate action items for an Engine Fire in flight?

A

The time of total effective concentration of extinguishing agent is 334 minutes.

The Lower Lobe Cargo Compartment contains four fire extinguishing bottles providing 180 minutes of saturation. (ERF Aircraft)

ENGINE FIRE
1. Thrust Lever (affected engine)… CONFIRM, IDLE
2. FUEL CONTROL switch (affected engine) …. CONFIRM, CUTOFF
3. Engine fire switch (affected engine) ….CONFIRM, PULL
4. If the FIRE ENG message is shown:
● Engine fire switch ….. ROTATE
○ Rotate to the stop and hold for 1 second.
If after 30 seconds the FIRE ENG message stays shown:
● Engine fire switch ….ROTATE to other BOTTLE
○ Rotate to the other stop and hold for 1 second.

225
Q

There is a fire. Now what happens when the PNF pulls the Engine Fire Switch?

A

• closes the related engine and spar fuel valves

• closes the related engine bleed air valve

• trips off the related engine generator

• shuts off hydraulic fluid to the related engine–driven hydraulic pump

• depressurizes the related engine–driven hydraulic pump

• arms both related engine fire extinguishers

226
Q

You may have noticed that the line and number on the flap indicator turn magenta when the PF selects reverse thrust. Why does this happen?

A

During engine reverse thrust operation, automatic retraction of inboard and midspan leading edge flaps changes the flap position indicator to reflect flaps in transit.

227
Q

When does the rising runway symbol on the PFD appear? When does it start to rise?

A

Displays below 1,000 feet radio altitude when the localizer pointer is in view. Moves toward the airplane symbol below 200 feet radio altitude.

228
Q

You are conducting a Category III approach. You have captured the localizer and the expanded scale is displayed in the PFD.

At what localizer deflection is a go-around required?

What is the indication on the PFD?

A

1⁄3 dot on the localizer.

The scale turns amber and the pointer flashes to indicate excessive localizer deviation.

229
Q

If the EICAS message “FLAPS PRIMARY” is displayed, what protection is provided?

A

Asymmetry Protection.

230
Q

On what selected range of the ND can you see all waypoints, all stations and all three segments of the position trend vector visible?

A

40 NM Range.

231
Q

You have been asked to intercept the CVG 033 radial and track it outbound. How do you do this?

A

Track outbound
● CVG033 ○ 1L

If you had been asked to track inbound on the CVG 033 bearing then:

Track inbound
● CVG
○ 1L
● 033
○ 6R
Manually Entered Place/Bearing waypoints
Waypoints entered as a place/bearing for outbound intercepts are identified by the intercept only. Example
● SEA240 becomes (240)

232
Q

Your departure procedure’s initial instruction is a heading vector. It is displayed as a Conditional Waypoint heading on the CDU, followed by the term VECTORS. Can LNAV be used to fly the heading?

A

Yes.

CONDITIONAL WAYPOINTS
Conditional waypoints may display in the route when selecting a DEPARTURES or ARRIVALS page procedure. Usually, conditional waypoints cannot be manually entered on a route or legs page. These waypoints indicate when an event occurs and are not at a geographically–fixed position

233
Q

What CDU pages are available in standby navigation after both FMS units have failed?

A

LEGS

PROGRESS

NAV RADIO

If both FMCs fail, the IRS LEGS, IRS PROGRESS, and ALTN NAV RADIO pages are available on all CDUs

234
Q

On the NAV RAD page of the CDU, a VOR identifier is followed by a letter in small font.

What are the possible letters?

What do they mean?

What must be displayed in order to enter a course?

A

● P (procedure autotuning) – FMC selects navaids for approach or departure procedure guidance

● R (route autotuning) - FMC selects navaids on the active route. The navaid is the previous VOR or a downpath VOR within 250 nm of aircraft position

● A (autotuning) - FMC selects a navaid for best position orientation

● M (manual) - VOR is manual-tuned

VOR or non–ILS DME identifier or VOR frequency (XXX.X or XXX.XX) VOR identifier or frequency/course; the course displays on the CRS line Tunes related DME.

235
Q

When will the fuel system automatically balance itself?

A

During Fuel Jettison.

236
Q

You are fully configured for takeoff.

What are the positions of the number 2 and 3 crossfeed valves?

What are the cockpit indications?

A

The crossfeed valves are closed.
Normal cockpit indications, showing the crossfeed valve as open on the overhead panel.

Crossfeed (X FEED) Valve Switches 2 and 3
● ON (bar visible) - crossfeed valve opens when commanded by system logic.

237
Q

You are starting the APU. External power is not available.

How and from where is fuel supplied to the APU?

A

APU fuel is normally supplied from main tank 2. When AC power is available, fuel is supplied by main pump 2 aft.

If AC power is not available, a dedicated DC pump in main tank 2 supplies fuel to the APU

238
Q

The Auxiliary Hydraulic Pump(s) are powered by what bus or busses?

A

Ground Handling Bus

• lower cargo handling equipment and compartment lights

• fueling system

• auxiliary hydraulic pump 4

239
Q

What is the Max speed for landing gear extension and operation?

A

Landing gear operating speed

Retract or Extend. 270 / .82
Landing gear extended 320 / .82

Kalitta 747-400 Captain Upgrade OKE (2 decks)

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