GI Flashcards

(49 cards)

1
Q

GI diseases
Esophagus –_____ (_____)
Stomach – _____, _____ (PUD)

Intestines –
-Acute: _____ (Bacteria, Viruses and Protozoa) / Traveler’s _____
Chronic: _____ (duodenum), _____ diseases (IBD- UC/Crohn’s), _____ (_____), and _____ disease
-_____

Rectum and Anus – Anal fissures, _____

A
Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)
gastritis
peptic ulcer disease
Gasteroenteritis
diarrhea
Peptic ulcer disease
Inflammatory bowel 
Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) Coeliac
constipation 
Hemorrhoids
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

GERD: a digestive disorder of the _____ (_____)

  • symptoms: chronic _____, _____, _____, _____ pain and early _____
  • Reflux – Excess _____ production, weakness of _____ at LES or _____
  • > 9 million primary care visits annually in US
  • Most common cause of _____
  • If left untreated, esophagitis can cause _____, _____, and chronic _____
  • Scarring narrows the esophagus and interferes with _____
  • Long standing GERD symptoms may cause _____ (10-15%) increasing the likelihood of_____
A
lower esophageal sphincter (LES) 
heartburn
dyspepsia
regurgitation
epigastric
satiety
acid
muscular ring
hiatal hernia
esophagitis
bleeding
ulcers
scarring
swallowing
Barrett's esophagus
cancer
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

GERD and extra-esophageal symptoms

  • Refluxed gastric contents can go into the throat, airways and lungs causing irritation or damage:
  • -Chronic _____
  • -Chronic _____
  • -_____
  • -_____
  • Progressive breathing problems
  • Pulmonary diseases (adult-onset _____ or pulmonary _____)

-Distinguish _____ from _____ chest pain before diagnosing GERD

A
cough
laryngitis
aspiration
pneumonia 
asthma
fibrosis
cardiac
non-cardiac
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

GASTRITIS: inflammation, irritation or erosion of _____

  • acute/chronic
  • causes:
  • -excessive _____ use
  • -chronic _____
  • -_____
  • -medications such as _____, other _____ and _____
  • _____ pylori
  • _____ reflux
  • infections caused by _____ and _____
  • if left untreated- severe loss of _____ and increased risk of developing _____
A
stomach lining
alcohol
vomiting
stress
aspirin
NSAIDs
bisphosphonates 
helicobacter
bile
bacteria 
viruses
blood
stomach cancer
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q
  • _____: inflammation of superficial gastric mucosa
  • _____: destruction of multiple small zones of superficial mucosa
  • _____: destruction of full thickness of mucosa
A

superficial gastritis
erosive gastritis
gastric ulceration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

PUD: peptic ulcer disease (gastric/duodenal)

-_____ that develops on the _____ lining of the stomach and or the _____ portion of _____ (extends through _____ mucosa)

A
open sore
inside
upper
SI
muscularis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

symptoms of PUD

  • _____ stomach pain
  • feeling of _____
  • _____ or _____
  • _____ food intolerance
  • _____
  • _____
  • gastric ulcer- pain is _____ after _____
  • duodenal ulcer- _____ after meals
  • etiology is similar to _____
  • _____ alone do not increase the risk for PUD, can potentiate _____ risk in patients who use _____ concurrently
A
burning 
fullness
bloating
belching
fatty
heartburn 
nausea
shortly 
meals
2-3 hours 
meals
gastritis 
corticosteroids
ulcer
NSAIDs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

H. Pylori

  • Gram _____, spiral bact, in _____ and _____
  • Infection occurs by _____ route
  • Oral cavity may be the permanent reservoir (found in dental plaque and saliva) and a _____ route is the most probable mode of transmission
  • Several virulence factors are produced:
    - _____
    • UREASE converts urea into _____ which buffers _____ and creates an _____ (allows to survive for years)
  • Results in
    - High levels of _____ and _____ and reduced levels of _____
    - Impaired _____ secretion
A
–ve
gastric antrum
pyloric sphincter 
oral
person-to-person
Urease
ammonia
H+ ions
ALKALINE CLOUD
gastrin
pepsinogen 
somatostatin
duodenal bicarbonate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

“ALARM FEATURES” that warrant prompt gastroenterology referral

  • _____
  • _____
  • early _____
  • unexplained _____
  • progressive _____ or _____
  • recurrent vomiting and family history of _____

-patients with perforated PUD usually present with a sudden onset of severe, sharp _____ pain: _____!

A
bleeding 
anemia
satiety
weight loss
dysphagia
odynophagia
GI cancer
abdominal 
medical emergency
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

NSAIDs

  • NSAIDs are the most common cause of _____ in patients without _____ infection
  • topical effects of NDAIDs cause _____. in addition, by inhibiting _____, NSAIDs inhibit the formation of _____ (PGE2) and their protective _____-2-mediated effects (i.e., enhancing gastric mucosal protection by stimulating _____ and _____ secretion and _____ proliferation and increasing mucosal _____)
  • coexisting _____ infection increases the likelihood and intensity of _____- induced damage
  • NSAID use is responsible for approximately one half of _____, which occur most commonly in older patients who are taking _____ or other _____ for _____ or _____
A
PUD
H. Pylori
submucosal erosions 
cyclooxygenase 
prostaglandins 
cyclooxygenase 
mucus 
bicarbonate 
epithelial cell
blood flow
H. Pylori 
NSAID
perforated ulcers
aspirin 
NSAIDs
cardiovascular disease
arthropathy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

PUD treatment

  • Address the underlying cause
  • Lifestyle changes:
    • Reduction in _____ and _____ foods
    • _____ loss
    • Head of bed _____ & avoidance of meals _____ before _____
  • Eradication of_____infection
  • Withdraw _____
  • Anti-secretory therapy
    1: _____
    2: _____ blockers
    3: _____ inhibitors (PPIs)
A
fatty
spicy
weight
elevation
2-3 hours
bedtime
H pylori
NSAIDs
Antacids
H2
proton pump
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

antacids: _____ + _____ = _____ + _____

  • act as buffers to neutralize _____ (act within _____)
  • therapeutic effect is by _____ or _____ properties
  • salts of _____, _____, or _____
  • available as chewable/dissolving tablets, liquid and gums
  • examples: _____, _____, _____
  • inhibit _____ activity by raising pH to _____
  • side effects- _____ (_____ salts) and _____ (_____ salts)
  • mixture of these two can preserve normal _____ function
  • antacids impair the absorption of _____, oral _____, _____, _____, _____, _____ and _____
A
acid
alkali 
salt
water
H+ ions 
mins
physical 
chemical
aluminum
magnesium
calcium
alka-seltzer
gelusil
tums
peptic
5
diarrhea 
Mg
constipation
Al
bowel
tetracycline 
iron
fluoride
ciprofloxacin
erythromycin 
metronidazole 
thyroxine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

H2 blockers- inhibit _____ and _____ stimulated _____ secretion

  • reversible competitive inhibitors of _____ at all H2- receptors
  • highly selective for _____
  • inhibit _____, _____, and _____ stimulated _____ secretion
  • _____ secretion also falls with reduction in acid volume
  • available both by OTC and prescription:
  • _____ (Tazac, Axid)
  • _____ (Pepcid)
  • _____ (Zantac)
  • _____ (Tagamet)
  • _____ are likely to follow when treatment is stopped
  • all agents are rapidly absorbed from _____
A
basal
food
gastric acid
histamine
H2 receptors
histamine 
gastrin
Ach
acid
pepsin
Nizatidine 
Famotidine 
Ranitidine 
Cimetidine 
relapses 
intestine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

pharmacokinetics

  • undergo _____ metabolism resulting in bioavailability of _____ (except _____)
  • action starts within an _____ and DOA is _____ hours based on the dose administered
  • ADRs: _____, _____, _____, _____, _____ and _____
  • these drugs are cleared by combination of _____ metabolism, _____ filtration, and _____ secretion
  • dose reduction is required in patients with moderate to severe _____ and _____ insufficiency
  • in the elderly, a decrease in _____ and _____ decline in drug clearance occurs
A
first pass hepatic
50%
Nizatidine
hour
8-12 
xerostomia 
diarrhea
myalgia
headache
constipation
fatigue
hepatic
glomerular 
renal tubular 
renal
hepatic
volume of distribution
50%
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

clinical relevance

  • use of H2 blockers before treatment ( _____ premedication/ _____) is beneficial in _____ patients
  • _____ and _____ may occasionally cause _____
  • GI pH is _____, concurrent use causes marked reduction in absorption of _____. advise patients to take at a different time.
  • _____ alters the blood flow to the liver and is an enzyme inhibitor: can enhance DOA of other medications, especially _____
  • cimetidine inhibits the metabolism of _____ and _____
A
anesthetic 
surgeries
GERD
cimetidine 
ranitidine 
thrombocytopenia
increased
antifungals
cimetidine 
analgesics 
phenytoin 
warfarin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q
  • Lower the dose of _____, _____, _____ or _____ as H2 blockers may decrease their metabolism and enhance duration of action (slower recovery)
  • _____ is a weak anti-androgenic: may produce _____ and _____ in males
  • Contraindicated in _____ and _____
A
Diazepam
Midazolam
Lidocaine
TCAs
Cimetidine
impotence
gynecomastia 
pregnancy 
lactation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

proton pump inhibitors- most potent

  • Given orally: _____ (Prilosec), _____ (Prevacid), _____ (Protonix)
  • Are _____ that require gastric acid secretion to be converted to the active _____ or _____.
  • _____ bioavailability is high (77% to 90%) and show equivalent efficacy
  • Bind to the _____ irreversibly
  • Half-life is about _____ hour (9 hours for _____), but the duration of acid inhibition is _____ hours (pumps take around 50 hours to resynthesize)
  • Most PPIs are metabolized by _____ and _____. Hepatic impairment and old age reduce clearance of the PPIs, as do mutations in CYP2C19.
A
Omeprazole
Lansoprazole
Pantoprazole
prodrugs
Sulfenamide
Sulfenic acid
Oral
H,K-ATPase
1
Tenatoprazole
48
CYP2C19
3A4
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

SE

  • Increased risk of _____ and_____
  • A risk factor for_____infection via alteration of the colonic flora
  • Combination therapy: _____ + _____ + _____
  • PPIs may reduce absorption of some _____ and _____ (require _____ environment for absorption)
  • Decrease efficacy of _____ (PPIs inhibit _____ enzyme, thus interfering with the conversion ofClopidogrelinto its active metabolite)
A
pneumonia
bone fracture
C. difficile
Antacids
H2 blockers
PPIs
antibiotics
antifungals 
acidic
Clopidogrel
CYP2C19
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

COLLOIDAL BISMUTH COMPOUNDS-Indirectly inhibit acid secretion

  • Suppress _____ infection and reduce the _____ of _____
  • Form an _____ over the ulcer base preventing further damage by acid and pepsin- _____ drug mechanism
  • Adverse effects: _____ of the _____ and darkening of the _____
  • No significant drug interactions
  • Available as _____, _____
A
H. pylori
hypersecretion
acid
insoluble protective layer
Physical
blackening
stool
tongue
Pepto-Bismol
Kaopectate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

SUCRALFATE

  • A salt of sucrose complexed to _____.
  • MOA: Similar to bismuth compounds
  • SE: _____
  • Contraindicated in _____ because of the risk of _____ absorption and toxicity
  • Drug interactions: Can reduce the absorption of drugs such as _____ and _____
  • Available as _____
A
sulfated Aluminum hydroxide
Constipation
chronic renal failure
Aluminum
Phenytoin
Tetracycline
Carafate
21
Q

MISOPROSTOL – A synthetic PGE1 analog

  • Has _____ and _____ protective properties
  • Simulates _____ and _____ secretion and enhance mucosal blood flow
  • Binds to a _____ receptor on _____ cells, reducing _____ production
  • Is an _____ drug (stimulates uterine contraction), so not to be used during pregnancy
  • No significant drug interactions are reported
  • Available as _____, _____
A
acid inhibitory
mucosal
mucus
bicarbonate
prostaglandin
parietal
histamine-mediated c-AMP 
abortifacient
Cytotec
Misodel
22
Q

ERADICATION OF H.PYLORI-DRUG COMBINATION THERAPY
-OAC – _____, _____, and _____ for _____ days;
BMT – _____, _____, and _____ for _____ days;
LAC – _____, _____, and _____ (LAC), for either _____ days or _____ days;

A
Omeprazole
Amoxicillin
Clarithromycin
10
Bismuth subsalicylate
Metronidazole
Tetracycline
14
lansoprazole
Amoxicillin
Clarithromycin
10
14
23
Q

inflammatory bowel disease (IBD)

  • idiopathic disease
  • dysfunction of the _____ and _____ immune system
  • two major types:
  • -ulcerative colitis (US): limited to the _____ mucosa
  • -crohns disease (CD): affects any segment of GIT from _____ to _____, involves _____ lesions and is _____

-there is a genetic predisposition for IBD, and patients are more prone to development of _____

A
innate
adaptive
colonic 
mouth 
anus
skip
transmural 
malignancy
24
Q

symptoms

  • Abdominal cramping and pain- Commonly in _____ in CD and in _____ or _____ in UC
  • Irregular bowel habits, passage of mucus with/without blood or pus, _____
  • Weight loss, _____ (during flare-up)
  • _____, _____, _____
  • _____ (50%)
  • Perianal disease (_____, _____): 50% patients with CD
  • _____ and delayed or failed _____ maturation in children
  • Malabsorption of _____, _____ and other nutrients leading to _____ and _____ lesions
A
RLQ
periumbilical
LLQ
tenesmus
Fever
Malaise
Arthralgia
Uveitis
Pyoderma gangrenosum
fistulas
abscesses 
Growth retardation
sexual
iron
B12
anemia
oral
25
CD- oral manifestations - Seen on _____, _____ mucosa and _____ - _____ ulcerations - Angular _____ - _____ with or without edema of lips - Mucosal _____ in the gingiva - Buccal mucosa _____
``` lips buccal gingiva Aphthous cheilitis Cobblestoning tags abscesses ```
26
MANAGEMENT- Stepwise approach (step-up) - Step I – 5-ASA (_____) _____ daily basis (life long maintenance) - -_____-Pentasa, Rowasa, Asacol - -_____ – Azulfidine - -_____ – Giazo - MOA: exert topical _____ effect by reduction in synthesis of _____ (inhibition of _____ production, blocking of _____) - Side effects: _____, Vomiting and GI upset (poor compliance), _____ discoloration of secretions, decrease in _____ absorption (supplements, megaloblastic anemia) - Used during flares and for maintaining _____ - Overall: safe, well-tolerated but drug _____ is very imp - Caution: Patients prescribed anti-inflammatory drugs may have an _____ effect
``` Aminosalicylic acid twice Mesalazine Sulphasalazine Balsalaside anti-inflammatory inflammatory cytokines arachidonic acid metabolite PG synthesis Nausea yellow-orange folate remission compliance additive ```
27
``` CLINICIAN’S CONCERNS drug induced: -_____ -_____ disturbance -_____ ``` -may decrease _____ effect of the anticoagulants like _____ and _____
``` agranulocytosis taste parotitis anticoagulant heparin warfarin ```
28
STEP 1A- ANTIBIOTICS - Used more often for _____ disease, _____, _____ masses in CD - Most commonly used antibiotics are : - -_____ - -_____
``` perianal fistulas intra-abdominal inflammatory Ciprofloxacin Metronidazole ```
29
STEP II- CORTICOSTEROIDS(ANTI-INFLAMMATORY) - For _____ disease flares only - Decrease inflammation by reversing _____ and suppressing _____ activity - Not effective in preventing complications or progression of disease - Long-term use is _____ due to side effects - _____ and _____ Prep (Suppositories, enemas and rectal foams) - -_____ (O) - -_____ (O, Top) - -_____ (O, Inj) - -_____ (O, Top) an enteric-coated controlled-release capsule delivers active _____ to the _____ and _____
``` acute increased capillary permeability PMN discouraged Oral rectal Prednisone hydrocortisone methylprednisone budesonide glucocorticoid distal small intestine colon ```
30
STEP III-IMMUNOMODULATORS (Steroid-Sparing drugs) - MOA: inhibit _____ mediated and _____ mediated immune reactions- _____ - inhibit _____, _____ and _____ of cells - used if: - -No-response or intolerance to _____, _____ or _____ - -_____ disease or frequent need for steroids - -Perianal disease that does not respond to _____ - -_____ - -To bolster the effect of a _____ drug and prevent the development of resistance to biologic drugs - -Prevent recurrence after surgery
``` cell antibody immunosuppressants production differentiation proliferation Amino-salicylates antibiotics corticosteroids Steroid-dependent Antibiotics fistulas biologic ```
31
STEROID SPARING: Decrease the long-term need for steroids for recurring flares - takes _____ months (slow onset of action) for improvement in symptoms, steroids are started at the same time to produce a faster response and are withdrawn rapidly - oral: _____ (Azasan, Imuran )and _____ (Purinethol) - used to maintain _____ - Other examples : _____ (weekly injections), _____ and _____ (Topical- for Pyoderma Gangrenosum)
``` 3-6 Azathioprine 6-Mercaptopurine remission Methotrexate Cyclosporine A Tacrolimus ```
32
STEP IV: BIOLOGIC THERAPY WITH MONOCLONAL ANTIBODIES - _____: If not responded or intolerant to Corticosteroid and/or an Immunosuppressant - -_____ (IV) – Remicade - -_____ (SC) – Humira - -_____ – Cimzia - TNF is a _____ agent in the body's immune response and is _____ in IBD - Watch-out for reactivation of latent _____ and other opportunistic infections, _____ - Cautious use in pts with _____
``` Tumor necrosis factor (TNF) inhibitors Infliximab Adalimumab Certolizumab pegol cytokine upregulated TB Hepatitis B heart failure ```
33
treatment of oral lesions - Local _____ injections to the lesion - _____ 2% in severe cases - Topical _____ at low concentrations of 0.5 mg/kg - 1% _____ ointment three times daily - Steroid _____ (Dexamethasone elixir) - Topical _____ ointment for refractory aphthous ulcers
``` Corticosteroid Lidocaine Tacrolimus Hydrocortisone mouthwashes Dexamethasone ```
34
COMMON SIDE EFFECTS WITH IMMUNOSUPPRESSANT DRUGS - _____ and _____: Canker sores, bone marrow suppression (increase the risk of infection or serious bleeding) and increased risk of non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma - _____ and _____: increased risk of infections, high blood pressure, swollen gums, tingling of the fingers and feet, increased facial hair - _____: Severe mouth sores and low WBC count. Addition of folic acid may reduce some side effects.
``` Azathioprine 6MP Cyclosporine tacrolimus Methotrexate ```
35
ANALGESIC OF CHOICE IN PUD AND IBD PATIENTS - Avoid prescribing _____ and _____ - Use _____ or _____ (selective COX-2inhibitor) in combination with _____ or _____ - IBD pt – avoid long term use of _____, especially in elderly and debilitated to minimize risk of _____ - Monitor for signs and symptoms of _____ - Selection of antibiotics for oral infections may be influenced by recent use of antibiotics for _____
``` Aspirin NSAIDs Acetaminophen Celecoxib PPI Misoprostal antibiotics pseudomembranous colitis diarrhea PUD ```
36
irritable bowel syndrome - abdominal pain or discomfort accompanied by a change in _____ habit and an abnormal _____ frequency: - -_____ is a>3 bowel movement/day - -_____ is <3 movements/week - prevalence is 10-15% - more common in _____ 2:1 - often coexists with other GI disorders, both functional (_____, chronic _____) and organic (_____ disease, _____, _____)
``` bowel stool diarrhea constipation women dyspepsia constipation celiac GERD IBD ```
37
MANAGEMENT1: OPIOIDS FOR IBS-D - _____ (Imodium) - binds to the _____ receptor in the _____. Consequently, inhibiting the release of _____ and _____, thereby reducing _____, and increasing intestinal transit time. - Improves QOL as it allows planning of trips and socializing- anxious IBS-D patients - Maximum daily dose is _____ for adults as OTC use and _____ as prescription use. - Much higher doses can cause _____ and even death. 
``` Loperamide opiate gut wall Ach PGs peristalsis 8mg 16mg cardiotoxicity ```
38
2: 5HT3 RECEPTOR ANTAGONISTS FOR IBS-D - _____ (Zofran) – has excellent safety record - _____ is present in the entero-chromaffin cells (EC cells) - These patients have higher mucosal _____ concentrations in the colon - Improve QOL by slowing transit, reducing bowel frequency, normalizing _____, and reducing _____ - Blocks _____ signals that transmit _____ information (painful and non painful) from the gut to the brain and helps to reduce _____ and abdominal pain. - SE: _____ (25%) and _____
``` Ondansetron Serotonin 5-HT stool consistency urgency serotonin sensory diarrhea Constipation Ischemic colitis ```
39
3: SECRETAGOGUES FOR IBS-C -Guanylate cyclase-C receptor agonist: Stimulates _____ secretion by activation of type 2 _____ via _____ (an intracellular second messenger) which in turn promotes _____ --_____ (Amitiza)- does not alter pain thresholds during rectal distension --_____ (Linzess) - improves pain as well by blocking pain signals SE: _____
``` chloride Cl- ion channels cGMP peristalsis Lubiprostone Linaclotide Diarrhea ```
40
TRAVELLER’S DIARRHEA - Acute diarrhea in those who travel to developing countries and have adventuresome _____ behavior - Main source of infection: Food and water contaminated with _____ matter - Bacteria: _____, Campylobacter, _____, and Shigella - Luxury resorts & cruise ships (_____ virus) - Seafood ingestion syndromes : _____ numbness and reversal of temperature sensation - More susceptible: Immunocompromised or lowered _____ (e.g., on _____ or _____)
``` eating fecal E coli Salmonella Noro Perioral gastric acidity H2blockers PPIs ```
41
- DD: _____ (e.g., Staphylococcus aureus, Bacillus cereus) - _____ : Not recommended - Avoid high-risk _____ (street vendors) and eating behaviors (cold sauces, salsas) - Empiric treatment: - -_____(sometimes change in H20 and electrolyte imbalance is the cause of diarrhea) - -_____ – Increase colonic transit time (anti-motility) and Increase _____ water absorption (anti-secretory) - _____ (does not cross BBB so no addiction potential), has _____ effects - _____ + _____ (Lomotil), CNS effects at higher doses - _____ - Rifaximin (Salix), also used in IBS as has anti-inflammatory and antibacterial properties
``` Gastroenteritis Antibiotic prophylaxis foods Oral rehydration solutions Opioid agonists fecal Loperamide anticholinergic Diphenoxylate atropine Antibiotics ```
42
constipation - 74% nursing home residents - _____, lack of _____, or use of certain medications (_____, _____, _____, _____, _____ and Supplements like _____/_____) - Underlying ds- Stroke, Parkinson's disease, Diabetes, Spinal cord injury, Multiple sclerosis, Hypothyroidism etc - Most pts use OTC remedies and don't report - Discomfort, bloating, hemorrhoids or fecal impaction - Mistaken belief: everyone should move their bowels each day, can lead to dangerous _____ overuse - Bowel movements _____/wk may be normal and healthy for some
``` Diet physical activity Opioids CCBs diuretics antidepressants antacids iron/calcium laxative 3 ```
43
management - Bulk forming – Absorb _____ and _____ to increase _____ pressure (increase in peristalsis) - Stimulants – Stimulate _____ in intestinal smooth muscle, increase mucosal permeability (moves fluids into lumen) - Osmotics – Increase _____ (stimulate peristalsis by increasing intraluminal pressure) - Wetting agents – _____ to ease passage (act like detergents and soften stools by reducing _____, thus allowing intestinal fluids, fatty substances to penetrate fecal mass)
``` water expand intraluminal enteric nerves fluid volume Moisten surface tension ```
44
bulk forming - _____ - _____ stimulants - _____ - _____ osmotic - _____ - _____ - _____ (_____) - _____ wetting agents - _____ - _____
Psyllium, Methylcellulose Bisacodyl Senna, Castor oil Mag hydroxide Lactulose, Glycerin Polyethylene glycol (PEG) Milk of Magnesia Docusate Mineral oil
45
OPIOID RECEPTOR ANTAGONISTS – µ (peripheral) - _____ - Used in short term tt of opioid induced constipation without affecting _____ or precipitating _____
Methynaltrexone analgesia withdrawls
46
laxative abuse - Eating disorders – _____ (binge eating followed by purging) - Quick weight control – _____ (boxing, wrestling) - _____ – something is wrong if they don't move their bowels every day
Bulimia Combat sports Older adults
47
antiemetics -_____ – Benzodiazepines like lorazepam -_____ – Antipsychotics like _____, Prochlorperazine -D2 antagonists in CTZ and peripheral pro-kinetic action – _____ and _____ -_____ – Ondansetron, Granisetron _____ is highly selective, high-affinity, non cardiotoxic and safe in children -_____ – Meclizine, Cinnarizine, Cyclizine, Dimenhydrinate, Promethazine and Diphenhydramine -_____ – Hyoscine( Scopolamine as a transdermal patch) -Corticosteroid combination and neurokinin 1 (NK1) receptor antagonist – Aprepitant -Partial CB1 agonist – Nabilone and Dronabinol
``` GABA agonist DA antagonists Promethazine Metoclopramide Domperidone 5HT3 antagonist Granisetron H1 antagonists Muscarinic antagonists ```
48
CELIAC DISEASE (GLUTEN SENSITIVE ENTEROPATHY) - Autoimmune disorder of _____ intestine in genetically predisposed (HLA DQ2, DQ8, or both) - An inflammatory reaction to dietary gluten resulting in production of _____ that may produce _____ of the _____ (villous atrophy) - Intestinal manifestations- _____, flatulance and weight loss. - _____- iron deficiency anemia(palor), decreased bone mineral density, dermatitis herpetiformis, neuropathy and muscle wasting - Left untreated- low _____ (vitamin D def) and risk for _____ - Women- risk of _____, spontaneous abortions, preterm deliveries, and LBW
``` small autoantibodies shortening villi diarrhea Extraintestinal BMD fractures infertility ```
49
treatment - _____-free diet (Dietary education should focus on identifying hidden sources of gluten, planning balanced meals, reading labels, food shopping, dining out, and dining during travel) - 5% of patients are refractory to a gluten-free diet - Refractory patients – - -_____ - -_____ - -Remission may be induced by the _____ and maintained with _____ and _____. - Dermatitis herpetiformis – _____ skin ointment, _____ or potent topical Steroids (_____ or _____) or very potent (_____)
``` Gluten Corticosteroids Immuno-modulators anti-TNF alpha antibody Infliximab Prednisolone Azathioprine Dapsone Salfasalazine Betamethasone valerate dipropionate Clobetasol propionate ```