a_level_economics_aqa_20240313164355 Flashcards

1
Q

What does economics study?

A

The choices people take under conditions of scarcity and uncertainty.

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2
Q

What is microeconomics the study of?

A

Economics at the individual, industry or household level.

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3
Q

What is a positive statement?

A

A statement that can be tested, proved and/or amended due to evidence.

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4
Q

What is a normative statement?

A

A subjective statement.

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5
Q

What are the 3 assumptions microeconomists make?

A
  1. Rational consumers want to maximize satisfaction
    from the products they purchase.
  2. Producers/Companies wish to maximize profits by
    producing goods at the lowest cost.
  3. Government operates in the best interests of it’s
    citizens by improving the economic and social
    welfare of the aforementioned.
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6
Q

What is opportunity cost?

A

It measures the cost of a choice compared to the next best option.

i.e. If you go out for food, the opportunity cost is that you didn’t put that money into savings.

On a more macro scale, if you use land for agriculture and farming, you can’t then also use that land for education or healthcare.

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7
Q

What are the factors of production?

A

Land
Labour
Enterprise
Capital

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8
Q

What does land mean?

A

The scarce physical natural resources available for production.

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9
Q

What is labour?

A

The human input to create goods.

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10
Q

What is enterprise?

A

The people who own the companies that manufacture the goods.

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11
Q

What is capital?

A

The goods used in the supply of other products.
i.e. technology, machinery etc.

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12
Q

What are capital goods?

A

Goods that are used to make and manufacture consumer goods and services.

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13
Q

What are the three types of consumer goods?

A

Consumer durables
Consumer non-durables
Consumer services

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14
Q

Give an example of a consumer durable.

A

A washing machine

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15
Q

Give an example of a consumer non-durable.

A

A latte
Turning on the heating.

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16
Q

Give an example of a consumer service.

A

Hair cut
Tickets to a show

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17
Q

What does the rate of extraction of finite resources depend on?

A

It depends in part on the current market price. In a free market economy, businesses that extract resources such as oil will have a greater incentive to do so.

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18
Q

What are the two main economies?

A

Free market
Command
(Mixed)

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19
Q

What are the principles of a free market?

A

Markets allocate resources to people.
The economy is driven by the profit motive (i.e. this thing costs more therefore companies will make more of it).
Limited role of state because everything is privatised.

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20
Q

What are the principles of a command economy?

A

Most if not all resources are state-owned.
Planning from the state allocates resources.
Very little role for market prices.

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21
Q

What are the advantages of free market competition?

A

A natural efficient allocation of scarce resources (i.e. resources tend to go where market return is highest)
Competition tends to improve the quality of goods through innovation.
Competition means consumers can choose between companies to purchase from.
The profit motive stimulates capital investment lowering prices in the long run.

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22
Q

What is the role of State in a mixed economy?

A

There is a mix of private and public sectors.

State-owned industries (i.e. RBS or Network Rail)
Welfare (State pension, free healthcare etc.)
Spending on public services (Education and health investment)

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23
Q

What do normative statements have to contain?

A

A value judgement, be it implicit or explicit.

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24
Q

What is a value judgement?

A

Whether something is desirable or not.

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25
Q

What is a need?

A

Something that people must have, i.e. water, food, clothing etc.

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26
Q

What is a want?

A

A desirable, something that people would like to have.

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27
Q

What is welfare?

A

Human happiness.

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28
Q

What does pandering to human wants and needs cause?

A

The improvement of economic welfare.

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29
Q

How can economic welfare be skewed?

A

If a person consumes more material goods in the short term can improve current economic welfare, but in the long term, it can cause problems.

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30
Q

What is an economic system?

A

The set of institutions within a community that decides what, how and for whom to produce.

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31
Q

What are the two forms of economic mechanisms?

A

Command mechanism
Price mechanism

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32
Q

What economy does the command mechanism lead to?

A

Command economy

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33
Q

What economy does the price mechanism lead to?

A

Free market economy

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34
Q

What is a mixed economy?

A

An economy that contains both large market and non-market sectors.

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35
Q

What does a pure market economy do? (in regards to allocation of resources)

A

Price mechanisms allocate resources solely based on their value to society.

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36
Q

What is the term commonly used to describe China’s economy?

A

State-capitalism

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37
Q

When did the UK become a mixed economy?

A

Post WW2

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38
Q

What did the UK becoming a mixed economy involve?

A

Important industries such as coal, oil and gas were nationalised.
The NHS was set-up.
The 1944 Education Act extended state provision for education.

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39
Q

What was a problem with the 1944 Education Act?

A

Many poor parents had to turn down the “free” places as there were many extra costs involved.

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40
Q

What did the 1944 Education Act seek to do?

A

Remove the inequalities in the UK’s system.

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41
Q

What are the benefits of nationalisation?

A

The nationalised industries can be easier co-ordinated with a central plan from government.
Trading surpluses are not used for profit and are instead used to subsidise other public sectors or reduce poverty for example.
The state can more easily regulate the macro-economy.

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42
Q

What are the negatives of nationalisation?

A

There is no longer a price incentive, this can lead to massive inefficiency. (x-inefficiency and normal inefficiency)

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43
Q

What is x-inefficiency?

A

The lack of effective competition in an industry leading to higher costs.

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44
Q

What is privitasation?

A

The transfer of a business from public ownership to private ownership (i.e. Thames Water)

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45
Q

What is marketisation?

A

The introduction of competition into the public sector. Prices are charged for goods and services that the government provided free of charge before. Commonly links with privitisation.

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46
Q

What is deregulation?

A

The removal of previously imposed regulations.

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47
Q

Why did the UK goverment lean into deregulation?

A

In an effort to increase investment opportunities, deregulation hoped to eliminate restrictions for new businesses to enter markets.

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48
Q

What is the combination of privitisation, marketisation and deregulation called?

A

Economic liberalisation

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49
Q

What is production?

A

The conversion of inputs into outputs

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50
Q

What is a capital good?

A

A good that is used in the production of other services.

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51
Q

What is a consumer good?

A

A good that is consumed by individuals to satisfy wants and/or needs.

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52
Q

What is an “easy” way to improve economic welfare?

A

Increasing consumption of material goods.

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53
Q

What are the four factors of production?

A

Land, labour, capital and enterprise.

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54
Q

Why is enterprise different from the other factors of production?

A

They address issues by deciding what to produce, how to produce it and for whom to produce it.

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55
Q

Is enterprise included in command economies?

A

No. The central state decides what to produce, how to produce it and for whom to produce it.

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56
Q

What is entrepreneurial profit?

A

The profit remaining after the cost of employing the other factors of production.

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57
Q

Why do entrepreneurs do what they do?

A

In a free-market economy, there is a price incentive to generate more money, this leads to risk taking on behalf of entrepreneurs to generate more income to increase the price incentive.

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58
Q

Can finite resources be recycled?

A

In theory, however, it is often not economically viable to recycle more than a tiny fraction.

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59
Q

What is scarcity?

A

The limited amount of a particular resource leading to rationing of those resources.

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60
Q

What is the fundamental economic problem?

A

How best to make decisions against the problem of scarcity to maximise human happiness and economic welfare.

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61
Q

In free market economies, what determines the rationing of scarce resources?

A

The price mechanism.

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62
Q

What is choice?

A

Choosing between alternatives when making a decision on how to use scarce resources.

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63
Q

How can people avoid going into debt when the price of living goes up?

A

People must sacrifice spending on other sectors (entertainment, luxuries etc.)

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64
Q

When does the need for choice arise?

A

When an economic agent must choose between two (or more) mutually exclusive events.

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65
Q

What must economists assume about people?

A

People behave rationally.

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66
Q

What must people have in order to behave rationally?

A

Information about the topic (i.e. knowledge that smoking causes cancer therefore the population should not smoke)

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67
Q

What happens when a choice must be made?

A

People always choose what they think at the time is the best alternative.

“that they think at the time” - seeing a film, expecting to enjoy it, but hating it. It’s still technically rational behaviour, as you did not have all of the information needed. If you see the same film again, that’s irrational.

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68
Q

What is inter-temporal choice?

A

Choice over time.

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69
Q

Where does inter-temporal choice come into effect?

A

When choosing to sacrifice the short-term benefits, in exchange for possible long term benefits that outweigh the short-term.

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70
Q

What is the key feature of a PPD?

A

PPF (Production Possibility Frontier) or production possibility curve.

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71
Q

What are the three types of PPD’s?

A

Linear, Concave, Convex

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72
Q

What does a straight line PPF represent?

A

An indication of perfect factor sustainability of resources.

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73
Q

What does a linear PPF mean in regards to marginial opportunity cost?

A

Switching resources from x to y is constant.

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74
Q

What is an example of a linear PPF?

A

Resources are not specialised and can be substituted for each other with no added cost.

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75
Q

What can a PPF diagram be used to represent on a macro scale?

A

Economic growth
Full employment and unemployment.

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76
Q

What are the two forms of economic growth?

A

Short run
Long run

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77
Q

How is economic growth defined?

A

An increase in the potential level of real output the economy can produce over a period of time.

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78
Q

How is short run economic growth shown on a PPF diagram?

A

Movement from Point C to B.

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79
Q

How is long run economic growth shown on a PPF diagram?

A

The movement of the frontier from PPF1 to PPF 2.

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80
Q

How does short run economic growth occur?

A

Makes use of spare capacity within the economy.

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81
Q

How does long run economic growth occur?

A

An increase in total productive capacity.

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82
Q

How can you demonstrate employment levels on a PPF?

A

The frontier demonstrates complete full employment of labour.

Point D demonstrates a certain level of unemployment.

(Note that if long run economic growth moves the frontier to the point E, points A, B, C will now be inside the frontier and as a result would now be points of unemployment)

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83
Q

How can you tell if a PPF is showing microeconomics or macroeconomics?

A

The labels on the axis of the graphs.

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84
Q

What is resource allocation?

A

The process through which the available factors of production are assigned to produce different goods and services.

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85
Q

What is productive efficiency?

A

A firm minimising the cost of a good.

When it is impossible for an economy to produce more of one good than the other.

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86
Q

When does productive efficiency occur?

A

When an output is maximised from available inputs.

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87
Q

How can you show productive inefficiency on a PPF?

A

Points within a frontier.

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88
Q

How can you show productive efficiency on a PPF?

A

Points on the frontier.

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89
Q

What is productive inefficiency often associated with?

A

Unemployment.

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90
Q

What is another prequisite for productive efficiency?

A

As you are on the frontier, more capital goods can only be produced by giving up the production of other goods.

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91
Q

What is utility?

A

The pleasure or satisfaction obtained from consumption.

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92
Q

What is marginal utility?

A

The additional pleasure obtained from consuming one more unit of something.

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93
Q

What do total and marginal utility curves both show?

A

The same information, demonstrated in different ways.

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94
Q

How do marginal utility graphs differ from total utility graphs?

A

Marginal utility graphs plot the data as separate observations, whereas total utility shows the data cumulatively.

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95
Q

What is the marginal utility in reference to the total utility?

A

The marginal utility is the difference of n2 - n1

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96
Q

What is diminishing marginal utility?

A

The decrease of satisfaction due to overconsumption, (added consumption of each item)

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97
Q

Where is the point of satiation on a marginal utility curve?

A

The point at which it crosses the x-axis.

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98
Q

What is the point of satiation on a total utility curve?

A

The crest of the graph.

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99
Q

What do economists have to assume about the point of satiation?

A

Consumers will cease consumption of that product as it is irrational for them to do so.

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100
Q

What is the ‘hypothesis of diminishing marginal utility’?

A

For a single consumer, the marginal utility that comes with consumption of a good or service diminishes for each additional unit consumed.

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101
Q

What was Adam Smith’s diamonds and water paradox?

A

Nothing is more useful than water: but; scarce any thing can be had in exchange for it. A diamond, on the contrary, has scarce any value in use; but a very great quantity of other goods may be frequently had in exchange for it.

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102
Q

What did Adam Smith’s paradox mean?

A

Practical items have a value in use, but often have little or no value in exchange.
On the other hand, impractical items have almost no value in use, but have a very high value in exchange.

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103
Q

Why does Adam Smith’s paradox work?

A

Diamonds have a very low supply, hence their value is very high. In most areas of the world, water is not scarce, so the value is very low.

The marginal utility of having one diamond is far higher than a glass of water as it is worth far more.

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104
Q

At what point does Adam Smith’s paradox break down?

A

If one is dying of thirst, the marginal utility of a glass of water is far higher than the marginal utility of an added diamond, at least until the thirst is quenched.

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105
Q

What is the link between marginal utility and an individual’s demand?

A

If an item has a value, you will consume the item/s to the point of satiation until the marginal utility is lower than purchasing another item.

As price of a given item increases, the marginal utility of buying more of it reduces.

Essentially, the higher the price, the lower the quantity that is demanded.

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106
Q

What is utility maximisation?

A

Economic agents decide their market plans in order to maximise a target goal in the pursuit of self-interest.

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107
Q

What is the difference between maximising vs. minimising behaviour?

A

There are two ways of thinking about any objective.

Maximising = the utility gained from the set of goods consumed
Minimising = reducing the outlay or cost of obtaining the same combination of a bundle of goods and/or services.

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108
Q

What are the constraints of choices consumers make in the market?

A

Limited income
A given set of prices
The budget constaint
Limited time available

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109
Q

How does limited income cause a change in the choices of consumers?

A

No-one has an infinite income so income spent on one good cannot then be spent on another good.

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110
Q

How does a given set of prices cause a change in the choices of consumers?

A

Consumers in and of themselves cannot actually affect market prices. Given this assumption, consumers are ‘price-takers’ rather than ‘price-makers’

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111
Q

How does the budget constraint cause a change in the choices of consumers?

A

Essentially the opportunity cost of consumption. If you purchase one good, you must forgo the opportunity to purchase another good.

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112
Q

How does the limited availability of time cause a change in the choices of consumers?

A

It is impossible to consume more than one good at a time, and you cannot store an infinite number of goods for later consumption.

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113
Q

What is the margin?

A

The current level of activity.

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114
Q

How can an economic agent maximise a desired objective?

A

An economic agent must undertake an activity to the point at which the marginal private benefit is equal to the marginal private cost incurred due to production of the good.

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115
Q

How can an economic agent maximise a desired objective?

A

An economic agent must undertake an activity to the point at which the marginal private benefit is equal to the marginal private cost incurred due to production of the good.

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116
Q

How do consumers maximise utility?

A

Consume a good up to the point at which MU = P.

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117
Q

Can utility be measured?

A

No, you cannot actually measure the utility gained for each unit of a good consumed.

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118
Q

How have economists got around the problem of utility measurement?

A

Paul Samuelson conceptualised ‘revealed preference’.

It works by observing how consumers behave in reference to their preferences. Consumers reveal a preference buy choosing items at a given price for given levels of income.

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119
Q

What is (effective) demand?

A

The desire to buy a good or service and willingness to pay for it.

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120
Q

What can shift a demand curve to the right?

A

Incomes

External Shocks (Recession, Economic Booms etc.)

Change in people’s tastes / seasonality

Prices of complementary goods (printer / ink cartridges)

Prices of substitute goods (competition)

Derived Demand (changing the demand of a product changes the price of the raw material)

Composite Demand (a raw material can be used for multiple applications, therefore the application that has the most demand will have the most raw materials rerouted to that application.) (e.g. oil can be used for petrol and plastics. If the price of petrol rises due to demand, more oil will be rerouted to that application, with less oil for plastic, therefore the price of plastics will increase.)

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121
Q

What is derived demand?

A

Derived demand is the demand as a result of what the raw material can do for you.

(i.e. demand of fencing increases therefore price of wood will increase)

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122
Q

What are Veblen Goods?

A

Goods that we demand because they are expensive. Seemingly irrational behaviour.

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123
Q

What is the difference between Giffen Goods and Veblen Goods?

A

Nothing, they are the same name for goods that are demanded because they are expensive.

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124
Q

What is the distinguishing behind wrong decisions and irrational decisions?

A

Wrong decisions are a result of spending money on a good, expecting to get utility from it, but actually not getting any/little utility from it.

Irrational decisions are spending money on an item that you know at the time you will get no utility from.

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125
Q

Why may people choose to underspend a merit good, and overcosume a demerit good?

A

They may not possess sufficient information in order to prevent them making a wrong decision.

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126
Q

What is asymmetric information?

A

One party to a market transaction possesses less relevant information to the exchange than the other.

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127
Q

How can asymmetric information manifest itself?

A

Through adverse selection.

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128
Q

What is adverse selection?

A

Adverse selection is when one economic agent has more information than another economic agent, so one economic agent can make a wrong decision as a result.

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129
Q

Who described the problem of asymmetric information in an article?

A

George Akerlof.

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130
Q

What did Akerlof’s article describe?

A

The market for ‘lemons’

‘lemons’ is slang for poor quality second hand cars.

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131
Q

What did Akerlof’s article entale?

A

Suppose there are only 4 types of cars. New and used. Good and bad.

A new car may be good or bad. A used car may be good or bad.

The individuals within the market buy a new car without knowing whether or not the car they purchase will be good or bad.

There is clearly an asymmetry of information here, as the sellers have far more information about the cars they are selling, and the buyers do not know.

This leads to all good and bad used cars selling at the same price however, as if there is one used car that is priced lower than another, it is clear to a consumer that is a lemon, therefore it is less likely to sell.

If the car is priced at the same point, then it will sell at the same price despite its lower quality.

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132
Q

What is behavioural economics?

A

A method of economic analysis that applies psychological insights into human behaviour to explain how individuals make choices and decisions.

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133
Q

Where has most of the behavioural economics study come from?

A

The USA.

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134
Q

Why does the location of study on behavioural economics come from possibly cause problems?

A

There could be a bias towards the USA as a dominant or ‘correct’ economy.

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135
Q

What is behavioural economics based on?

A

The insights of psychologists seeking to understand human behaviour and decision making.

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136
Q

What did the UK government set up in 2010?

A

The Behavioural Insights Team (BIT).

They brought together many disiplines that are closely related. (behavioural economics, psychology and social anthropology)

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137
Q

According to Dan Ariely, what is the difference between traditional economics and behavioural economics?

A

Traditional economics involves coming up with a theory then using it to explain actual behaviour.
Behavioural economics involves studying actual behaviour, then coming up with a theory.

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138
Q

What is the BIT based on?

A

Nudge Theory

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139
Q

What is Nudge Theory?

A

You can change the environment in order to indirectly influence a person’s decision making.

They still maintain free choice, but are essentially incentivized to choose one way or the other.

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140
Q

What is the Homo Economicus?

A

The Economic Man

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141
Q

What does the Homo Economicus actually mean?

A

The economic man is:

Self-interested
Aware of the consequences of his actions
Rational
Aware of what he wants
Acting on his preferences

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142
Q

What are the short-comings of Homo Economicus?

A

People are somewhat altruistic.
Humans are generally impatient and lack self-control
Humans generally have ‘status quo bias’

Research from cognitive psychology suggests that:
Humans make decisions based on simple-rules-of-thumb (heuristics)
Humans have a large variety of biases (confirmation, recency etc.)
Humans can make decisions based on emotions (anger, regret etc.)

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143
Q

What is bounded rationality?

A

When making decisions, individuals’ rationality is limited by the information they have, information in their minds, and the limited time they have to make a decision.

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144
Q

What can bounded rationality often lead to?

A

Within complex situations, bounded rationality results in satisficing rather than maximising choices.

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145
Q

What is satisficing?

A

A decision-making strategy that aims for a satisfactory or adequete result rather than going for the most optimal solution.

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146
Q

What is bounded self-control?

A

The limited self control in which individuals lack the self-control to act in what they assume to be their best interest.

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147
Q

What do traditional or orthodox economics assume in reference to choice making?

A

People have complete self-control over their actions.

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148
Q

How do traditional / orthodox economics differ in comparison to behavioural economics in reference to decision making?

A

Traditional / Orthodox economists assume people have complete self-control of their actions, however, behavioural economists believe that individuals have limited self-control.

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149
Q

What is an example of bounded self-control in practice?

A

Post Christmas, many people make New Year’s Resolutions to improve themselves. For example, to lose weight. A person will decide to go for a run once a day, working well for a week or two, but when rain falls, the resolution breaks as a result.

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150
Q

What are the two types of thinking?

A

Thinking fast
Thinking slow

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151
Q

What are the differences in the types of thinking?

A

Thinking fast is done with little to no effort to analyse the situation. This is automatic thinking.

Thinking slow is done with concentration and mental effort required in order to come to a decison.

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152
Q

Where is thinking fast seen?

A

Buying a coffee in a train station, or ordering drinks in a bar.

It is also seen in high-level athletes. People who have practiced for many hours at their craft let their automatic thinking take over which allows them to play quickly and better.

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153
Q

Where is thinking slow seen?

A

Buying a house or a car.

While learning a new sport, an individual will take time to think about what they are doing (holding a golf club, or the rotation of a basketball)

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154
Q

What is cognitive bias?

A

A systematic error in thinking that affects the decisions and judgments a person makes.

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155
Q

What do behavioural economists suggest about automatic thinking?

A

Often heavily biased.

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156
Q

What actually is a cognitive bias?

A

A mistake in reasoning, often occuring as a result of any contrary information.

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157
Q

What are the two common problems with heuristics that lead to bias?

A

Availability
Anchoring

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158
Q

What is anchoring?

A

A cognitive bias describing the human tendancy when making decisions to rely too heavily on an arbitrary marker. (often the first piece of information)

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159
Q

What is availability?

A

Another name for recency bias.

Humans hold recent information in much higher standing over their decision making process.

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160
Q

What is the availability bias?

A

Individuals make judgments about the likelihood of future events in accordance with how easy it is to recall examples of similar events.

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161
Q

What is an example of availability bias?

`

A

A person places read about 15 car thefts on the news, and therefore judges that car theft is far more common in the local area than it actually is.

A person sees a new millionaire every week as a result of the lottery and therefore buys a ticket thinking that they will win.

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162
Q

Who are Ipsos?

A

A market research company.

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163
Q

What did Ipsos publish?

A

Research highlighting how the general public in 14 countries held preconceptions on the make-up of their socities that were massively detached from reality.

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164
Q

What were the stats from Ipsos for the UK?

A

The average citizen believed that 24% of the population were immigrants (13% real)
The average citizen believed that 24% of the working-age population was unemployed (<7% real)

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165
Q

What is an example of anchoring?

A

A restaurant menu features a few very expensive items early in the main course section. Some more reasonably priced alternatives (comparatively) are placed after.

We are lured into choosing the cheaper option despite their prices still being high.

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166
Q

When given an option of 3 products of similar utility, priced at £50, £40 and £30, which one do humans choose?

A

£40. As a result of belief the middle option is not too expensive, but also not too cheap.

Humans often choose the middle option.

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167
Q

What is a social norm?

A

Forms or patterns of behaviour that are considered acceptable by a society or group within society.

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168
Q

What are nudges?

A

Factors that encourage people to think and act in particular ways.

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169
Q

What are the types of social norms (in economics)

A

Negative and Positive

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170
Q

What is an example of a negative social norm?

A

Attitudes towards drinking alcohol amongst young adults (particularily young men).

Many young adults drink heavily because they think it is what the majority of people their age do.

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171
Q

What is an example of a positive social norm?

A

Attitudes towards smoking across society.

Healthy campaigns have made it abundantly clear that smoking has a very negative effect on one’s health. This led to people being much more willing to accept laws to prohibit smoking and the risks of smoking.

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172
Q

What is the difference between a nudge and an economic sanction?

A

Economic sanctions involve restricting an individuals freedom to act as they want.

Nudges try and shift attitudes and behaviour to comply with social norms.

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173
Q

Which method of changing social norms is superior?

A

This is a normative statement, so it’s not actually clear.

Critics of nudges suggest that sanctions are more effective at changing behaviour, as there are harsh punishments for breaking sanctions.

Sanctions are good at changing a social norm in one instance, as most people will follow the law as it’s in their self interest to do so. They lead to nudges though, as in the example of smoking, as a result of banning smoking in public places, people are now less likely to smoke in one another’s houses as it’s socially unacceptable due to the sanctions.

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174
Q

What is altruism?

A

Concern for the welfare of others.

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175
Q

What is fairness?

A

Impartiality.

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176
Q

What did traditional economics believe in terms of altruism?

A

Homo economicus was not altruistic and only acted in self-interest.

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177
Q

What did traditional economics believe in terms of altruism?

A

Homo economicus was not altruistic and only acted in self-interest.

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178
Q

How can traditional economics factor in altruism?

A

It can still be accomodated in terms of maximising theory.

Humans want to help others in their nature, their first instinct is to cooperate rather than than compete.

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179
Q

What type of term is fairness?

A

Normative.

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180
Q

What is choice architecture?

A

A framework setting out different ways in which choices can be presented to consumers, and the impact of that presentation on consumer decision making.

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181
Q

How and why are choice architectures employed by government?

A

Behavioural insights design choice architectures so that citizens are nudged to opt for chioces that are in their best interests.

On a practical scale, the literal placement of items in a canteen, for example. Studies within the field of behavioural economics find that items placed at the front of a canteen are more likely to be purchased. If a canteen wants people to eat more healthily, or make more profit, they should place salads or expensive items at the front respectively.

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182
Q

What is the default choice?

A

An option that is automatically selected unless an alternative is specified.

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183
Q

How and why is default choice employed by government?

A

When framing policy on certain issues, you can be asked to opt-in or opt-out of certain issues. If it is an opt-out system, many people will not change it as they cannot be bothered, or do not have the time.
If it is an opt-in system, people will also not change it as they cannot be bothered.

Opt-out systems are better within wider society as in the example of organ donation, the NHS now has organ donation as an opt-out system and as a result, the supply of organs is now much closer to the demand, and the public health improves.

The BIT introduced automatic pension enrolment under the same theory of opt-in vs opt-out.

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184
Q

What is framing?

A

How something is presented.

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185
Q

What is an example of framing?

A

Advertisers saying a yogurt is ‘90% fat free’ sounds a lot better than ‘10% fat’.

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186
Q

Where is framing commonly employed?

A

Advertising
Politics

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187
Q

What is mandated choice?

A

People are required by law to make a decision.

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188
Q

Where is mandated choice employed?

A

Microsoft Software Installation Boxes

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189
Q

How does mandated choice aid a company like Microsoft?

A

They comply with technology laws, but most people choose the recommended settings of sending their data to Microsoft.

They often automatically have the box already ticked for you, so in order to make the ‘wrong’ choice in the opinion of Microsoft, you must move your mouse to untick it then continue. Most people cannot be bothered to do even this and as a result, they move on with recommended settings.

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190
Q

What is restricted choice?

A

Offering people a limited number of options so people are not overwhelmed by the complexity of many different options.

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191
Q

Why is restricted choice mandated to energy companies?

A

Ensures people make a well-informed decision and are not overwhelmed.

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192
Q

What is a shove?

A

Instructions to behave in certain ways, often by introducing financial incentives or disincentivest to incentivize people to follow what the government wants them to do.

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193
Q

What are the differences between nudges and shoves?

A

Nudges:
Provide information for people to respond to in their own way
Creates positive social norms
Opt-out schemes rather than opt-in schemes and default choices
Active choice from individuals

Shoves:
Uses taxation and subsidies to alter incentives or punish people through tax
Uses fines, laws and regulations.

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194
Q

What are 4 behavioural insights that can be employed to charitable giving to increase it?

A

Make it easy
Attract attention
Focus on the Social
Timing Matters

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195
Q

How does making it easy increase charitable activity?

A

Giving people the option to increase their future payments so donations are not eroded by inflation.
Usage of default choices for senior staff members to opt-out of giving schemes.

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196
Q

How does attracting attention increase charitable activity?

A

Attracting individuals’ attention (personalised messages are excellent)
Reward of behaviour you try to encourage (matched funding schemes)

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197
Q

How does focusing on the social increase charitable activity?

A

Use prominent and famous individuals to send out support messages
Make acts of giving more visible within one’s social group
Establish group norms (and social norms) about how people anchor their gifts

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198
Q

What is a market?

A

A voluntary meeting of buyers and sellers in which exchange takes place.

Both buyer and seller must be willing to do the exchange.

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199
Q

What is a competetive market?

A

Markets in which large numbers of buyers and sellers possess good market information and can easily enter or leave the market.

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200
Q

What is ruling market price?

A

The price at which planned demand is equal to planned supply.

(also known as equilibrium price)

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201
Q

What benefit do competetive markets have?

A

They are highly transparent.

202
Q

How do households have effective demand?

A

They must sell their labour, the services of any capital or land they own.

203
Q

What does a demand curve show?

A

The relationship between changing price and demand.

204
Q

How does demand for a good change?

A

Demand for a good changes dependant on the time period.

205
Q

What should the x-axis on a demand curve graph actually say?

A

Quantity demanded per period of time.

206
Q

What is market demand?

A

The quantity of a good or service that all the consumers in a market are willing and able to buy at different market prices.

207
Q

What is individual demand?

A

The quantity of a good or service that a particular consumer or individual is willing and able to buy at different market prices.

208
Q

What is the relationship between market and individual demand?

A

Market demand is the sum of the demand of all consumers in a market.

209
Q

What is an extension of demand?

A

The fall in price leading to a rise in demand for a product.

210
Q

What is a contraction of demand?

A

The rise in price leading to less being demanded.

211
Q

What is assumed when a market demand curve is drawn?

A

All other variables to influence demand are unchanged.

‘ceteris paribus’

212
Q

What does ceteris paribus mean?

A

Other things being equal.

213
Q

What is a condition of demand?

A

A determinant of demand, other than the good’s own price that fixes the position of the demand curve.

214
Q

What are the main conditions for demand?

A

The prices of substitute goods
The prices of complementary goods
Personal income
Tastes and preferences
Population size (therefore affecting market size).

215
Q

What does a shift to the right of a demand curve show?

A

An increase in demand.

216
Q

What does a shift to the left of a demand curve show?

A

A decrease in demand.

217
Q

Why might a rightward shift of a demand curve occur?

A

An increase in the price of a substitute or a good in competing demand.
A fall in the price of a complementary good or good in join demand.
An increase in personal disposable income.
A successful advertising campaign.
An increase in population size.

218
Q

What is a substitute good?

A

Alternative goods that could be used for the same purpose.

219
Q

What is a complementary good?

A

When two goods are complements, they experience joint demand.

220
Q

What is a normal good?

A

A good for which demand rises as income rises, and demand falls as income falls.

221
Q

What is an inferior good?

A

A good for which demand falls as income rises, and demand rises as income falls.

222
Q

Must demand curves always slope downward?

A

No.

223
Q

Why may demand curves not slope downward?

A

Speculative demand
Goods for which consumers use price as an indicator of quality
Veblen goods

224
Q

Why does speculative demand cause demand curves to not slope downward?

A

For goods such as stocks, housing etc., as price increases, people may purchase these goods as they predict (speculate) that the good will further increase in price.

225
Q

Why do goods for which consumers use price as an indicator of quality cause demand curves to not slope downward?

A

If there is a situation of asymmetric information, a buyer may choose to purchase a good that has a higher value because they believe it is of higher quality.

226
Q

Why do veblen goods cause demand curves to not slope downward?

A

Some people wish to consume a good such as a Ferrari as a signal of their wealth, as they cost a lot, people buy them.

Companies can use advertising campaigns such as Stella Artois that said it was ‘reassuringly expensive’ to drum up sales as it attempted to become a premium brand.

227
Q

What is elasticity?

A

The proportionate responsiveness of a second variable to an initial change in the first variable.

i.e. change the price of a good, and it’s level of demand will change.

228
Q

Why is elasticity a useful statistic?

A

It is independent of the units, such as price and quantity.

229
Q

What is the price elasticity of demand?

A

Measures the extent to which the demand for which a good changes in response to a change in the price of that good.

230
Q

What do horizontal and vertical demand curves have in terms of elasticities?

A

They both have constant elasticities at all points on the curve.

231
Q

What is a horizontal demand curve showing?

A

Perfectly elastic or infinitely elastic.

232
Q

What is a vertical demand curve showing?

A

Completely inelastic or infinitely inelastic.

233
Q

What does perfectly elastic mean?

A

Quantity demanded drops to zero at a higher price but will remain unchanged at a lower price.

234
Q

What does perfectly inelastic mean?

A

No matter what the price is, the demand always remains the same.

235
Q

What factors can determine the price elasticity of demand?

A

Substitutability
Percentage of Income
Necessities or Luxuries
The ‘width’ of the market definition
Time

236
Q

How does substitutability determine the PED?

A

When there is a suitable substitute, people will shift their expenditure away from one product to another of a lower price, making it a more elastic good.

If there is not a suitable substitute, it is more likely to be an inelastic good.

237
Q

How does percentage of income determine the PED?

A

The demand curves of goods that have a high percentage of the household income spent are much more likely to be elastic, as there is a noticeable difference in the price.

Demand curves of goods that have a low percentage of household income spent are more likely to be inelastic as people are unlikely to notice a change in price.

N.B. for low percentage household income goods, the same is not true of ‘big ticket’ items such as holidays or cars.

238
Q

How does necessities or luxuries determine the PED?

A

The PED of necessities is price inelastic. The PED of luxuries is price elastic.

However, for a necessity, if there is a suitable substitute, then it is still likely to be an elastic good. If there is no suitable substitute for a luxury, then it will still be inelastic, but not at the opposite gradient that a substitutable necessity would ever be as a luxury will eventually have a demand of 0 if the price is too high regardless of if there is no available substitute, however, the demand for a necessity will never hit 0 irrespective of substitutes.

239
Q

How does the ‘width’ of the market definition determine the PED?

A

The PED for a particular brand of a product with other substitutes is likely to be quite elastic, as consumers can move to a substitute, but the PED for the overall product is likely to be inelastic as it is difficult to find a substitute for an overall product.

240
Q

How does time determine the PED?

A

For most goods and services, demand is far more elastic in the long run than in the short run because it takes time to respond to price changes.

e.g. if the cost of petrol cars skyrockets and the price of electric cars plummets, it will take time for motorists to respond as they will be locked in to their existing investment in petrol-engine cars. However, it can also work in the opposite way. If the price of petrol rises, this might cause motorists to use their cars in a more economical way, but in the long run, they will get used to the price and will return to their old motoring habits.

241
Q

What is the short run?

A

The time period in which at least one factor of production is fixed and cannot be varied.

242
Q

What is the long run?

A

The time period in which no factors of production are fixed and in which all of the factors of production can be varied.

243
Q

What is the relationship between tobacco taxation and demand?

A

Inelastic.

244
Q

What is the PED of tobacco taxation according to the World Bank review?

A

Price rises of 10% would lead to a reduction in consumption of 4% in richer countries, with poorer countries being more sensitive to price changes.

The PED is therefore 0.4, meaning it is an inelastic good as it has a PED <1.

245
Q

What two rules can be applied between two points on a demand curve to show if it’s generally elastic?

A

If total consumer expenditure increases in response to a price fall, demand is elastic.
If total consumer expenditure decreases in response to a price fall, demand is inelastic.

246
Q

What is unity?

A

When demand is neither elastic not inelastic.

247
Q

What is cross elasticity of demand?

A

The percentage change in the quantity demand of product A changing as the percentage change in price of product B.

248
Q

What does a negative XED value mean?

A

The products are complements of one another.

249
Q

What does a positive XED value mean?

A

The products are substitutes of one another.

250
Q

Why is the XED of substitutes always positive?

A

As the price of one good increases, the demand for the substitute good increases in turn as people shift to the substitute good to maximise their utility.

251
Q

What is market supply?

A

The quantity of a good or service that all the firms in a market plan to sell at given prices in a given period of time.

252
Q

What is the relationship between market supply and supply by a single firm?

A

Market supply is the sum of all the supply by single firms.

253
Q

What is a market supply curve?

A

Demonstrating the relationship between price and quantity for a market.

254
Q

Why does a market supply slope upwards?

A

Stems from the belief that all firms have a profit-maximising objective, therefore a firm will supply more of that product.

255
Q

What is profit?

A

The difference between total sales revenue and total costs of production.

256
Q

What is total revenue?

A

All the money received by a firm from selling its total output.

257
Q

If we assume a firm does not change their size or scale, what can we say about the cost of producing extra goods?

A

The cost of producing one extra good increases as firms produce more of the given good. As a result, it is unprofitable to produce and sell more of a good unless the price rises to compensate for the extra cost of production.

258
Q

What are the conditions of supply? (definition)

A

A determinant of supply, other than the good’s own price, that fixes the position of the supply curve.

259
Q

What are the actual conditions of supply?

A

Costs of production:
(Wage costs
Raw Material Costs
Energy Costs
Costs of borrowing)

Technical progress

Taxes imposed on firms (VAT or else)

Subsidies from the government to firms

Competition

260
Q

How do costs of production change the supply curve?

A

If the costs of production increase, the curve will shift to the left, as the firm supplies a smaller quantity at the given price.

261
Q

How does technical progress change the supply curve?

A

If technology progresses, the curve will shift rightward as the firm has lower production costs.

262
Q

How does taxes imposed change the supply curve?

A

If taxes are increased, it has a similar effect to increasing costs of production. The firm is less prepared to supply a similar level of the good, so the curve shifts to the left.

Inversely, if taxes are reduced, the supply curve shifts rightward.

263
Q

How do subsidies from the government change the supply curve?

A

If subsidies are increased, it is similar to reducing costs of production.

264
Q

What is an expenditure tax?

A

A tax that is applied on a firm to increase their costs.

265
Q

What does expenditure tax do to a firm?

A

Increase their costs, so the supply curve shifts upwards or leftwards.

266
Q

What does expenditure tax to a firm do to an individual?

A

As a result of increased costs on the firm, the firm passes on these costs onto the consumer through an increased price. These expenditure taxes are known as indirect taxes.

Despite the firm being taxed, the consumer inevitably pays for the tax.

267
Q

How does expenditure tax cause the supply curve to shift upwards?

A

For ad valorem tax, it takes a percentage of the sold good, so at low prices, the tax has a low effect, but at high prices, the tax takes a bigger effect. The cost as a percentage for the good causes the curve to shift upwards.

268
Q

Why do non-proportional taxes cause the supply curve to remain parallel but to the left

A

The cost of adding a tax that is at a set rate causes the supply to shift left but remain parallel as it takes a set amount, irrespective of the value of the good.

269
Q

What is composite supply?

A

Demand for a product can be supplied by the supply of two or more goods that are substitutes for one another (e.g. light from candles, electricity or gas)

270
Q

What is competitive supply?

A

Two or more alternative goods can be produced using the same factors of production. (land for car factories could also be used for computer factories or agriculture.)

271
Q

What is the price elasticity of supply?

A

Measures the extent to which the supply of a good changes in response to a change in the price of that good.

272
Q

What is unity? (unit elasticity)

A

Where PED / YED / XED is 1.

273
Q

What value shows if a supply curve is elastic?

A

If the PEs is greater than 1.

274
Q

How can you tell if the supply curve is inelastic?

A

If the PEs is less than 1.

275
Q

Draw a relatively elastic supply graph.

A

This is actually a graph displaying unity as the gradient = 1.

Imagine this graph, but with a gradient of around 2.

276
Q

What are the factors determining the price elasticity of supply?

A

The length of the production period

The availability of spare capacity

The ease of accumulating stocks

The ease of switching between alternative methods of production

The number of firms in the market and the ease of entering the market

Time

Ease of access to specialist equipment

Weather conditions

277
Q

Why does the length of the production period affect PES?

A

If goods can be produced in a small period of time, goods will be more elastic as the firm can react to changes in the market faster.

278
Q

Why does the length of the production period affect PES?

A

If goods can be produced in a small period of time, goods will be more elastic as the firm can react to changes in the market faster.

279
Q

Why does the availability of spare capacity affect PES?

A

In the short run, if a firm possesses spare capacity, labour and raw materials are readily available, production can be quickly increased particularly in the short term.

280
Q

Why does the ease of accumulating stocks affect PES?

A

When stocks are held for long periods of time and at low cost, the firm can sell a lot of goods in times of increased demand.

Inversely, if the price of a good falls and there is not much stock held, the firm can divert production away from sales and towards stock accumulation.

281
Q

Why does the ease of switching between alternative methods of production affect PES?

A

When firms can quickly alter the way they produce goods, supply tends to be more elastic as there is an increased availability to switch to more efficient methods of production in the short term.

282
Q

Why does the number of firms in the market and the ease of entering the market affect PES?

A

The higher the number of firms in a market, along with an increased ease of leaving or entering allows supply to become more elastic.

283
Q

Why does time affect PES?

A

Demand is more elastic in the long-term than it is in the short term as consumers and firms are often tied into existing supply levels and demand in the short term.

284
Q

Why does ease of access to specialist equipment affect market supply?

A

In markets with more specialist equipment, market supply will be higher as the costs of production will be lower due to technological progress.

285
Q

Why do weather conditions affect market supply?

A

In markets reliant on weather for supply, droughts will cause the market supply to fall.

Periods of good weather will cause the market supply to increase.

286
Q

What are the three types of supply affected by time?

A

Market period supply
Short-run supply
Long-run supply

287
Q

What is market supply?

A

Market supply is the total amount of an item producers are willing and able to sell at different prices, over a given period of time.

288
Q

What is the difference between perfectly elastic demand and perfectly elastic supply?

A

For a perfectly elastic demand graph, demand is infinitely elastic at all price on or below the demand curve, though if price rises above the demand curve, the demand immediately falls to zero.

For a perfectly elastic supply graph, supply is perfectly elastic at all prices above the supply curve, but if price falls below the curve, the amount supplied immediately drops to zero as the supply curve is the lowest price that firms are willing to accept.

289
Q

How is market equilibrium achieved in a competitive market?

A

The point of intersection of market demand curve and market supply curve.

290
Q

What is equilibrium?

A

A state of rest or balance between opposing forces.

291
Q

What is disequilibrium?

A

A situation in which opposing forces are out of balance.

292
Q

What is market equilibrium?

A

A market is in equilibrium when planned demand meets planned supply, where the demand curve crosses the supply curve.

293
Q

What is market disequilibrium?

A

At any point other than where planned demand meets planned supply.

i.e. planned supply < planned demand
planned supply > planned demand

294
Q

What does a market equilibrium graph show?

A

A supply curve along with a demand curve.

295
Q

How can we make it easier to explain the market?

A

Divide it into two sides, the short side and long side.

The short side can always fulfil their market plans, the long side cannot fulfil their market plans.

296
Q

What is excess supply?

A

When firms wish to sell more than consumers wish to buy, with the price above the equilibrium price.

297
Q

What is excess demand?

A

When consumers wish to buy more than firms wish to sell, with the price below the equilibrium price.

298
Q

How does a shift of supply disturb market equilibrium?

A

An external factor can change the demand or supply required for the supply or demand curve, therefore leading to market disequilibrium.

299
Q

What do producers do when they have excess stock?

A

If they are rational they will reduce the price they are willing to accept in order to sell more of the good, as demand of normal goods increases as price falls.

300
Q

What happens in the market when there is excess demand?

A

To remove the excess demand and get back to market equilibrium, the price is increased to remove the demand.

301
Q

What effect does expenditure tax have on the elasticity of demand?

A

The supply curve is shifted to the left and upwards as the costs are increased, therefore prices for the consumers are increased as the firm tries to pass the cost on as an indirect tax.

When demand is relatively elastic, means that some (but not all) of the tax is passed on as additional price to the consumer.

302
Q

How is tax per unit shown on a graph?

A

The change between S1 and S2

The area known as T.

303
Q

What would firms ideally do in an instance of increased tax?

A

Pass all the tax onto the consumers, by rising price to P1 + T.

304
Q

What happens in reality where an expenditure tax occurs?

A

There is excess supply at P1 + T, so price is lowered to P2.

305
Q

What is the tax passed onto consumers known as?

A

The ‘shifted incidence’ of the tax.

306
Q

For what type of good are expenditure taxes easily passed on to consumers?

A

When demand is inelastic, as consumers are more willing to buy a product irrespective of price as there are very few substitutes for the product.

307
Q

What is joint supply?

A

When one good is produced, another good is also produced form the same raw materials, perhaps as a by-product.

308
Q

When is joint supply demonstrated?

A

The demand for beef increases, therefore you slaughter more cows, therefore the supply of leather is also increased.

309
Q

If the demand curve for beef shifts to the right, what happens to the supply curve of leather?

A

The supply curve shifts to the right.

310
Q

What happens to the price of leather due to the demand curve of beef shifting to the right?

A

The price of leather falls as there is a lot of excess supply.

311
Q

What is the main product in the example of beef demand increasing and leather supply increasing due to joint supply?

A

Beef.

312
Q

What is joint demand?

A

Items that are often used together have joint demand. As the demand for one increases, the other also does.

313
Q

What is composite demand?

A

Composite demand is demand for a good that has more than one use. An increase in demand for one usage leads to reduced supply for another. e.g. if more oil is used for petrol, less is available to be converted to plastic.

314
Q

What is derived demand?

A

Demand for a good or factor of production, wanted not for its own sake, but as a consequence of the demand for something else.
The demand for capital goods is derived from the demand of consumer goods. e.g. as the demand for cars falls, the demand for engines and gear boxes falls in turn.

315
Q

What is composite demand related to?

A

The concept of competing supply.

316
Q

What is the problem with current methods of biofuels?

A

Much of the grown maize in the US is used for biofuel production, as farmers stand to make more profit by selling their goods to an energy company rather than food companies.

This is an example of composite demand and competing supply.

317
Q

Why are prices often unstable in agricultural markets?

A

As the agricultural markets are massively prone to disequilibrium and random shifts of the supply curve year on year due to climactic factors, there are often considerable changes in price year on year.

There has been a long-run downward trend within the agricultural market. Both the demand and supply curves have shifted rightwards.

The demand curve shift was caused by rising incomes and population growth.

The supply curve shift was caused by improving methods of farming.

For many farmers, supply has greatly exceeded the shift in demand.

Random shifts in the short-run supply cause price volatility.

The range of market prices ranges from year to year between P1 and P2.

318
Q

What is production?

A

Converts inputs or factor services into outputs.

319
Q

What are the factors of production?

A

The inputs into the production process.

320
Q

What is the productivity gap?

A

The difference between labour productivity, e.g. in the UK between other developed economies.

321
Q

Why are entrepreneurs different from the other factors of production?

A

They decide how much of the other factors of production to employ.

322
Q

What is productivity?

A

The output per unit of input.

323
Q

What is labour productivity?

A

Output per worker.

324
Q

What is capital productivity?

A

Output per unit of capital.

325
Q

Where is labour productivity massively important?

A

The car industry.

326
Q

Why did the Rover Car Group go bankrupt?

A

Nissan had invested in a state-of-the-art new facility, with an ability to produce 98 cars per worker per year. This was far higher than the 33 cars per worker per year of Rover.

327
Q

What caused labour productivity around the globe to fall?

A

2009 recession.

328
Q

Why does the UK have such low productivity compared to other nations such as Germany or the USA?

A

Inadequate investment in new capital goods.
Relatively low wages in the UK economy.
Employers ‘hoarded’ workers during the 2009 recession.

329
Q

Why did companies refuse to fire workers during the 2009 recession?

A

They thought it would be tough to re-recruit following the economic upturn.

330
Q

What are the companies that have been blamed for the low productivity?

A

‘Zombie’ firms.

An underperforming firm, with low labour productivity that generates just enough income to enable interest to be paid on its debts.

331
Q

What are the two things that could happen due to the country having such low productivity?

A

Reduce labour costs per hour by cutting hourly pay.
A metaphorical ‘race to the bottom’ to push UK workers to match the lowest competing wages elsewhere in the world.

Invest in newer and more efficient equipment and improve infrastructure.

332
Q

What is a firm?

A

A productive organisation which sells its output of goods commercially.

333
Q

Why don’t firms get bigger and bigger?

A

As a firm gets larger, there are decreasing returns to the entrepreneurial function.
As transactions which are organised increase, the entrepreneur fails to make the best use of the factors of production.

334
Q

How do Toyota manufacture cars?

A

The Toyota Production System. (TPS)
‘lean manufacturing’

Lean production seeks to eliminate all defects. If one car has a problem, the whole assembly line stops so the problem can be rectified quickly.
Rejects the idea of making cars in large batches with large amounts of stock, only making items on demand.

335
Q

What are the ‘building blocks’ of the theory of the firm?

A

Production Theory
Cost Theory
Revenue Theory

336
Q

What is specialisation?

A

A worker only performing one task or a narrow range of tasks.

Different firms specialising in producing different goods or services.

337
Q

What is the division of labour?

A

Different workers perform different tasks in the course of producing a good or service.

338
Q

What did Smith establish?

A

The benefits of specialisation or the division of labour.

339
Q

According to Adam Smith, what are the three main reasons why a factory’s total output can be increased if there is specialised workers?

A

A worker will not need to switch between tasks.
More and better capital will be employed.
‘Practice makes perfect’ as workers do more of the same task.

340
Q

What is capital widening?

A

Employing more of the same capital.

341
Q

What is capital deepening?

A

Investing in state of the art new technology.

342
Q

What is trade?

A

The buying and selling of goods and/or services.

343
Q

What is exchange?

A

To give something in return for something else received. Money is a medium of exchange.

344
Q

What does specialisation need to be economically viable?

A

Those taking part in the division of labour, a system of trade and exchange is required.

345
Q

Why is specialisation not economically viable without trade and exchange?

A

Workers who completely specialise cannot enjoy a reasonable standard of living if they are forced to consume only what they produce.

346
Q

What do workers do to allow for specialisation along with trade / exchange?

A

They produce more than they need, and then trade the surplus in exchange for other goods produced by others.

347
Q

What did farmers do several hundred years ago to specialise and also have a good standard of living?

A

People living in rural communities within the UK could specialise and then trade whatever they produced through barter.

348
Q

What is the ‘double coincidence of wants’?

A

Both parties must want what the other party has, and a rate of exchange must be met for this.

349
Q

Why is barter such an inefficient method of exchange in large-scale economies?

A

A vast number of goods are produced and traded, so it would be incredibly inefficient to barter for all goods / services.

350
Q

Why does money eliminate the inefficiency of barter?

A

The money you use to buy an item can then be used to buy another good, rather than hopefully finding a ‘double coincidence of wants’.

351
Q

What did Adam Smith use to back up his point of specialisation being more efficient?

A

A pin factory.

352
Q

Why did Adam Smith use a pin factory to back up his point of specialisation?

A

One person who was not skilled at making pins would likely make less than one in a day.

The one person carries out about 18 distinct tasks and as a result makes less than 1.

However, if each of the 18 tasks were given to one person each, each person would be able to specialise in each task. (i.e. drawing the wire, straightening it, cutting it, pointing it etc.)

The specialisation would allow them to make upwards of 48,000 pins in a day as each person would be able to develop their skills in that one area, finding efficiencies and generally becoming faster.

353
Q

What is the short-run in microeconomic theory?

A

The time period in which at least one of the factors of production is fixed and cannot be varied.

354
Q

How can firms produce more in the short-run?

A

Adding more variable factors to the fixed factors of production.

355
Q

What are variable factors?

A

The factors that change in accordance with output.

i.e. labour, energy etc.

356
Q

What are the marginal returns of labour?

A

The change in the quantity of total output resulting from the employment of one more worker, holding all the other factors of production fixed.

357
Q

What is the law of diminishing returns?

A

As a variable factor of production is added to a fixed factor of production, eventually both the marginal returns and then the average returns to the variable factor of production begin to fall.

i.e. as you add more variable factors of production, the returns get smaller and smaller.

358
Q

How do the first five workers change marginal returns?

A

Improve marginal returns, with 1, 7, 10, 14 and 18 for each of the 5 workers.

359
Q

Where are increasing marginal returns most likely?

A

Small workforces.

360
Q

How and why do marginal returns change in a small workforce?

A

Improve as the extra worker allows the workforce to be more organised more efficiently.

It improves as each worker can then specialise.

361
Q

Why does the law of diminishing marginal returns set in?

A

As a firm adds labour to fixed capital, more workers do not necessarily increase efficiency that much.

This may be because workers will get in each others way.

362
Q

At what point is the law of diminishing marginal returns clear?

A

At the point of the sixth worker.

363
Q

What are total returns?

A

The whole output produced by all the factors of production, including labour, that are employed by a firm.

364
Q

What are average returns of labour?

A

Total output / total number of workers employed.

365
Q

Where does marginal diminishing returns set in on a graph?

A

At the point where the gradient of the line begins to reduce.

366
Q

When should a firm stop employing more people?

A

When the marginal returns become negative from employing more people.

367
Q

How does a total returns curve plot its information?

A

Cumulatively.

368
Q

How does a marginal returns curve plot its information?

A

Non-cumulatively.

369
Q

Where does the law of diminishing marginal returns set in on the top graph?

A

A.

370
Q

Where does the law of diminishing marginal returns set in on the marginal returns graph?

A

B.

371
Q

Where does the law of diminishing marginal returns set in on the average returns graph?

A

C.

372
Q

What do the total, marginal and average return graphs all have in common?

A

They all display the same information, but that information is used differently in each curve.

373
Q

What do marginal and average curves always display when plotted from the same set of data?

A

When marginal is greater than average, the average rises.
When marginal is less than the average, the average falls.
When the marginal is constant, the average is constant.

374
Q

What does the law of marginal and average curves not demonstrate?

A

That as a marginal value rises, the average will not always rise.

The marginal has to be higher than the average comparatively.

375
Q

Where do marginal returns curve always cut through an average returns curve?

A

The point at which average returns of labour begins to fall, which is coincidentally the highest point on any average returns graph.

376
Q

What do marginal returns show?

A

The addition (or subtraction) to taking on the last worker added to the workforce.

377
Q

What do average returns show?

A

The total output / the number of workers.

378
Q

Does the point of diminishing average returns have to occur at the same point of diminishing marginal returns?

A

No.

Diminishing marginal returns occur first, then diminishing average returns occurs afterwards.

379
Q

What are returns to scale?

A

The rate by which output changes if the scale of all the factors of production is changed.

380
Q

What is a plant?

A

An establishment, such as a factory, a workshop or a retail outlet, owned and operated by a firm.

381
Q

Why may firms choose to increase the size of their plant rather than increasing the size of their labour force?

A

Over time, the detractor of short-run diminishing marginal returns begins to set in as more workers eventually get in one another’s way.

Increasing the size of the plant allows them to increase their returns to scale which has a higher limit to the short-run diminishing marginal returns.

382
Q

What are increasing returns to scale?

A

When the scale of all the factors of production employed increases, output increases by a faster rate.

383
Q

What are constant returns to scale?

A

When the scale of all the factors of production employed increases, the output increases at the same rate.

384
Q

What are decreasing returns to scale?

A

When the scale of all the factors of production employed increases, the output increases at a slower rate.

385
Q

What is important to remember regarding changing returns to scale and short-run returns?

A

Returns to scale only occur in long-run instances where all the factors of production can be altered.

Short-run returns increase when at least one factor of production is fixed.

386
Q

What is the key concept in short-run production theory?

A

The law of diminishing returns.

387
Q

What does production entail?

A

Converting inputs to outputs without a consideration for money costs of using inputs like capital and labour.

388
Q

What is the short-run?

A

When at least one factors of production is fixed.

389
Q

What is the long-run?

A

When none of the factors of production can all be changed.

390
Q

What are short run costs made of?

A

Fixed costs and costs incurred when hiring the services of the variable factors of production.

391
Q

What are long run costs made of?

A

Only variable costs.

In the long term, there are no fixed costs as all factors of production are variable.

392
Q

What is fixed cost?

A

The cost of production, which in the short run, does not change with output.

393
Q

What is variable cost?

A

The cost of production which changed with the amount that is produced, even in the short run.

394
Q

What are generally assumed to be fixed costs in the short term?

A

Capital, Land (possibly enterprise)

395
Q

What does capital involve in terms of fixed costs?

A

The cost of maintaining a firm’s buildings as well as the initial cost of acquiring buildings such as factory space and offices.

396
Q

What are generally considered variable costs of production in the short term?

A

Labour and the cost of raw materials.

397
Q

What is total cost?

A

The cost incurred when producing a particular size of output.

398
Q

What is average variable cost?

A

The total variable cost divided by size of output.

399
Q

What is marginal cost?

A

The addition to total cost resulting from producing one additional unit of output.

400
Q

What happens in terms of costs when a firm increases its output?

A

The total cost of production increases.

401
Q

How does one derive the Marginal Cost (MC) curve from the Average Variable Cost (AVC) curve and the marginal and average returns curves?

A

Take the difference of two total costs, then divide by the total change in outputs between those two.

402
Q

What are average fixed costs?

A

Costs of employing the factors of production / Size of output.

403
Q

What are the fixed costs of production also known as?

A

Overheads.

404
Q

What are the overheads that most businesses pay in the short run?

A

Rent on land, maintenance on buildings etc.

405
Q

How do the overheads of a company change as they produce more cars?

A

As more cars are produced, the actual overheads do not change as they are fixed, however, the average fixed costs per car falls per each car is made.

If the overhead is 1 million, and the company produces one car, the average fixed cost per car is 1 million. If they produce 2, the average fixed cost per car is 500,000. If they produce 3, the average fixed cost per car is 333,333 etc.

406
Q

Can average costs of production ever equal 0?

A

No. Although they can get very close.

407
Q

What is average total cost?

A

The total cost of producing a particular level of output, divided by the size of output: ATC = AFC + AVC.

408
Q

How can you find the average total cost?

A

Add the AFC and AVC curves at any point of output.

409
Q

What is interesting about the Average Total Cost Graph in the short run?

A

The average costs of production fall initially, but at higher levels of output average costs usually rise.

410
Q

Why do ATC curves decrease and then increase?

A

Employing more workers up to a certain point increases the business output more than employing new workers increases the businesses costs.

411
Q

Where does the MC curve go in terms of the AFC and AVC curves?

A

The MC curve cuts from below both the AVC and AFC curves at the lowest points of each of the curves.

412
Q

What are factor prices?

A

The prices a firm pays for hiring the different factors of production.

413
Q

What is the factor reward of capital?

A

Interest.

414
Q

What are the factor rewards of labour?

A

Wages and salaries.

415
Q

What is capital productivity?

A

The output per unit of capital employed.

416
Q

What do economists have to assume about firms?

A

They have one business objective.

417
Q

What is a firms business objective?

A

To maximise profits.

418
Q

How do firms maximise profits?

A

Employing the optimal factor combination of minimising costs and maximising outputs.

419
Q

How do factor prices and productivity factor into profit maximisation?

A

For example, if the government passes a law increasing the national minimum wage to £15ph, capital employment becomes more attractive compared to labour employment.

However, if labour in the UK becomes massively inefficient, but their wage costs are also low, firms may choose to increase their employment of capital provided the high capital costs are offset by the higher levels of capital efficiency.

Capital-intensive production is often paired with reduced labour, however, the average wages of the reduced workers are higher as they are often more skilled to be able to operate the machinery.

If consumers demand more of a product with capital-intensive production, firms will begin to employ more capital and more labour. This has provided evidence that, contrary to popular belief, greater usage of robotised machinery can lead to higher wage and employment levels in the UK.

420
Q

What are economies of scale?

A

As an output increases, long-run average cost falls.

421
Q

What are diseconomies of scale?

A

As an output increases, long-run average cost rises.

422
Q

How can a firm benefit from economies of scale?

A

By increasing in size (up to a certain point).

423
Q

Why is the short-run ATC curve U-shaped?

A

It is assumed under labour becomes more productive when added to fixed capital to a certain point, eventually becoming less productive due to the law of diminishing returns.

424
Q

Why is the long-run AC curve U-shaped?

A

Economies and diseconomies of scale.

425
Q

What point on an LRAC curve to all firms aspire to?

A

The turning point.

426
Q

What types of scales are shown on the left side of a LRAC curve?

A

Economies of scale.

427
Q

What types of scales are shown on the right side of an LRAC curve?

A

Diseconomies of scale.

428
Q

Explain this graph.

A

There are a number of SRATC curves lying along the LRAC curve. Each of the SRATC curves demonstrates a different firm size. Firms can move from SRATC1 to SRATC2 in the long run. The LRAC curve forms a tangent with all of the SRATC curves.

429
Q

What is are internal economies and diseconomies of scale?

A

Changes in long-run average costs of production resulting from changes in the size or scale of a firm or plant.

430
Q

What is an external economy of scale?

A

A fall in long-run average costs of production as a result of growth of the market / industry of which the firm is a part.

431
Q

What is an external diseconomy of scale?

A

A rise in long-run average costs of production as a result of growth of the market / industry of which the firm is a part.

432
Q

What is the difference between internal and external diseconomies of scale?

A

Internal scales only take into account the changes within each individual firm.

External scales take into account the changes within the market on the whole.

433
Q

What are the types of internal economy of scales?

A

Technical
Managerial
Marketing
Financial / Capital-Raising
Risk-Bearing
Economies of Scope

434
Q

What is a technical economy of scale?

A

Changes to the ‘productive process’ as the scale of production and level of output increase.

435
Q

What is the ‘productive process’?

A

The method of employing each of the factors of production to provide goods and services to consumers.

436
Q

What can techincal economies of scale be caused by?

A

Indivisibilities
Spreading of research / development costs
Volume Economies
Economies of massed resources
Economies of vertically linked processes

437
Q

What is indivisibility?

A

There is a certain size below which capital / land cannot be used efficiently.

i.e. if you have a building that is 5m2, you cannot reasonably make any cars at that size, but if you have a building size of 50m2, you could make a few cars with the added space.

438
Q

How does spreading research and development costs lead to technical economies of scale?

A

Within large plants, R&D costs can be spread over a longer production run, reducing long-run unit costs. The output is increased, as a firm can produce more units of a product, and the average costs are reduced as R&D leads to improved efficiency in the long-run.

439
Q

What is a production run?

A

The most cost-efficient quantity of units to produce at a time.

440
Q

How do volume economies lead to technical economies of scale?

A

Increasing the employment of capital goods leads to an increase in costs, but for many capital goods, the increase in costs is less rapid than the increase in capacity. For this reason, larger plants can employ more capital goods and therefore, their output increases, but their overall costs do not increase as rapidly, increasing their overall profit.

441
Q

How do economies of massed resources lead to technical economies of scale?

A

Operating with identical capital goods means fewer spare parts must be kept than if there were many different capital goods.
Less spare parts means that there is increased productivity as each worker can become specialised to the specific capital good, increasing quantity faster than AC.

442
Q

How do economies of vertically linked resources lead to technical economies of scale?

A

Many products involve a large number of related tasks and processes.

The initial purchase of raw materials, to the production of those materials etc.

If these tasks can become linked within a single plant, there can be a saving in time, transport costs and energy.

443
Q

How do technical economies of scale lead to reduced overall average costs?

A

Employing more people, allows those people to specialise, increasing productivity. While the total cost increases, the supply increases faster than the total cost, so the average costs fall.

If more capital goods are employed, their initial cost will be quite high, but in the long-run, the productivity gained from more capital goods causes supply to rise faster than costs, causing average costs to fall.

The land they have employed can be used more efficiently as a firm gets larger, so the plant becomes more efficient, leading to a greater supply rise than costs, therefore average costs fall.

AC = TC / Q

444
Q

How do managerial economies of scale lead to reduced average costs?

A

As a firm increases in scale, the firm is, therefore, able to benefit from specialisation and division of labour, namely, the employment of specialist managers. These managers will be able to monitor the productivity of their particular labour force, boosting productivity if needs be. The managers will also be able to apply their specialist abilities to boost their personal productivity.

Despite the hefty price to employ these specialist managers, the productivity will increase massively, so the quantity supplied will increase faster than total costs, causing average costs to fall.

445
Q

How do marketing economies of scale lead to reduced average costs?

A

A larger firm can buy marketing products in bulk, reducing the average cost, as they can negotiate better unit prices due to bulk-buying, and are therefore able to spread their marketing costs over a larger range of outputs, meaning the total costs rise slower than the quantity, bringing down average costs.

446
Q

How do financial or capital-raising economies of scale lead to reduced average costs?

A

As a firm increases in scale, they can negotiate better interest rates from the bank as the firm is more reputable and profitable than smaller firms, so banks are less cautious about lending money to the larger firms, as it is (almost) a given that they will return all the money due to their status as a lower risk firm.
Despite total costs rising, these costs will be able to be spread across a wider range of outputs, leading to average costs falling.

447
Q

How do risk-bearing economies of scale lead to reduced average costs?

A

As a firm gets larger, they can diversify their outputs, sources of supply, sources of finance etc., therefore spreading their risks over a larger range of outputs.

These economies of diversification can make the firm less vulnerable to sudden changes in demand that would severely harm a smaller firm.

Diversification increases total costs, but as the quantity supplied increases faster than the total costs, average costs fall.

448
Q

How do economies of scope lead to reduced average costs?

A

Diversifying a firm makes it cheaper to produce a range of products than to produce each one of the products on its own. This causes total costs to rise as more specialist goods are required, but overall quantity supplied increases faster, leading to a decrease in average costs.

449
Q

What are the causes for internal diseconomies of scale?

A

Control Failure
Communication Failure
Coordination Failure
Motivational Failure

450
Q

How do control failures lead to diseconomies of scale?

A

As a business increases in size past a certain point, it becomes increasingly difficult for managers to control the workforce. This can lead to a delegation of managerial functions to people with a lack of appropriate experience.

Along with this, an increase in the workforce to manager ratio can lead to workers becoming less productive as they know that managers are less likely to look at their work with a fine-tooth comb.

Their mistakes lead to an increase in total costs, which rise faster than supply, so average costs increase.

451
Q

How do communication failures lead to diseconomies of scale?

A

Within a large organisation, there may be too many layers of management between the top managers and ordinary production workers, so staff can begin to feel unappreciated.

The time that it takes to spread messages throughout the firm is completely wasted, so this also causes a reduction in productivity.

This leads to reducing productivity as the unit costs begin to rise faster than supply does.

452
Q

How do motivational failures lead to diseconomies of scale?

A

As a business gets larger, each individual worker will feel less important within the company as they feel more dispensable. This will hit your productivity as you feel less motivated to work harder.

Over-specialisation within large firms may lead to de-skilling, in a situation where workers perform repetitive and boring tasks, with little incentive to use personal initiative to help their employers.

This drop in productivity leads to total costs rising faster than supply does, so average costs rise.

453
Q

How do coordination failures lead to diseconomies of scale?

A

As a firm increases in scale, they need to employ more departments that it didn’t have to before.

An IT department is set up, and an HR department is set up to deal with hiring and internal disputes. A marketing department is set up to market the products etc.

The more departments that are present within a firm make it more difficult to coordinate goals within all departments. The goals set by SLT become more and more vague, so departments inevitably make their own, many of which contradict goals in other departments. Having departments operating in different ways causes productivity to fall, so quantity supplied rises slower than total costs do, causing average costs to rise.

454
Q

Where can we make a distinction in terms of economies of scale?

A

Plant Economies Scale vs. Firm Economies of Scale

455
Q

Why is there a distinction between plant economies of scale and firm economies of scale?

A

If a whole firm grows significantly, they do not necessarily grow each individual plant, possibly increasing the number of plants they own. The diseconomies of scale that occur on a larger scale within a firm may not necessarily translate to the diseconomies that occur within an individual plant.

456
Q

What is the relationship between returns to scale and economies / diseconomies of scale?

A

As a firm experiences increasing returns to scale, there will be falling long-run average costs (economies of scale). Conversely, if a firm experiences decreasing returns to scale, there will be rising long-run average costs (diseconomies of scale).

For example, outputs are increasing faster than inputs, so if wage rates and other factor prices remain the same at all levels of output, the money cost of producing a unit of output therefore falls. This works conversely for outputs increasing slower than inputs.

457
Q

When do external economies / diseconomies occur?

A

When the industry, that the firm is a part of, grows.

458
Q

What is a common cause for external economies of scale?

A

Cluster effects, with many firms within the same industry being located close to each other and therefore providing markets, sources of supply and trained labour for one another.

459
Q

Why do external diseconomies of scale occur?

A

The growth of a market raising the average costs of all the firms in an industry.

460
Q

Why can cluster effects be negative as well as positive (from a firm perspective)?

A

Many firms in the same industry being near one another leads to a large number of firms all competing for the same labour. This leads to firms having to raise their wages in order to incentivise workers to join their firm. This increases unit wage costs for employers.

Secondly, there may be an increase in local and regional traffic congestion, increasing delivery times and delivery costs.

461
Q

What was one of the most important industry in modern industrialised economies within the 20th Century?

A

Car manufacturing.

462
Q

What innovation within car manufacturing allowed car manufacturers to benefit from economies of scale?

A

The moving assembly line.

463
Q

What country was the innovation within car manufacturing that allowed car manufacturers to benefit from economies of scale?

A

Ford, USA.

464
Q

Who came up with the innovation within car manufacturing allowed car manufacturers to benefit from economies of scale?

A

Henry Ford.

465
Q

What did the innovation within car manufacturing allowed car manufacturers to benefit from economies of scale cause?

A

Car manufacturers to mark the beginning of mass production within the car manufacturing business.

466
Q

How did the innovation within car manufacturing lead to increased economies to scale?

A

The outputs increased massively, far more than the increased labour and capital costs did.

467
Q

What is market fragmentation?

A

When many companies are part of one industry with no clear leader, meaning that no one company can influence prices, wages etc. as they do not have enough market share.

468
Q

What does market fragmentation lead to?

A

Lower production runs, which occurred due to Toyota’s success within JIT manufacturing, along with a large amount of outsourcing to outside suppliers.

469
Q

Why does market fragmentation lead to lower production runs?

A

As there is a wider variety within the market, consumers demand a wider range of items.

470
Q

Why has Henry Ford’s innovation begun to become obsolete?

A

Due to market fragmentation, car companies have to produce a much wider range of vehicle. This means that the way cars are produced is changing massively, with less requirement for huge and capital intensive factories.

471
Q

What does this graph depict, contrasting to the symmetrical U-shape LRAC graph?

A

There is a horizontal line between Q1 and Q2 that demonstrates that the exhaustion of the benefits of economy to scale does not immediately lead to diseconomies of scale.

472
Q

What does this graph depict, contrasting to the symmetrical U-shape LRAC graph?

A

No firms benefit or suffer from economies / diseconomies of scale.

473
Q

What does this graph depict, contrasting to the symmetrical U-shape LRAC graph?

A

Demonstrates the economies of small-scale production.

Diseconomies of scale set in much sooner comparatively to the symmetrical U-shape LRAC curve.

474
Q

What does this graph depict, contrasting to the symmetrical U-shape LRAC graph?

A

Large-scale production, with diseconomies of scale setting in only when substantial economies of scale have been achieved comparatively to the U-shape LRAC curve.

475
Q

What mathematical equation determines when a firm is experiencing increasing returns to scale?

A

Δ% outputs > Δ% inputs

476
Q

What mathematical equation determines when a firm is experiencing constant returns to scale?

A

Δ% outputs = Δ% inputs

477
Q

What mathematical equation determines when a firm is experiencing decreasing returns to scale?

A

Δ% outputs < Δ% inputs

478
Q

What is very important to remember when regarding long-run average costs curves?

A

IT IS ALL RELATIVE!

Δ% means percentage change. It is relative to whatever was before it.

479
Q

What is the Δ% input that is covered in red?

A

100%

480
Q

What is the output that is covered in red?

A

12000.

481
Q

What is the labour that is covered in red?

A

510 TL (row 3)
80 + x TL (row 4)

80 + x = 4/3(510)
x = 600

482
Q

What are the returns to scale for each row?

A

Increasing
Increasing
Constant
Decreasing

483
Q

What is the Minimum Efficient Scale?

A

The lowest level of outputs where a firm can take full advantage of the economies of scale.

484
Q

What does the MES mean in context?

A

The LRAC of a business cannot be any lower than this point.

485
Q

What is the LRMC?

A

The additional cost incurred if a firm increases output when all the factors of production are variable.

486
Q

What happens when LRMC fall and are below LRAC?

A

The LRAC curve also falls.

487
Q

What happens when LRMC rises and is above LRAC?

A

The LRAC curve also rises.

488
Q

What happens does the relationship between LMRC rising and falling in relation to the LRAC mean in terms of shape of the LRAC curve?

A

The LRAC curve must therefore be U-shaped.

489
Q

What form of transportation tends to benefit massively from economies of scale?

A

Super-tankers (boats).

490
Q

What can shape can a LRAC curve take on?

A

An L-shape.

491
Q

What does an L-shape LRAC curve mean?

A

The economies of scale never give way to diseconomies of scale, but rather to a flattening-out of LRAC.

492
Q

Where is the L-shaped LRAC curve often seen?

A

Within manufacturing industries involving large scale production.

493
Q

What is the MES?

A

The lowest output at which long-run average costs have been reduced to the minimum level that can be achieved.

494
Q

Where is the MES on this graph?

A

I know the answer isn’t there, but it’s at C1Q1.

495
Q

Why would a firm go beyond the MES on an L-shaped LRAC curve?

A

The output increases, while not increasing average costs, therefore increasing the profit of the company to a certain point.

496
Q

What are economies of scale associated with?

A

Falling long-run average costs of production when a firm increases its size of plant.

497
Q

What are diseconomies of scale associated with?

A

Increasing long-run average costs of production when a firm increases its size of plant.

498
Q

What are the types of economy of scale?

A

Technical, Managerial, Finance-Raising.

499
Q

What are the types of diseconomy of scale?

A

Communication, Control, Coordination, Motivational.

500
Q

What are economies and diseconomies of scale caused by according to cost theory?

A

Increasing and decreasing returns to scale.