Air Regulations Flashcards

1
Q

Hierarchy of Flying Orders

A
  1. B-GA-100 Flying Orders
    * Book 1 - Flight Rules
    * Book 2 - Air Standards
  2. Flight Operations Manual (FOM)
  3. Wing Flying Orders
  4. Squadron/Unit Flying Orders
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2
Q

B-GA-100 - Relevant Chapters

A
  • Chapter 1 - Application of Orders
  • Chapter 2 - Air Procedures
    * Crew Requirements
    * Aircraft Commander
    * Crew Flying Time Limitations
    * Customs and Immigration
  • Chapter 3 - Pre-Flight Requirements
    * Flight Authorization
    * Aircraft Equipment
    * Crew/Passenger Briefings
  • Chapter 9 -
    • Physiological Restrictions
      • Illness/Injury
      • Drugs
      • Anaesthetics/Immunization/Desensitization
      • Blood Donations
      • Alcohol
        • Safety Requirements
      • Matches/Smoking
      • Operation of Devices that May Affect Aircraft Instruments/Operations
      • De-Icing
      • Emergency Equipment
      • Safety Belts/Equipment
      • Protective Clothing
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3
Q

RCAF FOM

A
  • Alcohol Restrictions
  • Cannabis Use
  • Personal Clothing/Equipment
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4
Q

17 Wing Flying Orders

A
  1. Each Wing in the RCAF promulgates flying orders that supplement the BGA-100 and FOM
    • These orders outline rules that are specific to the local area and/or to the aircraft/units flying out of that base
    • All aircrew must be familiar with these orders
  • Mission Tasking of CT-142
  • Flight Authorization – 17 Wing Aircraft
  • Flight Operations
  • Cold Weather Limitations – Wind Chill Warnings
  • Crash Alarm
  • 1 bell – indicates an aircraft has declared a major or minor emergency, or a crash has occurred.
    3 bells – indicates a Crash Alarm system test.
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5
Q

Canadian Domestic Airspace (CDA)

A

Includes all airspace over the Canadian land mass, the Canadian Arctic, Canadian Archipelago, and those areas of the high seas within the airspace boundaries.

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6
Q

Canadian Domestic Airspace (CDA) Geographical Areas

A

Laterally divided into two geographical areas:

  • Southern Domestic Airspace (SDA) - Aircraft tracks referenced to Magnetic North
  • Northern Domestic Airspace (NDA) - Aircraft tracks referenced to True North
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7
Q

CDA - Altimeter Setting Region

A
  • Geographically the same as Southern Domestic Airspace
  • All low level airspace below 18,000ft within the SDA
  • Altimeter is set to the nearest station pressure or local altimeter setting (QNH).
  • Altimeter altitudes = ft ASL
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8
Q

CDA - Standard Pressure Region

A
  • All airspace in Canada at and above 18,000ft ASL
  • All low level airspace in Canada below 18,000ft ASL outside the geographical limits of the ASR – i.e. all Northern Domestic Airspace
  • Altimeter is set to standard pressure (QNE = 29.92)
  • Altimeter altitudes = flight levels (FL)
  • Altimeter always set to 29.92 IN the standard pressure region
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9
Q

CDA - Transition Altitude

A
  1. Transition Altitude
  • Altitude at or below which the vertical position of an aircraft is controlled by reference to altitudes.
  • Below transition reference aircraft using altitudes, above transition ref Flight level
  • TA Transition Altitude (A for airborne) change on the way up.
  1. Transition Level
  • The lowest flight level available for use above the transition altitude.
  • TL Transition Level (L for Landing) change on the way down

Note: The change to QNE (29.92 Inches) is always done on the Standard Pressure Region side. Also applies in the Northern to Southern Domestic Airspace below 18,000ft .

  • When the aircraft climbs through 18,000ft ASL (from the Altimeter Setting Region to the Standard Pressure Region) the altimeter must be changed to the standard pressure (QNE) of 29.92 inches.
    This point is known as Transition Altitude (Airborne). 18,000ft ASL in Canada.
  • When the aircraft descends through 18,000ft (from the Standard Pressure Region to the Altimeter Setting Region), the altimeter must be reset to a local altimeter setting (QNH). This point is known as Transition Level (Landing). For example 30.02 inches set pilot, 30.02 inches Co, 30.02 inches Nav (ACSO).
  • While in the Standard Pressure Region within NDA, QNH is only used at or near airports during arrival and departure. QNH is set prior to commencing the final descent into an airport. On departure QNE is reset just prior to reaching the flight level at which the flight will be maintained. You can also call this “Transition”.
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10
Q

Controlled Airspace

A

Airspace of defined dimensions within which Air Traffic Control services are provided.

Air traffic control service provided for the purposes of:
* preventing collisions between aircraft and obstructions;
* expediting and maintaining orderly flow of air traffic;
* severe weather warning enroute and weather conditions or forecasts at destination or alternate;
* change in the serviceability of navigation aids;
* condition of airports and associated facilities; and
* any other items considered pertinent to the safety of the flight.

  • Many factors such as volume of traffic, controller workload, communications frequency congestion and limitations of radar equipment may prevent a controller from providing some of these services.
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11
Q

Uncontrolled Airspace

A

Class G and specified Class F airspace within which Air Traffic Control services are not provided.

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12
Q

Control Areas

A
  1. Southern Control Area (SCA)
    * Located within Southern Domestic Airspace
    * Controlled airspace 18,000ft ASL and above
  2. Northern Control Area (NCA)
    * Located within Northern Domestic Airspace
    * Controlled airspace at FL 230 and above
  3. Arctic Control Area (ACA)
    * Located within Northern Domestic Airspace
    * Controlled airspace at FL 270 and above

In Northern Domestic Airspace (NDA) all airspace below the NCA & ACA is uncontrolled.

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13
Q

Control Areas - Low/High Level Airspace

A
  1. Low Level Airspace
  • All airspace within the CDA below 18,000 ft ASL
  • Note: The top of the airspace is 18,000ft ASL and not FL180 since it is based on QNH and not QNE.
  • The Transition Altitude and Level will move up and down depending on local altimeter setting.
  1. High Level Airspace
  • All airspace within the CDA at and above 18,000 ft ASL.
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14
Q

Classes of Airspace

A
  • Canadian Domestic Airspace is divided into seven classes, each identified by a single letter, A thru G.
  • The application of any classification to an airspace structure determines the:
    *operating rules,
    * level of ATC service provided within the structure and,
    * in some instances, communications and equipment requirements.

Rules and procedures of each are outlined in GPH204A Chap 3

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15
Q

Class A

A
  • Controlled high level airspace
  • Only IFR flight is permitted
  • ATC separation is provided to all aircraft
  • Vertical dimensions:
    * Southern Control Area: 18000ft ASL to FL600 inclusive
    * Northern Control Area: FL230 to FL600 inclusive
    * Arctic Control Area: FL270 to FL600 inclusive

Ref: GPH 204A & Glossary

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16
Q

Class B

A
  • Controlled low level airspace
  • IFR and controlled VFR are permitted
  • ATC separation is provided to all aircraft
  • All airspace above 12,500 ft ASL, or from the minimum enroute altitude (MEA), whichever is higher, to below 18,000 ft ASL
  • Control zones and associated terminal control areas may also be classified as Class B

NOTE: The base of Class ‘B’ Airspace could depend on whether there are any MEAs with higher bases than 12,500 ft ASL.

This is common in mountainous regions where controlling agency is not capable of reception below an altitude higher than 12,500 ft ASL and therefore MEA may be higher.

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17
Q

Class C

A
  • Controlled low level airspace
  • IFR and VFR are permitted
  • VFR flights require a clearance to enter
  • ATC separation is provided to IFR aircraft
  • ATC separation may be provided to VFR aircraft, only as necessary to resolve possible conflicts with IFR aircraft
  • Terminal Control Areas and primary control zones may be classified as Class C

Example:
* Control Zone, generally capped at 3,000’ AGL, 5-10nm radius

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18
Q

Class D

A
  • Controlled low level airspace
  • IFR and VFR are permitted
  • VFR flights must establish two-way communications with ATC prior to entering the airspace
  • ATC separation is provided only to IFR aircraft
  • TCAs and primary control zones may be classified as Class D
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19
Q

Class E

A
  • Controlled low level airspace
  • IFR and VFR are permitted
  • VFR flights do not have to establish two-way comms with ATC prior to entering the airspace
  • ATC separation is provided only to IFR aircraft
  • Low level airways, control area extensions, transition areas, or control zones established without an operating control tower may be classified as Class E
  • High level airspace above FL 600
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20
Q

Class F

Special Use Airspace

A
  • Special use airspace
    * Advisory Area
    * Restricted Area
    * Danger Area
  • Can be controlled airspace, uncontrolled or a combination of both
  • Described in terms of horizontal and vertical dimensions as well as active time period
  • IFR and VFR are permitted
  • When not active, Class F airspace assumes the rules of the surrounding airspace
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21
Q

Class F - Access Requirements

Special Use Airspace

A
  • Restricted area access is not authorized without the approval of the controlling agency.
  • Advisory area access is normally reserved for participating aircraft. Non-participating flights should avoid these areas and ATC will not clear non-participating IFR aircraft into an active advisory area.

Shall be designated in the:
*Designated Airspace Handbook (TP1820) IAW the Airspace Regulations, and shall be published on the appropriate aeronautical charts.
* GPH 206 (LO) and GPH 207 (HI) charts
* Aeronautical maps (VNC, VTA, WAC)
* GPH 270

  • Active periods can be found on the charts and/or in NOTAMS
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22
Q

Class F - Advisory Areas

Special Use Airspace

A

Airspace of defined dimensions within which significant activity occurs that non-participating pilots should be aware of for flight safety purposes.

  • No specific restrictions apply;
  • VFR aircraft are encouraged to avoid unless involved in the activity;
  • IFR aircraft will not be cleared through unless specific conditions are met (see GPH 204);
  • IFR will have at least 500 ft vertical separation.

IFR Conditions:
* Pilot states that they have obtained permission from the user agency to enter the airspace;
* Aircraft operating on an ALTRV APVL;
* Aircraft has been cleared for a contact or visual approach.

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23
Q

Class F - Restricted Areas

Special Use Airspace

A

Airspace of defined dimensions above the land areas or territorial waters within which the flight of an aircraft is restricted in accordance with certain specified conditions.

  • The letter D for Danger area will be used if a restricted area is established over international water.
  • No person may conduct aerial activities within active Class F restricted airspace unless permission has been obtained from the user agency;
  • IFR flights will not be cleared through active restricted areas unless the pilot states that permission has been obtained.
  • The list of MILITARY RESTRICTED AREAS, their restrictions, user/controlling agency and phone numbers are listed in GPH 204.
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24
Q

Military Operations Areas (MOA)

Special Use Airspace

A

Airspace of defined dimensions established to segregate certain military activities from IFR traffic and to identify for VFR traffic where these activities are conducted.

  • Typically covered by regular Class F airspace (CYR/CYD areas), but still exist on the East coast.
    * Area Elk & Shearwater DIP sectors are the only ones defined in Canada
  • MOAs do not include Military Training Routes (MTR)
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25
Q

Altitude Reservations (ALTRV)

Special Use Airspace

A

An airspace reservation is a block of controlled airspace reserved for the use of an agency during a specified time. Information on the airspace and time period involved is normally published by NOTAM.

ALTRV can be moving i.e. The Queen is flying from U.K. to Canada, an ALTRV (block of airspace) around the aircraft of defined dimension moving with the aircraft, like 60 nm by 4,000ft . This can be classified or published at the last minute.

IFR and CVFR flights are provided with standard separation from reserved airspace.

Also reserved for things such as:
* Search and Rescue
* Covert ASW Operations
* Tactical Airlift Missions
* Exercises with the Navy
* Drug Prosecutions
* Air to Air Refueling

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26
Q

Special Use Airspace Identification

Special Use Airspace

A

Example: CYR 301
CY = Nationality (CY is Canada)
R = Restricted Airspace or (D) Danger Area
A = Advisory Area

  1. Three digit Number = Area Identifier
    101 to 199 - British Columbia
    201 to 299 – Alberta
    301 to 399 - Saskatchewan
    401 to 499 - Manitoba
    501 to 599 - Ontario
    601 to 699 - Quebec
    701 to 799 – Maritimes/ Nfld
    801 to 899 - Yukon Territory
    901 to 999 – NWT / Nunavut (Including Arctic Islands)
  2. ADVISORY AREAS - CYA404 (T)
    (A) = Aerobatics
    (H) = Hang gliding
    (P) = Parachuting
    (S) = Soaring
    (T) = Training
    (F) = Aircraft Testing
    (M)= Military Operations Area. CYA407(M)

Military Advisory Areas in Canada, their restrictions, user/controlling agency and phone numbers are listed in GPH 204. Operating rules in these areas will be in accordance with the Designated Airspace Handbook (DAH)

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27
Q

Class G

A
  • Uncontrolled airspace
  • IFR and VFR are permitted
  • All airspace not designated as Class A, B, C, D, E or F
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28
Q

Control Zones

A

Designated around certain aerodromes to keep IFR traffic within controlled airspace during approaches and to facilitate the control of IFR and VFR traffic

  • Normally 7 nm radius (can be 5 nm or 3 nm)
  • Capped at 3,000 ft AAE unless otherwise specified
  • Military control zones are normally 10 nm radius capped at 6,000 ft AAE
  • Classified as Class B, C, D or E depending on surrounding airspace

  • Ref: GPH 204 & Glossary
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29
Q

Control Area Extension

A

Designated to provide:

  • Additional controlled airspace around busy aerodromes for IFR control; and
  • Connection to controlled airspace, such as between a control zone and the enroute structure.
  • Based at 2200 ft AGL unless otherwise specified and extend up to, but not including 18,000 ft ASL.
  • Class E up to 12,500 ft ASL and Class B above 12,500 ft ASL.

  • Ref: GPH 204 & Glossary
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30
Q

Terminal Control Area (TCA)

A

Established at high volume traffic airports to provide IFR control service to arriving, departing and enroute aircraft.

Similar to Control Area Extension except that:
* May extend into high level airspace;

  • Traffic normally controlled by Terminal Control Unit; and
  • Normally designed in a circular configuration centered on the geographic coordinates of the primary aerodrome.

  • Ref: GPH 204 & Glossary
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31
Q

Transition Area

A

Area established when it is deemed advantageous or necessary to provide additional controlled airspace for the containment of IFR operations.

Ref: GPH 204B Glossary

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32
Q

Military Terminal Control Area (MTCA)

A

Controlled airspace of defined dimensions designated to serve arriving, departing and enroute aircraft and within which special procedures and exemptions exist for military aircraft.

Most extend up into high level airspace.

Ref: GPH 204 Art 310 & Glossary

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33
Q

VFR

A
  • “See and be Seen” Principle.
  • Pilots responsible for own separation.
  • Continuous visual reference to ground/water.
  • Visual separation from cloud.

As pilots are responsible for their own separation from other aircraft, conditions must exist that permit sufficient opportunity to see and avoid other air traffic and ground obstructions by day or night.

Pilots should remember that established weather criteria are minima and that they should allow a greater margin for safety when circumstances permit, particularly in terminal areas or when reduced visibility or cloud conditions make VFR flights questionable.

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34
Q

VFR - Fixed Wing Criteria

A
  1. Forecast weather: 1500ft & 3sm
  2. Aircraft Operating Requirements:
    * Minimum vertical distance from cloud - 500 feet
    * Minimum horizontal distance from cloud - 1 mile
    * Minimum height above ground or water – 1,000 feet

For weather avoidance, must remain clear of cloud and within sight of the surface at all times and minimum height above ground or water – (500 feet in a Control Zone).

Ref: B-GA-100 Ch 7 Fig 7-1.

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35
Q

VFR - Over The Top (VFR OTT)

A

Allows VFR without visual reference to the surface

Restrictions are:
* Pilot has a valid instrument rating;
* Aircraft is certified for IFR flight;
* No special annotation on the VFR or composite flight plan; and
* VFR fuel requirements for VFR flight plan,
* IFR fuel requirements for Composite flight plan.

Pertains to day VFR operations in the EN ROUTE phase only.

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36
Q

VFR - OTT Weather Minima

A
  • The aircraft shall be at least 1,000 feet above and below any cloud layers;
  • Shall maintain a minimum of 5 statute miles flight visibility; and
  • The minimum distance between cloud layers shall be 5,000 feet.
  1. Destination Weather
    Valid Terminal Area Forecast (TAF):
    • Shall not have ceiling less than 4,000ft above planned cruise altitude, and visibility shall not be under 3 statute miles.
    • One hour before to two hours after ETA.

Valid Graphical Area Forecast (GFA):
* Same as a TAF except:
* One hour before to three hours after ETA.

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37
Q

VFR - Fuel Requirements

A

Propeller Driven Aircraft

  • Fly to destination, and
  • Fly for 45 mins thereafter at normal cruise consumption
    • Based on the last fuel consumption.
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38
Q

Right of Way

A

Right of way rules:

  1. Least able to manoeuvre
    * Dependant on a/c category, least manoeuvrable have right of way
  2. Converging tracks
    * Aircraft on the right has the right of way (same a/c category)
  3. Aircraft approaching head-on
    * Each a/c shall adjust heading to the right
  4. Overtaking aircraft
    * Overtaking aircraft shall alter course to the right
  5. Aircraft landing
    * Aircraft landing has the right of way, a/c at lower altitude to land first
  6. Aircraft taking off
    * Aircraft shall not take off unless no apparent risk of collision
  • Note
    Except in Emergency/Authorized - fixed‑wing aircraft shall not land/take-off at night at an unlighted aerodrome

Aircraft of a different category have the right of way in the following priority:
-Balloons
-Gliders
-Airships
-Aircraft towing objects
-Helicopters carrying slung loads
-Rotary wing/fixed wing (including ultra-lights)
- UAS operating under Visual Line of Sight (VLOS)

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39
Q

Clearances and Instructions

A
  • Pilots shall comply with ATC instructions directed at their aircraft
  • Acknowledgement of a clearance will be taken by a controller as indicating acceptance.
  • Pilots shall not accept an ATC clearance that could jeopardize the safe completion of the flight
  • Should an emergency or safety consideration make compliance impracticable:
    * Request an amended clearance; or
    * Notify the controlling agency of action taken.
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40
Q

Taxing, Take Off & Landing

A
  • A clearance must be received from the ATC agency before taxiing, taking off or landing at controlled aerodromes.
  • Under no circumstances may a taxiing aircraft, whether proceeding to or from the active runway, taxi onto an active runway unless specially authorized to do so.

If a pilot receives a clearance to take off on a runway out of the wind, the decision to take off shall rest with the pilot.

Ref: B-GA-100 Ch 5.
GPH 204 article 506.

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41
Q

Holding Short

A

To ensure that no hazard will be created, all aircraft shall hold at the designated holding position, or if no holding position is marked, at least 200 feet from the edge of the runway in use, unless otherwise authorized by ATC.

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42
Q

Upon Landing

A

After landing, aircraft shall clear the runway without delay by continuing forward to the nearest available taxi strip or turn‑off point, unless otherwise instructed by ATC.

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43
Q

Initial Contact

A

Prior to entering a control zone under VFR, the pilot shall call the appropriate air traffic control unit, giving the aircraft identification and position, and shall request authority to operate in the airspace/zone, giving specific details such as request landing instructions or clearance through the zone, etc.

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44
Q

Standard Traffic Circuit

A

The pilot of an aircraft approaching an aerodrome shall make a left‑hand circuit unless a right‑hand circuit is established for a particular runway or unless the pilot has been specifically cleared to do otherwise.

Ref: B-GA-100 Ch 5.

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45
Q

Visual Signals

A
  • In the event of radio failure, the pilot shall, if practicable, indicate the failure to the appropriate ATC unit and obtain authorization for any movements from the ATC unit by means of visual signals.
  • The aircraft shall join the circuit in the approved pattern and fly across the aerodrome in the direction of the intended landing at a height not exceeding 1,000 feet AGL, rocking the aircraft wings laterally.

A pilot shall, where practicable, acknowledge all clearances by:
* Distinct rocking of the aircraft in flight;
* At night, a single flash of landing light;
* Raising the landing gear and going around; and
* When on the ground, brisk movements of aircraft controls.

Ref: B-GA-100 Ch 5.

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46
Q

Speed Limitations

A

Maximum 200 KIAS
* Below 3,000’ AGL
* Within 10 NM of controlled airfield (unless authorized)

Maximum 250 KIAS
* Below 10,000’
* Outside military controlled airspace

Ref: B-GA-100 Ch 5.

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47
Q

Listening Out

A

Unless otherwise authorized by an ATC agency, and if practicable, a pilot shall maintain a continuous listening watch on the radio frequencies designated for control and should also monitor either 243.0 MHz or 121.5 MHz.

Ref: B-GA-100 Ch 5.

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48
Q

Federal & Provincial Parks

A

No aircraft shall land or take off within a provincial or federal park unless prior arrangements have been made with the park superintendent or the superintendent’s representative.

Note: FOM also specifies that over-flight of provincial and national parks shall be conducted at least 2000ft AGL while within 2nm.

Ref: B-GA-100 Ch 5.

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49
Q

Fur / Poultry Farms

A
  • Low‑level flights over identifiable fur and poultry farms are prohibited.
  • Flights in the vicinity of fur farms should be avoided during February, March, April and May. Intentional low flying in the immediate vicinity of fur or poultry farms is prohibited.

Over-flight of fur/poultry farms shall be no lower than:
* 2000ft AGL while flying within 2nm and,
* 4000ft while flying within 4 nm for (fur farm) whelping season February to May.

Ref: B-GA-100 Ch 5.

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50
Q

Airport Overfly

A
  • If you over fly an airport, you shall be at least 2,000 ft AGL, or 1,000ft above circuit altitude whichever is higher, or 2 NM lateral spacing.
  • Note: If you are within a MF or ATF area, you must make a position report.

Ref: B-GA-100 Ch ?

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51
Q

Sensitive Citizens

A
  • People who have indicated a desire not to have aircraft fly at low altitude over their homes.
  • Avoid by at least 1000ft AGL or 1 nm laterally

Ref: FOM 2.2.5.1

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52
Q

Minimum Altitude / Lateral Distance

A

General Rule

  • Persons - 1,000’ and 1 NM
  • Animals / Animal Habitats / Aircraft - 2,000’ and 2 NM
  • Weapons, Ammo and Power - 1,500’
  • Forest Fires - 3’000 and 5 NM

Information for the farms and sensitive citizens are published by each Wings Operations. Section of Wing Flying Orders.

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53
Q

GPH 204 Overview

A

Split into two separate publications:

  • GPH204A – Flight Planning & Procedures in Canada and the North Atlantic issued every 112 days; and,
  • GPH204B – Glossary for Pilots and Air Traffic Services Personnel - a useful reference throughout the course, published on a yearly basis (online as well).

Provides a ready reference to planning and procedural information concerning Visual Flight Rules (VFR) and Instrument Flight Rules (IFR) operations.

GPH 204 - Flight Planning & Procedures in Canada and the North Atlantic

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54
Q

Controlled Aerodromes

A
  • Aerodrome at which an ATC unit is in operation.
  • Meaning the aerodrome has a tower that controls traffic inside of its control zone (CZ)
  • All traffic, IFR and VFR, need to contact the Control Tower to enter
  • Tower provides control and separation service

  • GPH 204B - Glossary
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55
Q

Uncontrolled Aerodromes

A
  • Aerodrome at which a control tower has not been established. Also applies during the non-operational period when an established control tower is on reduced hours.
  • At an aerodrome where there is no control tower, or the tower is closed, MF or ATF rules will apply
  • No clearance is required under VFR
  • IFR must still obtain a clearance prior to entering

  • GPH 204B - Glossary
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56
Q

**

Water Aerodromes

A
  • The Gonzo is not capable of landing on water
  • Avoidance of water aerodrome circuits is the same as for regular uncontrolled aerodromes. (2000ft/2sm OR 1000ft above circuit height whichever is higher)
  • Do not give emergency Nav to a Water Aerodrome
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57
Q

Abandoned Aerodromes

A
  • There are abandoned aerodromes all across Canada.
  • If flying near abandoned aerodromes, no avoidance measures are required.
  • Verify that it is actually abandoned.
  • Keep in mind that it could be used by model airplane enthusiasts, drone hobbyists, etc.
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58
Q

Mandatory Frequency (MF)

A
  • Established at uncontrolled aerodromes where traffic volume and mix of traffic would derive a safety benefit from implementing MF procedures
  • A ground station (FSS, UNICOM, or CARS) may be established. The ground station may not necessarily at the aerodrome (RAAS).
  • The frequency and MF area dimensions (radius, altitude) within which MF procedures apply are published in the GPH 205. The frequency is also published in the GPH 200
    *if an ATF or MF is not published use 123.2 MHz
  • Normally, the MF Area is a circle with a 5NM radius capped at 3,000’ (GPH204A, 527, para 2)

FSS – Flight Service Station
UNICOM – Universal Communications
CARS – Community Aerodrome Radio Station
RAAS – Remote Aerodrome Advisory Service

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59
Q

Aerodrome Traffic Frequency (ATF)

A
  • A designated frequency to ensure all radio-equipped aircraft operating on the ground or within the ATF area are communicating with a common reporting procedure
  • Established at aerodromes where VFR traffic activity is high and there is a safety benefit to ensuring that all traffic monitor the same frequency.
  • Unlike a MF, NORDO & RONLY aircraft can be there
  • Not limited to aerodromes only. E.g. An ATF area could be established along a frequently flown corridor
  • The ATF and area dimensions (radius, altitude) within which ATF procedures apply are published in the GPH 205
    *if an ATF or MF is not published use 123.2 MHz

  1. NORDO – No Radio
    Is an inability to communicate by radio owing to the absence or failure of radio equipment.
  2. RONLY – Receiver Only
    Capability receive radio communications only, owing to the absence or failure of transmitter.
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60
Q

Departure Procedure - Controlled Aerodrome

A

When departing a controlled aerodrome VFR, the following general sequence applies:

  1. Obtain ATIS (Automated Terminal Information Service)
  2. Contact Clearance Delivery (if req’d)
  3. Get Taxi Clearance
  4. Get Take-off Clearance
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61
Q

Controlled Departure - ATIS

A

ATIS - (Automated Terminal Information Service)
* Continuous broadcasting of recorded aerodrome information for arriving and departing aircraft.

If ATIS is available, a pilot should obtain the ATIS information prior to contacting either the ground control or tower.

AtCYWG, it is a voice recording, updated at least once per hour that broadcasts on a frequency found in FLIPS) gives:
* current weather
* IFR approaches
* L/D runway
* special NOTAMS and
* RSC (runway surface conditions)

Example: “This is Winnipeg International Airport Information BRAVO. Weather taken at 1200Z; wind 350 at 10, gusting 25, visibility 10 miles, sky condition 1600 Overcast, temp -5, dew point -15, altimeter 29.88. The IFR approach is an RNAV Z RWY 36, landing and departing Rwy 36. Inform Winnipeg ATC on initial contact that you have received information BRAVO.”

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62
Q

Controlled Departure - Clearance

A

Clearance Delivery:

  • Some major airports (like Winnipeg) require departing VFR aircraft to contact “clearance delivery” before taxi.
  • They will give you your clearance, including departure instructions and a “squawk” code.
  • The squawk is a four digit transponder code issued by ATC. It’s provides SSR (secondary surveillance radar) information such as call sign, altitude, speed, clearance etc.

  • GPH 204A – Ch 5 Art 505
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63
Q

Controlled Departure - Taxi Clearance

A
  • Taxi authorization should be requested from the ground controller on the appropriate frequency.
  • In Winnipeg, 17 Wing Operations “controls” Apron 6. We don’t need clearance from them, we just advise them when we’re taxiing on the ramp.
  • Winnipeg Ground controls the rest of the airport. We need a taxi clearance before leaving Apron 6 and entering the taxi ways (Bravo or Charlie)

GPH 204A – Ch 5 Art 507

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64
Q

Controlled Departure - Take-Off Clearance

A
  • When ready for take-off the pilot shall request take-off clearance, stating the runway.
  • When clearance is received, take-off without delay;
  • The pilot may request take-off using only part of the runway;
  • If the clearance includes the word “immediate” the aircraft shall taxi onto the runway and take-off in one continuous movement.

GPH 204A – Ch 5 Art 510

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65
Q

Controlled Arrival - ATIS

A

ATIS Broadcast:

  • If available, all arrivals should monitor this frequency to obtain the basic aerodrome information prior to contacting the appropriate local ATC facility.
  • Departing and arriving aircraft will advise ATC on initial call up that they have ATIS

GPH 204A – Ch 5 Art 514

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66
Q

Controlled Arrival - Initial Contact

A
  • The pilot shall call the tower, inform the tower he intends to land at an airport within the zone or proceed through the zone, and obtain clearance to proceed into the zone.
  • At larger aerodromes (such as Winnipeg) your initial contact may be with Arrival (Terminal) instead of Tower. It all depends on your altitude and the class airspace you’ll enter first.

If practical the pilot should make the call about 10 miles before entering the control zone.

GPH 204A – Ch 5 Art 515

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67
Q

```

Controlled Arrival - Initial Clearance

A
  • The pilot will receive clearance to proceed including any necessary restrictions or to hold clear of the zone until conditions allow further clearance.
  • Pilots should always inform ATC which ATIS they have. If not, the ATC unit will pass the runway in use, wind direction and speed, and altimeter setting

GPH 204A – Ch 5 Art 516

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68
Q

Controlled Arrival - Landing Clearance

A
  • A pilot must obtain landing clearance prior to landing.
  • ATC should issue the clearance without prompting from the pilots. The onus remains upon the pilot to request landing clearance early enough.
  • Pilots should make their intentions clear. Landing clearances can contain the following phrases:
    • Cleared to Land
    • Cleared for the option
    • Land and Hold Short Of
    • Stop-and-go
    • Touch-and-go

GPH 204A – Ch 5 Art 517

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69
Q

Controlled Arrival - Taxiing

A
  • Unless otherwise instructed by ATC, aircraft are expected to continue in the landing direction to the nearest suitable taxiway and exit the runway without delay.
  • Instructions for exiting the runway are normally given with the landing clearance.
  • The aircraft is not considered clear of the runway until all parts are past the taxi holding line or the 200 ft point.

GPH 204A – Ch 5 Art 518

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70
Q

Uncontrolled Arrival Procedures

A

At uncontrolled aerodromes, MF/ATF procedures apply.

  • Pilots must report their position, altitude, intentions, and ETA at least 5 min prior to entering the area.
  • Pilots continue to report their position throughout the arrival.
  • When operating VFR or IFR in VMC conditions, pilots have the sole responsibility for seeing and avoiding other aircraft

GPH 204A – Ch 5 Art 530-534

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71
Q

VFR Circuit Procedures

A

Controlled & Uncontrolled Aerodromes

  1. Circuits are normally Left-Hand
    * Since the pilot flying normally sits in the left seat of the aircraft therefore he can see where he is turning to.
  2. Normal circuit altitude is flown at 1,000ft AAE
    * Check the GPH 205 to verify the circuit altitude and direction. It may be different than 1,000 ft AGL (AAE) and it could be right hand circuits.
    * Non-standard circuit pattern may be designated for aircraft safety (operations on parallel runways) or airport operations (keep traffic away from built up areas).

Wind direction - Depart into the wind.

Crosswind - leg goes across the prevailing wind, perpendicular to the runway.

Downwind - leg runs parallel to the runway, wind is at your back.

Base - leg goes across the prevailing wind, perpendicular to the runway.

Final - leg goes into the wind in preparation for landing.

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72
Q

VFR - Joining the Circuit

A
  1. NORDO/RONLY Aircraft, ATF, or MF w/o Advisory Svc:
    * Approach upwind side, at circuit altitude
    * When safe, join circuit on downwind leg.
    * Allows aircraft to visual check runway / wind / traffic conditions
  2. Radio-equipped Aircraft at Uncontrolled Aerodrome with MF with Advisory Service or cleared by ATC at Controlled Aerodrome (at circuit altitude):
    * Join straight-in or 45 deg to downwind leg; or
    * Straight-in to base; or
    * Straight-in to final leg.

  • If overflying runway during approach, pilot should be at least 500’ above circuit altitude)
73
Q

VFR - Departing the Circuit

A
  • Climb straight ahead on runway heading until circuit altitude before commencing a turn.
  • Turns back toward the circuit or airfield should not be initiated until at least 500 ft above the circuit altitude.
  • If performing a series of circuits and landings, after each take-off, climb to the circuit altitude before joining the downwind leg.
74
Q

MF & ATF Communication Formats

Mandatory Frequency / Aerodrome Traffic Frequency

A
  • Directed transmission made to a ground station
  • Directed transmission made to vehicle operator on the ATF
  • Broadcast transmission not directed to any particular receiving station

Examples:

  • Directed transmission made to vehicle operator on the ATF
    These are messages sent directly to the MF operator (such as a FSS) and are prefaced with a phrase identifying the station being called “Churchill Radio, Gonzo 3, 10nm North West, 1,500ft ASL, proceeding for landing.”
  • Broadcast transmission that is not directed to any particular receiving station
    Note: These are messages directed to any aircraft on the ATF. These are prefaced with a phrase identifying the area the call is made from “Ashern Traffic, Gonzo 3, 10nm North West, 1,500ft ASL ,proceeding for landing. Rwy 26 will be joining on the upwind side rwy 26.”
75
Q

MF & ATF Communication - Manoeuvring Areas

A

Operation on Manoeuvring Areas
* Manoeuvring areas are those used for take-off and landing (ie. taxiways and runways)

  • Report intentions on MF or ATF prior to entering
  • Maintain listening watch throughout manoeuvring area ops

The principle of VFR flying is “SEE and be SEEN”. To facilitate this, communication procedures have be laid out to ensure the safety of all operators.

Manoeuvering Area – The part of an aerodrome, other than the apron, that is intended to be used for the take-off and landing of aircraft and for the movement of aircraft associated with take-off and landing.

76
Q

MF & ATF Communication - Departure

A
  • Report intentions on MF or ATF before moving onto the runway
  • Determine by radio and visually that no aircraft or vehicle is likely to come into contact with your aircraft during take-off
  • Report departing from the aerodrome traffic circuit and monitor the MF or ATF until well clear of area (5 to 10 NM)
77
Q

MF & ATF Communication - Arrival

A
  • Report position, altitude, arrival procedure, intentions and ETA for landing at least 5 mins (where possible) prior to entering area;
  • Maintain a listening watch on MF or ATF while in area;
  • Report joining circuit pattern giving position in pattern;
  • Report on DOWNWIND leg, if applicable;
  • Report established on FINAL approach; and
  • Report clear of active runway after landing.
78
Q

MF & ATF Communication - Enroute Reports

A

Enroute reports flying through MF

  • Report position, altitude and intentions before entering the area;
  • Maintain a listening watch on MF or ATF while in area;
  • Report clear of area.
  • To minimize conflicts with local traffic and reduce radio congestion, enroute VFR aircraft should avoid passing thru MF or ATF areas.

126.7 MHz should be monitored continuously when:
* Not communicating on a MF or ATF;
* Operating VFR enroute in uncontrolled airspace; and
* Operating VFR on an airway.

Position Reports:
* Are not mandatory, but recommended for flight safety.
Should be made to a FSS as they are recorded and can be immediately available in the event of SAR action.

79
Q

VFR Enroute Position Reporting

A

POSITION REPORT FORMAT

Identification - d/e Gonzo 5
Position - On Top Treherne
Time over - @ 1300 L
Direction - Heading East
Altitude - at 3500 ft ASL
VFR/VFR OTT - VFR
Destination - to Winnipeg

Located on the back cover of the GPH 205.

80
Q

VFR Altitudes Enroute

A

Aircraft shall be operated at altitudes appropriate for direction of flight when in level cruising flight above 3000 ft AGL

  • Track: 000°-179° mag (true in NDA)
    Odd thousands plus 500 ft (5500,7500 ASL etc.)
  • Track: 180°-359° mag (true in NDA)
    Even thousands plus 500 ft (6500, 8500 ASL etc.)
81
Q

ATC RADAR Assistance to VFR Flights

A

When requested by pilots, radar-equipped ATC units will provide assistance to navigation in form of:
* Position information;
* Vectors or tracks; and
* Groundspeed checks.

VFR flights may be provided this service:
* At the request of the pilot, traffic permitting.
* When controller suggests and the pilot concurs.
* In the interest of flight safety.
* Pilots are responsible for traffic avoidance when being vectored in VFR conditions.

If a radar vector will lead a VFR flight into IFR weather conditions, pilot must inform ATC and take following action:
* If practicable, obtain a vector which allows the flight to remain in VFR weather conditions.
* If an alternative vector is not practical, revert to own navigation.
* If pilot is IFR qualified and the aircraft is IFR equipped, pilot may request an IFR clearance.

82
Q

GPH 205 - Canada Flight Supplement

A

Valid for 56 days - same cycle as other FLIP’s

Back Cover Contents:
1. Flight Plan & Itinerary Info (info required in ICAO flight plan)

  1. VFR Position Reporting
    • same format as used in Phase One
    • how and where to report are included
  2. IFR Position Reporting
  3. PIREP (Pilot Weather Report)
83
Q

GPH 205 - Section A

A

Section A (General Info)

Contains such info as:
* Abbreviations and Acronyms
* Aerodrome location indicator & name
* Abandoned Aerodromes/Heliports
* Conversion tables
* HF time check frequencies/Morse code & phonetic alphabet
* General Chart Legend
* VFR Chart symbols common to VTA, VNC and ONC
* Aerodrome and Facilities Legend
* Wind Chart / CRFI

84
Q

GPH 205 - Section B

A

Section B (Aerodrome/Facility Directory)

Contains information on all active aerodromes in Canada and some commonly used aerodromes in the North Atlantic

  • VFR terminal procedures chart for applicable aerodromes
  • Aerodrome diagram and descriptive text
  • North Atlantic aerodromes are text only
85
Q

Section B - VFR Terminal Procedures Chart

A

Similar format to the VTA/VNC

Provides information on things such as:
* Airport and heliport locations
* Classes of airspace
* Obstructions
* Restricted/Advisory zones
* Fixed wing VFR routes
* Comms info
* Navaids

86
Q

Section B - Airport Diagram

A

Intended as a guide for aircrew in VFR conditions

Provides information on:
* Aerodrome name
* ICAO identifier
* Field Elevation
* Runways
* Runway lengths
* Landing distances available
* Airfield obstructions
* Obstacle Clearance Circle

87
Q

Section B - Aerodrome Info (REF/OPR/PF)

A
  • Reference (REF) – includes aerodrome lat/long, variation, time zone, etc
  • Operator (OPR) – of the aerodrome and contact info
  • Public Facilities (PF) – what is at the aerodrome or nearby
88
Q

Section B - Aerodrome Info (CUST / FLT PLN)

A
  1. Customs (CUST) - Designates which aerodromes have custom services available. CYWG is an Airport of Entry (AOE)
  2. Flight Planning (FLT PLN) - Lists flight planning services available
  • NOTAM FILE – 4 letter designator where NOTAMS are obtained
  • FIC – Flight Information Centre - provides pre-flight and Flight Information Services En-route (FISE) including
  • Pilot wx briefings;
  • Met info:
  • Aeronautical info;
  • Aeronautical broadcasts;
  • Flt planning & VFR alerting.
  1. ACC – Area Control Centre
    * Wx info (hourly, special reports only);
    * NOTAM;
    * Flt Plans. (Collect Calls accepted from areas where no Air Traffic Services Comm Facilities exist).
  2. WX – Weather services available at aerodrome
    * METAR – qualified human observer and coverage time;
    * TAF – aerodrome forecasts, coverage time and issue times;
    * WD2 – military wx services avail;
  3. DUAT (Direct User Access Terminal):
    * Location of terminals that have Wx & NOTAM info;
    * May permit filing of flt plans.
89
Q

Section B - Aerodrome Info (SERVICES)

A

SERVICES - Indicates what is available to General Aviation within the aerodrome. Information on the services is provided by the company or individual offering the service.

  1. FUEL - Listing of commercial fuel available; HPR – High Pressure Refueling.
  2. OIL - Listing of oil grades available (ALL indicates all seasonal grades avail)
  3. (S) = SERVICING – availability at airfield
    * 1. Storage avail; 4. Parking (extended term);
    * 2. Servicing/Minor repairs; 5. Tie-Down facilities;
    * 3. Major repairs; 6. Plug-in facilities.
  4. (ARFF) AIRCRAFT RESCUE & FIRE-FIGHTING - Indicates the level of emergency response available on aerodrome;
    * E.g.. Aircraft Cat 7 – up to 49 metres, 12100 litres of water, 225 kg chemical
  5. (SUP FL) SUPPORTING FLUIDS, SYSTEMS & OXYGEN - Listing of other consumables avail at the aerodrome;
  • LHOX (Low & High pressure oxygen servicing);
  • D & A-ice (De-ing & Anti-icing fluid);
  • Mil LOX (Military Liquid Oxygen serving);
  • Nitrogen available w/prior notice via NOVA (Notice of Visiting Aircraft) msg;
  • (JASU) Jet Aircraft Starting Units
  • (MIL ADV) Military Advisory - Notices that apply to military traffic only (Step through decode);
  • (PVT ADV) Private Advisory - Notices that apply to non-commercial traffic only (Step through decode).
90
Q

Section B - Aerodrome Info (RWY DATA)

A
  1. Runway Data (RWY DATA) - Provides a breakdown of all pertinent data with regard to the runways. Operating restrictions specified by Transport Canada are included.
    * Rwy number (actual mag hdg) length and surface type.
  2. (TWY) Taxiway - Indicates any restrictions to aerodrome taxiways.
  3. APRON - Indicates any restrictions to aerodrome parking aprons.
  4. (RCR) Rwy Condition Report
    * Operator;
    * CRFI – Cdn Rwy Friction Index;
    * PLR – Pavement Load rating (Cdn);
    * PCN – Pavement Classification Number (ICAO)
  5. LIGHTING
    * Describes the types of lighting available for individual rwys.
    • Approach Lighting;
    • Threshold & Runway Lighting;
    • Runway Lighting Codes; and,
    • Visual Glide Slope Indicators.
91
Q

Section B - Aerodrome Info (COMM)

A

Communications - Lists all of the communication facilities and their respective frequencies for the aerodrome;

  1. (RCO) Remote Communications Outlet
    • Winnipeg Radio FSS/FIC (FISE) Flight Information Service Enroute
    • (E) Emergency Frequencies 121.5 and 243.0;
  2. (ATIS) Automatic Terminal Information Service frequencies
  3. (CLNC DEL) Clearance Delivery
    • All departing aircraft to contact clearance delivery;
  4. (GND) Ground Control frequencies
  5. (TWR) Tower freqs
    • Includes (E) Emergency freqs 121.5 & 243.0
  6. (ARR) Arrival freqs
  7. (DEP) Departure freqs
  8. (VFR ADV) VFR Traffic Advisory frequencies.
  9. (MIL) Military use freqs
  10. (PMSV) Pilot to Metro Service freqs
92
Q

Section B - Aerodrome Info (NAV)

A

Navigation - Breakdown of navigation facilities associated with the aerodrome, in that they serve as an instrument approach aids, have the same name, or are within 5 nm of aerodrome.

Navaids located between 5 & 25 nm may be included if they provide an operational advantage to the airport.

  1. (VOT) VOR Test facility freq
  2. (NDB) Non Directional Beacon
    Identifier:
    Freq:
    Auxiliary Code:
    Lat & Long
    Location relative to the centre of the airfield:
  3. (VORTAC) – VOR & TACAN
    Identifier:
    Freq:
    Channel:
    Lat & Long:
    Elevation:
    Location relative to the centre of the airfield.
  4. (ILS) Instrument Landing System
    Identifier:
    Freq:
    Rwy:
93
Q

Section B - Aerodrome Info (PRO)

A
  1. Procedures - Deals with circuit patterns and heights, specific VFR routes within zones, traffic restrictions, aerial activities within zones, specific helicopter procedures and Noise Operating restrictions / Noise Abatement Procedures.
  • Airport – landing restrictions, circuit information;
  • Noise – note restrictions;
  • HELI – note helicopter restrictions;
  • MIL – note military restrictions.
  1. CAUTION - Brief information describing conditions of a permanent nature (90 days or more), regarding aeronautical facilities or hazards, knowledge of which is essential for safe operation of aircraft.
94
Q

GPH 205 - Section C

A

Section C (Planning)

Contains flight planning and Canadian airspace information similar to that contained in GPH 204

  • Other pertinent information in this section is mandatory IFR routes and airways intersection and reporting point coordinates.
  • NOTE: Contains VFR charts updating data which includes information on obstructions and hazards (Manitoba pg. C76).
95
Q

GPH 205 - Section D

A

Section D (Radio Navigation and Communications)

  • A very handy section listing Radio Navigation Aids by location and identifier. Also, commercial broadcasting stations are listed.
  • The North Atlantic Meteorological Information (VOLMET) for HF is described in this section.
96
Q

GPH 205 - Section E

A

Section E (Military Flight Data & Procedures)

  • Canadian Military Aeronautical Communication System (MACS)
  • Pilot to Metro Service and radar facilities (PMSV)
  • Where we can call for direct contact with weather personnel and various other tidbits used when flying across the country.
  • Some U.S. airspace procedures are also listed including aerodrome restrictions and use of RWY condition reading and conversion table.
  • Military aircraft accident/incident reporting procedures
97
Q

GPH 205 - Section F

A

Section F (Emergency)

Information here lists what to do in case of various emergencies

Knowing where to find answers is the most important point here, but in particular, having some idea of communication failure procedures and ELT reporting procedures are important for all aircrew

98
Q

IFR – Instrument Flight Rules

A
  • Flight rules permitting flight in conditions where control of the aircraft may be accomplished without visual outside reference.
  • While operating under IFR, i.e. on an IFR flight plan, an aircraft is operated in accordance with IFR regardless of existing conditions.
  • When conducting IFR flight in VMC conditions, pilots are responsible for separation from VFR traffic.

Ref BGA-100 Chapter 8, paras 1-3

99
Q

Why fly IFR?

A

BGA 100 Book 1 Chapter 7 para 3 states:

“Pilots are encouraged to file IFR flight plans and retain an IFR clearance to the maximum extent practicable.”

Why would this be beneficial?
* It provides separation from other IFR traffic
* It allows us to operate in Class A airspace if we need/want to
* It allows us to operate in weather which is below VFR minima

100
Q

IFR Certification - CT-142

A

BGA 100 - Chap 8, para 7:
* No aircraft shall be flown under Instrument Flight Conditions (IFC) unless the aircraft type has been authorized for such flight by NDHQ. Certification will be documented by an entry in the AOIs for each aircraft type.

CT142 - documented in AFM (Aircraft Flight Manual) Section 2.1.2
* The CT142 is eligible for the following kinds of operations:
* Day and night VFR.
* IFR.

101
Q

IFR Certification & Equipment - Requirements

A

Chap 8, para 8: No aircraft shall be flown in accordance with Instrument Flight Rules (IFR) or at night unless it is equipped with at least the following serviceable equipment:

  • an airspeed indicator with a means of preventing malfunction due to icing;
  • a pressure-sensitive altimeter;
  • a vertical speed indicator;
  • a magnetic compass or a magnetic direction indicator that operates independently of the aircraft electrical generating system;
  • an independent heading reference system and indicator;
  • a means of determining outside air temperature;
  • an attitude reference system and indicator;
  • a turn and slip indicator or standby attitude reference system and indicator;
  • a reliable time piece installed or otherwise available to flight crew members;
  • a means of illumination for all instruments required to operate the aircraft;
  • an external navigation light system;
  • radio communication equipment adequate to permit two-way communication with the appropriate air traffic control agency; and
  • radio navigation equipment and directional indicators adequate to navigate safely without visual reference to the ground or water (not required for night VFR flight where navigation can be accomplished solely by reference to ground features). This equipment shall include one or more of the following:
    • ADF radio compass,
    • VOR receiver, and
    • TACAN, and
    • IFR certified RNAV equipment must be sole means certified unless the aircraft equipment includes at least one ADF, VOR or TACAN.
102
Q

IFR - Communications

A

Chap 8, para 12 and 13:

    1. Pilots shall continuously monitor appropriate ATC frequencies while conducting flight under IFR, and should also monitor 243.0 MHz or 121.5 MHz if practicable.
    1. Position reports, radio procedures and emergency communication procedures shall be accomplished in accordance with instructions contained in appropriate FLIPs.

Shall Monitor: Appropriate or assigned ATC Frequencies.
Should Monitor: If other radio(s) are available then the following frequencies should be monitored:
121.5 MHz
243.0 MHz
126.7 MHz

103
Q

IFR - Minimum IFR Altitudes

A

Chap 8, para 14:
* 14. Aircraft conducting IFR flight within designated low level airways and air routes shall be operated in accordance with minimum obstruction requirements specified in FLIPs. (i.e. MEA)

From GPH204A Article 703:
* A MEA is defined as the published altitude ASL between specified fixes on airways or air routes which assures acceptable navigational signal coverage, and which meets IFR obstacle clearance requirements.

  • The minimum flight plan altitude shall be the nearest altitude or flight level consistent with the direction of flight that is at or above the MEA.
  • The MOCA is the minimum operating altitude at which an IFR flight may be conducted under any circumstances. The MOCA only assures IFR obstacle clearance

Chap 8, para 15:
* 15. Aircraft conducting IFR flight outside designated airways and air routes shall maintain the following altitudes:
* Outside Designated Mountainous Regions - At least 1000 feet above all obstacles within 5 miles of the track of the aircraft.
* Within Designated Mountainous Regions - At least 2000 feet (or 1500 feet in some cases) above all obstacles within 5 miles of track as specified for the designated mountainous regions in FLIPs.

  • At 402 Sqn you’ll use the VNC to determine the highest obstacle within 5nm of track.

Minimum En-Route altitude - (MEA)

Minimum Obstacle Clearance Altitude - (MOCA)

In some instances the AMA can be used as well

104
Q

IFR - Fuel Requirements

A

Chap 3, para 11, 12:

    1. The minimum fuel requirements for IFR flights requiring a designated alternate aerodrome shall be sufficient for:
      * a propeller-driven aircraft to fly to the destination, fly to the alternate, hold for 45 minutes and then complete an approach;
    1. The minimum fuel requirement for IFR flights that do not require an alternate aerodrome shall be sufficient for:
      * a propeller-driven aircraft to fly to the destination, hold for 45 minutes and then complete an approach;

  • The amount of fuel for the hold is the same for each flight on the CT-142 due to the fact that the hold is flown at endurance power settings. (600 lbs)
  • 200lbs is the accepted number for planning IFR approaches on the CT-142.
  • Destination fuel and alternate fuel will be different depending on the mission.
105
Q

IFR - Aerodrome Considerations

A

Three airfields are considered when planning an IFR flight:
* Departure aerodrome
* Destination aerodrome
* Alternate aerodrome

Primary Considerations:
* Instrument approaches available (precision/non-precision)
* Approach weather requirements (landing/alternate minima)

The purpose of an instrument approach is to permit an aircraft to transition from the en route phase of flight to a position from which a visual landing may be made in IMC.

106
Q

IFR - Aerodrome Approach Considerations

A

The purpose of an instrument approach is to permit an aircraft to transition from the en route phase of flight to a position from which a visual landing may be made in IMC.

Types of approaches:
1. Precision – azimuth & glide path guidance
* ILS, PAR, LPV Cat 1

  1. Non-precision – azimuth guidance only
    • LPV, LNAV/VNAV, LNAV, LOC, LOC(BC), TACAN, VOR/DME, NDB/DME, NDB, VOR

*LPV and LNAV/VNAV also give vertical guidance

107
Q

IFR Departure Aerodrome / Take-off Minima

A

Chap 8, para 24:

Take-offs are not permitted unless:
* Departure procedures and flight profiles IAW FLIPs have been considered;

  • Visibility and ceiling requirements have been considered;
  • Climb gradients > 200’/nm considerations;
  • Aircraft performance requirements;
  • Weather at departure aerodrome is above landing minima for a usable approach, otherwise a take-off alternate is required.
108
Q

IFR - Take-off Alternate

A
  1. FOM 2.3.5.2 – Take-off Alternate
  • The aircraft must be able to meet the required climb gradient to the minimum enroute IFR altitude with one engine out;
  • The take-off alternate aerodrome must be a suitable aerodrome;
  • Weather at the take-off alternate must be at or above alternate minima at ETA plus 1 hour;
  • The take-off alternate aerodrome can’t be more than 1 hour of flight time on one engine (for the CT-142 that’s about 160nm);
  • The take-off alternate aerodrome must be indicated on the flight plan.
  1. FOM 2.3.5.2 – Take-off Alternate
    * With all of the preceding conditions met take-off is permitted with visibility as low as:
    • 1/4 sm (RVR 1200) without centre-line lighting;
    • 1/8 sm (RVR 600) with centre-line lighting.
109
Q

IFR - Destination Aerodrome

A
  1. Chap 8, para 16:
  • The destination aerodrome must be served by a published instrument approach which is capable of being conducted with equipment onboard the aircraft.
  • This does not prohibit filing IFR to a point en route where VFR conditions are forecast to exist at the time of arrival or to a point served by a published approach procedure from which a descent to VFR conditions can be made, thence VFR to destination.
  1. Published approach as outlined in Chap 8, para 16:
  • Any procedure published in FLIP’s;
  • Any radar procedure for which ASR/PAR minima are published in FLIPs, provided that a positive aircraft position can be established within 25 nm of terminal radar;
  • A procedure not published in FLIPs but for which an operational requirement exists and the use of that procedure is approved by the Commander 1 Cdn Air Div.

Surveillance Approach Radar - (ASR)
Precision Approach Radar - (PAR)

110
Q

*

Published Approach Precedence

A

The order of precedence (no longer in effect) of FLIPs is:

  • DND (Canada)
  • Nav Canada (a.k.a. Canada Air Pilot CAP)
  • DoD (United States)
  • National Military
  • National Civil
  • Jeppesen
  • RIP (Restricted Inst. Procedures a.k.a. RCAP) (pvt)
111
Q

Alternate Aerodrome Requirement

A
  1. What is an alternate aerodrome?
    An aerodrome to which an aircraft may proceed when it becomes either impossible or inadvisable to proceed to or to land at the aerodrome of intended destination.
  2. When do you need an alternate aerodrome?
    * Chap 8, para 32:
  • An alternate aerodrome shall be designated for IFR flights when the weather is below the limits specified in Para 30 or 31 of this chapter as appropriate. In addition, an alternate shall be designated for all IFR flights to a radar-only or GNSS-only destination regardless of the forecast weather or the time enroute.
  1. When does an IFR flight plan NOT need an alternate?
    * Chap 8, para 30:
  • IFR flights 3 hrs or less when the lowest ceiling and visibility forecast for duration of flight and for 1 hour after ETA are 3000’ and 3 sm.
  • Local flights where Commander 1 Cdn Air Div has set appropriate weather minima. They shall be no lower than 2000’ and 3 sm.
  • Operational necessity dictates the use of a remote destination for which the designation of an alternate is either impossible or impracticable. Commander 1 Cdn Air Div must establish appropriate substitute weather criteria and operational procedures.

You will always require an alternate for IFR flights at 402 SQN

112
Q

IFR - Destination Weather Requirements

A
  • When flying IFR, with an alternate, there are no minimum weather requirements for the destination
  • When flying IFR, without an alternate, weather at destination must be:
    • Ceiling 3000 ft and 3 miles vis (fixed wing) for duration of flight (3 hrs or less) plus 1 hour after ETA
113
Q

Height Above Aerodrome (HAA)

A

The height in feet of the minimum descent altitude (MDA) above the published aerodrome elevation.

114
Q

Height Above Touchdown (HAT)

A

The height in feet of the decision height (DH) or minimum descent altitude (MDA) above the touchdown zone elevation (TDZE).

HAT is published in conjunction with a straight-in approaches.

115
Q

Determining Ceiling

A

For HAA/HAT figures given in less than 100’ increments, the required ceiling is rounded as follows:

  • 00-20’ Use Nearest 100’ eg. 220’ = 200’
  • 21-99’ Round up to next 100’ eg. 221’ = 300’
116
Q

Alternate - No Publish Approach Procedure

A

Forecast weather for the ETA must permit a visual descent from the IFR minimum enroute altitude (MEA) and a VFR approach and landing.

Alternate ETA Calculation:
* ETD + Time to Dest + Time to alternate = ETA @ Alt
* Eg. 1200 Z + 2 hrs 30 mins + 30 mins = 1500Z

117
Q

Alternate - Published Non-Precision Approach

A
  • Ceiling: 800’ or 300’ above lowest useable HAA/HAT for the landing runway, whichever is higher.
  • Visibility: 2 sm or 1 sm above the lowest usable published visibility for the runway, whichever is higher.
118
Q

Alternate - 1 Published Precision Approach

A
  • Ceiling: 600’ or 300’ above lowest useable HAT for the landing runway, whichever is higher.
  • Visibility: 2 sm or 1 sm above the lowest published visibility for the landing runway, whichever is higher.
119
Q

Alternate - 2 or More Useable Precision Approaches

A
  • Each using separate precision approach facilities. Each providing straight in minima to separate suitable runways (opposite ends of the same runway do not count)
  • Ceiling: 400’ or 200’ above lowest useable HAT for the landing runway, whichever is higher.
  • Visibility: 1 sm or 1/2 sm above the lowest published visibility for the runway, whichever is higher.
120
Q

RNAV Planning Requirements

A

An alternate shall be designated for all IFR flights to a radar-only or GNSS-only destination, regardless of forecast or the time enroute

When selecting an IFR alternate, the following criteria must be met:

  • An approach which is completely independent of GNSS, is available at the ETA for either the planned destination or planned alternate;
  • Where an RNAV approach is planned at both the destination and alternate, the aerodromes are separated by a minimum of:
    • (a) 75 NM where both aerodromes are in Nunavut; or,
    • (b) 75 NM where both aerodromes are north of 56 degrees latitude in Quebec and Labrador; or,
    • (c) 100 NM where either or both aerodromes are located anywhere else in Canada

Published LNAV minima, (or published LNAV/VNAV minima for LNAV/VNAV approved aircraft) are the lowest landing limits considered available when computing alternate landing limits. No credit can be taken for LP or LPV minima

The pilot-in-command (PIC) ensures that LNAV approach-level RAIM or WAAS integrity will be available at the planned alternate aerodrome at the ETA by taking into account predicted satellite outages using the appropriate GNSS NOTAM file for a period of 1 hr before and after the planned alternate ETA. No more than one satellite outage can be predicted during that period unless RAIM prediction can be accomplished by using a dispatch RAIM prediction software;

For TSO C129/C129a avionics, periodically during the flight, and at least once before the mid-point of the flight to the destination, the PIC confirms that the approach-level RAIM will be available at the planned alternate ETA +/- 15 min.

121
Q

TAF Interpretation - BECMG

A

Ch 8, para 17

BECMG
* Conditions forecast to improve shall only be considered applicable as of the END of the BECMG time

  • Conditions forecast to deteriorate shall be considered applicable as of the START of the BECMG time

DESTINATION: Conditions shall not be lower than the destination weather minima

ALTERNATE: Conditions or those previous which remain unchanged shall not be lower than the alternate minima requirements for that aerodrome.

122
Q

TAF Interpretation - TEMPO

A

The forecast condition shall not be below:

DESTINATION: TEMPO period shall not below destination weather minima in Para 29, otherwise an alternate is required;

ALTERNATE: TEMPO period shall not below alternate minima requirements for that aerodrome.

123
Q

TAF Interpretation - PROB

A

The forecast condition shall not be below:

DESTINATION: PROB period not be below destination weather minima, otherwise an alternate is required;

ALTERNATE: PROB period not below the published landing minima for the usable landing runway at the alternate aerodrome.

124
Q

GFA Interpretation

A

Ch8. Para 35

For an aerodrome with no TAF to qualify as an alternate or take-off alternate, the lowest ceiling and visibility, based upon a valid Graphic Area Forecast (GFA) for the ETA, must be as follows:

  • a. ceiling – Whichever is highest of the following:
    • 1 500 AGL;
    • 1 000 feet above the highest published straight-in MDA HAT for the approach flown where no circling minima are published, regardless of aircraft category; or
    • 1 000 feet above the highest published circling HAA for the approach flown when circling minima are published, regardless of aircraft category
  • b. visibility - 3 miles (4 800 meters).
125
Q

Approach and Landing - Weather

A

Upon arrival over the destination facility, the pilot of an aircraft shall proceed directly to the alternate unless local weather conditions indicate that a landing can be assured. If sufficient fuel is available, the pilot may complete an approach or approaches and then proceed to the alternate with min fuel specified in BGA-100 Chap 3, para 11.

126
Q

NOTAMS (ICAO Format)

A

NOtice To AirMen

GPH 204A Art 434
* A notice containing information concerning the establishment, condition or change in any aeronautical facility, service, procedure or hazard, the timely knowledge of which is essential to personnel concerned with flight operations.

  • Also used as a means of advertising temporary changes to the information on aeronautical charts or in the aeronautical information publications.

NOTAMS are now retrieved through
https://plan.navcanada.ca

  • Transition to ICAO NOTAM format and new NOTAM Series - changes effective October 10, 2019
  • Students shall update approach plates when NOTAMS amend any approach they may use.
127
Q

NOTAMS - Q Line

A

The Q line approach under the new ICAO NOTAM format is meant to reduce the amount of NOTAMS aircrew have to go through as well as show NOTAMS in FIR that intersect your route.

This reduces the need to go through the entire FIR.

128
Q

NOTAMS - ICAO Format Example

A
129
Q

ATIS - Automatic Terminal Information System

A
  • Continuous recording that provides aerodrome info to arriving/departing aircraft
  • Each recording is identified by a phonetic alphabet code, usually updated every hour, or more often if required
  • Reduces frequency congestion by automating the repetitive transmission of essential but routine information
  • Pilots should obtain the latest ATIS before contacting ATC
  • Students are required to obtain ATIS prior to showtime

NOTE: winds in ATIS are in MAG

GPH 204A Art 503

Example:

“This is Winnipeg International Information Golf. Weather taken at 1600 Zulu, wind 330 at 15 gusting 25, sky condition 300 scattered, 1000 broken, 5000 overcast. Visibility 2 miles in light rain. Temperature 15, dew point 14, altimeter 29.96. The IFR approach is ILS Z runway 36, landing runway 36, departing runway 31. Notice to Airmen, taxiway alpha closed for repairs. Inform Winnipeg ATC on initial contact that you have information Golf.”

130
Q

ATC Services

A
  • “ATC is a service provided to maintain a safe & expeditious flow of air traffic. This service is mainly accomplished by means of clearances & instructions issued to pilots by ATC agencies & is predicated on known air traffic only. Therefore, when complying with clearances or instructions, pilots are not relieved of the responsibility for practicing good airmanship.”
    B-GA-100 book 1 ch 5 pg 5-3
  • If a pilot is issued a clearance that is not acceptable to the pilot, he must verbalize his intentions to ATC
  • It is your responsibility as Aircrew to alert the pilot if he accepts a clearance that will jeopardize the aircraft.
  • The aerodrome chart will outline frequencies for each agency in order of use for departure
  • Frequencies are also at the top of each approach page
131
Q

Clearance Delivery

A
  • “Clearance shall be obtained before take-off from any point within controlled airspace or before entering controlled airspace for flight under IFR”
  • CLEARANCE DELIVERY (when provided) is the ATC sub-unit responsible for providing this IFR clearance. Otherwise GROUND CONTROL at smaller aerodromes fulfill this role.
  • At 402, we talk to CLEARANCE DELIVERY as part of the Pre-Start Check.
  • Normally, the clearance we receive should be the same as we requested with the exception of the squawk and any possible departure restrictions.
  • If the clearance includes a Standard Instrument Departure (SID), then only the squawk need be read back. If there is an amended SID altitude then the new altitude must be read back.
  • If the clearance is unacceptable due to climb gradient, obstacle etc, it is the pilots responsibility to advise ATC and to request an amended clearance.
  • When the clearance is accepted (meaning it has been read back by the pilot) CLNC DEL will pass all information to Ground, Tower, Centre etc.
132
Q

Ground Control

A
  • Any movement of an aircraft or vehicle on an aerodrome requires clearance.
  • GROUND is the ATC sub-unit responsible for issuing these clearances
  • The ground controller is in charge of all taxiways up to a point 200 feet short of active runway.
  • We make our request to taxi, letting the controller know that we have the latest ATIS
  • Under no circumstances may a taxiing aircraft, whether proceeding to or from the active runway, taxi onto an active runway unless specifically authorized to do so.
  • Upon receipt of a normal taxi authorization, a pilot is expected to proceed to the taxi-holding position for the runway assigned for takeoff. If the pilot is required to cross ANY runway while taxing towards the departure runway, the ground controller will issue a specific instruction to cross or hold short. If a specific authorization to cross was not received, pilots shall hold short and request authorization to cross the runway.
  • Taxi and hold short clearances MUST be read back. Altimeter is info only.
  • The terminal flight progress strip is now passed to the appropriate enroute sector, enabling the controllers to look at the traffic situation and determine what action will be necessary to safely fit you into the flow.
133
Q

Tower Control

A
  • In order for an aircraft to enter a runway, take-off or land, it must receive a clearance
  • TOWER is the ATC sub-unit that is responsible for providing these clearances
  • Tower controls all runways and the Control Zone.
  • Typically switch to Tower frequency just prior to reaching 200ft short of active runway
  • Tower will pass departure instructions to the pilot
  • Normally the handover between Tower and Departure occurs after takeoff
134
Q

Departure

A
  • After an aircraft has departed an aerodrome IFR but is still within the TCA (Terminal Control Area) it requires positive control
  • DEPARTURE is the ATC sub-unit responsible for this departure phase of flight
  • Check in on the departure frequency is normally done after post takeoff checks are complete
  • Normally this is not done below 400ft AGL
  • Continue to fly the departure (either the SID or other instructions)
135
Q

Centre

A
  • Outside of the TCA and in controlled airspace, all IFR aircraft must be controlled, whether by radar or procedures.
  • CENTRE is the ATC sub-unit responsible for this control.
  • This phase is considered to begin when Terminal TCA (DEP normally 35nm and or 12,500ft) hands us over to Centre (the FIR in which we are flying (your PAL)).
  • You check in with your present altitude and last altitude cleared to.
  • Advise ATC when you have reached your cruising altitude.
  • If a position report is required, the format is on the back of the GPH 205.
  • When you are radar identified, this implies that position reports are no longer required.
  • Once radar service has been terminated, we come under procedural control and are given wider separation between aircraft.
  • While en route, IFR in controlled airspace, you must have a clearance for all altitude and direction changes.
  • IFR services provided by ATC while en route:
    • Aircraft separation
    • Conflicting traffic information
    • Weather warnings
    • Clearances, etc.
  • Each time you cross an Flight Information Region (FIR) boundary, you need to check with the previous FIR ATC, and check in with the new FIR ATC.
  • Check on the GPH 206/GPH 207 to see the FIR boundaries

PAL: Peripheral Station

136
Q

Flight Information & Advisory Services

A

In Canada, Flight Info Services are provided by facilities operated by Nav Canada and DND.

  • Flight Information Centre (FIC)
  • Flight Service Stations (FSS)
  • Remote Communication Outlets (RCO)
  • Dial-up Remote Communication Outlet (DRCO)
  • Peripheral Station (PAL)
  • Military Flight Advisory Service (MFAU)

READ GPH 204A Article 115, 116 and 117!

It provides an excellent explanation of these facilities which you will be using throughout the entire course.

137
Q

Flight Information Centre (FIC)

A
  • Are established at various locations across Canada.
  • Provide preflight planning services:
    • Wx (incl satellite & radar imagery)
    • NOTAMs
    • Receive flight plans for filing
  • Provide Flight Information Services Enroute (FISE)
    • METARs, TAFs, SIGMETs, PIREPs, etc.
    • NOTAMs, RSC, CRFI etc.
    • Relay comms with ATC

When you file a flight plan, you are sending it to the FIC. The FIC collects the flight plans, and will alert RCC if an aircraft is ovedue.

See GPH204A Chap 1, Art 116, GPH205 p. A89 for more information.

138
Q

Flight Service Station

A
  • Are established at selected aerodromes across Canada.
  • Provide Airport Advisory Services (AAS):
    • Active Rwy
    • W/V
    • Air traffic advisory
    • Rwy vehicle traffic advisory
    • Aerodrome conditions (RSC, CRFI, etc.)
    • Wx conditions
    • Other pertinent info

These services are primarily intended for the arrival and departure phases of a flight to an aerodrome w/in an MF area, and for transit through an MF area served by an FSS.

FSS stations are located on the low charts by a solid black line (solid green, too).

IMPORTANT: A good airmanship point. Some FSS, RCOs and DRCOs (FISE flight Information Service enroute)) are on either 126.7 or the MF for an aerodrome. They are legal to use, but if requesting weather - would prohibit their use for someone conducting a Blind broadcast or conducting an approach.

Example: Brandon FSS and MF are on same freq (122.1)

Good airmanship dictates that you should find a better frequency that would not interfere with other aircraft conducting an approach into Brandon. Always verify your frequency choice in the GPH 205 prior to using. Select a frequency that would cause the least amount of interference.

139
Q

Remote Communications Outlets

A

Remote VHF transmitters / receivers.
* Established where difficult communications prevail or where an extended communications capability is necessary.
* Enable FSS to provide Remote Aerodrome Advisory Service (RAAS) for aerodromes located w/in an MF area.
* Enable FIC to provide FISE on a FISE frequency.

When communicating, be sure to advise the station via which RCO you are calling them.

  • FSS and FISE freqs are VHF, which means line-of-sight. As you fly away from the location of an FSS or FIC, you fly over the horizon and can no longer maintain LOS contact with the agency.
  • To facilitate communications and provide services in remote areas and FSS or FIC may use an RCO.

Since the only FIC is in Edmonton, and VHF comms are restricted to LOS only, obviously you need a means to relay your VHF comms to be able to contact them.

Therefore, Remote Communication Outlets are set up so that you can contact Edmonton Radio at these locations.

140
Q

Dial-up Remote Communications Outlets
(DRCO’s)

A

DRCOs are the same as an RCO but have a dialup unit installed. The line is “opened” or “activated” by the aircraft in-flight or by the FIC (for advisory broadcasts).

  1. Select the DRCO frequency
  2. Key the mic externally on the DRCO freq 4 times
  3. Listen to & follow automated instructions (…”confirm by keying mic once” etc.)
  4. Transmit your communications using usual radio procedure format.
    Notes:
    * Rate of mic keying is ¼ second tx with 1 sec pause, repeat 4 times.
    * Keying your mic too slowly or too quickly will not activate the system
141
Q

Peripheral Stations (PAL)

A
  • Unstaffed VHF/UHF transmitter/receiver established in remote locations to facilitate direct contact between aircraft and controlling agencies.
  • Differ from RCOs and DRCOs in that the unit you are talking to is an air traffic controller vice FSS or FIC specialists.
  • Ex: Contact c/s WINNIPEG CENTER on PAL freq 135.150 while flying near Big Trout Lake.
142
Q

Military Flight Advisory Units

A
  • GPH 204A Art 118
  • Functions similar to an FSS at military aerodromes where VFR control is not warranted
  • Unlike an FSS, an MFAU does provide positive ground control. Maneuvering on the airfield requires clearance.
  • They are addressed as “Advisory” – e.g. Shearwater Advisory
  • MFAUs are at most DND Heliports (CFBs Edmonton, Petawawa, Valcartier, Shearwater, and Gagetown)
  • Some DND Control Towers become MFAUs during off-hours (CFBs Comox, Cold Lake, Trenton, Bagotville, Greenwood)
143
Q

Arrival

A
  • As an aircraft enters an aerodrome’s TCA it will require positive control to the approach
  • ARRIVAL is the ATC sub-unit responsible for this stage of flight
  • The arrival phase is considered to begin when we are within the TCA (ARR is normally 35nm and/or 12,500ft)
  • Prior to commencing arrival procedures, you should first listen to ATIS to receive the current information for your destination. Initial descent may also be requested from Center (PAL)
  • You check in with your present altitude and last altitude cleared to. You may also include the latest ATIS information that you have
  • Inform Arrival if you are planning to do an approach that is different from the ATIS
  • The arrival phase may be flown via a STAR or vectors from Arrival
  • At the appropriate time, Arrival will hand you over to Tower (normally 12 nm and below 3,000 ft)
144
Q

ADIZ - Air Defence Identification Zone

A

An area of airspace over land or water extending upward from the surface within which the ready identification, location, and control of aircraft are required in the interest of national security.

145
Q

ADIZ - Requirements to Operate

A

Operation not permitted in ADIZ unless:

  • Aircraft is equipped with a 2-way radio
  • A listening watch is maintained on a freq that will permit receipt of instructions pursuant to the Security Control of Air Traffic Regulations.
  • Require an IFR flight plan, DVFR flight plan, or Defense Flight Itinerary

Ref: GPH 204A Chapter 10 Art 1002. 2.

146
Q

ADIZ - Prior to Penetration

A

Prior to ADIZ Penetration with facilities for flight planning:

  1. File an IFR flight plan, DVFR flight plan or a defence flight itinerary with ATC or operations centre;
  2. Include the time and place of ADIZ penetration;
  3. Contact ATC ASAP airborne and pass a position report including ETA ADIZ; and,
  4. Advise change in position or time of penetration.
    * Items b, c, d are not required if IFR flight plan filed.

Note that filing an IFR flight plan removes the requirement to file penetration point, ETA, and to pass specific position reports when airborne. These functions are still carried out but they are carried out by communication between ATC and Air Defence forces. A military operations centre can also perform this function

147
Q

ADIZ - Departures from within

A

Departures from within the ADIZ:

  • File an IFR flight plan, DVFR flight plan or a defence flight itinerary with ATC or operations centre;
  • As soon as possible after airborne establish comms with ATC.

Ref: GPH 204A Chapter 10 Art 1003. 1.

148
Q

ADIZ - DVFR / Defense Flight Itinerary

A

If filing a flight plan for flight under VFR, indicate that it is a defence itinerary or flight plan by inserting the following:

  • RMK / D PADRA (Defence VFR Flight Plan)
  • RMK / E PADRA (DEFENCE FLIGHT ITINERARY)
  • PADRA – Pass flight plan to Air Defence Radar.
149
Q

ADIZ - Departures with no Flight Plan

A

Departures when unable to file a flight plan:

  • As soon as possible after airborne establish comms with ATC and submit an IFR flight plan, DVFR flight plan or defense flight itinerary;
  • Provide ATC estimated time and place of ADIZ penetration if applicable.

Ref: GPH 204A Chapter 10 Art 1003. 1.

150
Q

ADIZ - Tolerances

A

Revisions shall be passed if aircraft will not be within:

  1. Time Tolerance +/- 5 minutes for the time over:
    * A reporting point,
    * ADIZ penetration point,
    * Destination within ADIZ
  2. Distance Tolerance - 20 nautical miles from:
    * Estimated ADIZ penetration point,
    * Centre line of flight as indicated on flight plan.

The pilot-in-command of an aircraft shall revise his estimate with an appropriate ATC or Operations Centre when the aircraft will not be within: Time Tolerance and/or Distance Tolerance

Ref: GPH 204 Chapter 10 Art 1003. 4.

151
Q

ADIZ - Deviations

A

No deviation is permitted unless:

  • Prior notification is given to the ATC unit or Operations Centre responsible.
  • Where prior notification is not possible, the deviation is reported to the ATC unit or Operations Centre responsible for the flight as soon as practicable.

Ref: GPH 204A Chapter 10 Art 1002. 2.

151
Q

ADIZ - Challenge / Intercept

A

Expect to be challenged by Air Defence Forces.
“UNKNOWN RIDER AT Px ____N _____W
THIS IS SIDECAR ON GUARD
AUTHENTICATE _____”

A correct transponder setting and these procedures should prevent this. Otherwise an airborne interception for visual ID may follow.

Note: Air Defence Forces (NORAD) will challenge aircraft which are detected and not identified.

If you are carrying the correct codes you may respond to this authentication in order to identify yourself. If your Mode IV transponder is correctly coded, the Air Defence site should not challenge you in the first place.

152
Q

ESCAT - Emergency Security Control of Air Traffic

A

Emergency Security Control of Air Traffic

  • Provides security control of civil and military air traffic to ensure effective use of airspace when an air defence emergency or any situation involving aerial activities that threatens national security or vital Canadian interests is declared by the appropriate authority.
  • The rules apply to all Canadian airspace.
  • Under the direction of the National Defence Command Centre (NDCC), Commander of Canadian NORAD Region (CANR) is responsible for implementing and testing ESCAT Plan through NAV CANADA ACCs.
  • Periodic testing may be conducted without any prior notice.

Ref: GPH 204A Chapter 10 Art 1004.

153
Q

ESCAT - When in Effect

Emergency Security Control of Air Traffic

A

When in effect, pilots shall:

  • Before Take-off, obtain approval for the flight from the appropriate ATC unit or FSS;
  • Comply with any instruction to land or to change course or altitude that is received from the appropriate ATC unit or FSS; and
  • Make position reports as required:
    • When operating within controlled airspace, or as required; and
    • When operating outside controlled airspace, at least every 30 min.

Ref: GPH 204A Chapter 10 Art 1004. 4.

154
Q

ESCAT - EATPL Emergency Air Traffic Priority List

Emergency Security Control of Air Traffic

A

Emergency Air Traffic Priority List

  • Used to establish a process for the movement of air traffic when ESCAT has been implemented;
  • Primary means of controlling the volume of air traffic;
  • Shall commence upon implementation of ESCAT Phase Two;
  • 8 Priority Levels (1 having highest priority, 8 the lowest);
  • A complete listing of priorities is available in the GPH 204;

Ref: GPH 204A Chapter 10 Art 1004. 7 & 8.

155
Q

ESCAT - Phases

Emergency Security Control of Air Traffic

A

To facilitate smooth transition from normal peacetime identification and control procedures to more restrictive identification and control procedures

  • Phase One – all aircraft in designated areas to file IFR/DVFR flight plans in accordance with GPH 204A;
  • Phase Two - Comd CANR restricts aircraft movement within designated areas through implementation of the ESCAT Air Traffic Priority List (EATPL) and Security Control Authorization (SCA).
156
Q

Aircraft Movement Surface Condition Reports (CRFI/RSC)

A
  • NOTAMS on Aircraft Movement Surface Condition
  • Reports are issued to alert aircrew to natural surface contaminants, such as snow, ice, slush, that could affect aircraft braking performance.
  • The RSC section of the report provides runway surface information describing the runway condition in plain language, while the CRFI section describes braking action quantitatively using a numerical format.
157
Q

Runway Surface Condition (RSC)

A

Plain language description of the condition of the runway surface.

158
Q

Runway Condition Code (RWYCC)

A

Expected braking capability as a function of the surface conditions on a scale of 0 to 6, where 0 indicates the most slippery conditions and 6 indicates dry runway performance. Reported in runway thirds.

The Runway Condition Assessment Matrix (RCAM) is the method by which the airport or aerodrome operator determines a preliminary Runway Condition Code (RWYCC) for each runway third, whenever water, snow, slush, ice or frost is present on the runway surface.

The RCAM applies only to paved (asphalt and concrete) runway surfaces, not unpaved or partially paved surfaces.

When runway condition information is reported in thirds a RWYCC is to be reported. Conversely, if the runway condition information is not entered for each runway third, then the RWYCC will not be reported.

159
Q

Canadian Runway Friction Index (CRFI)

A
  • An index that provides a quantitative indication of surface friction on aerodrome runways.
  • A decelerometer is mounted on a test vehicle and used to measure braking action.
  • Performance adjustment is based on a low drag aircraft without reverse thrust. Adjustments will be conservative for aircraft with reverse thrust.
  • With many smaller airports, equipment is not available to measure a CRFI. In these cases, the RSC information can be applied to the RSC and CRFI Equivalent chart to come up with an approximate CRFI.

The vehicle is braked along the runway centre line and 30 feet either side of the centre line at 1,000 foot intervals. The CRFI numbers are recorded and then averaged to the nearest 2 decimal points. The average reading for the runway is published.

CRFI measurements will always fall within the range of 0-1 with 0 being no braking action and 1 being the maximum possible on dry concrete.

160
Q

RSC / CRFI / RWYCC

A

NOTAM is issued when any of these conditions exist:

  • There is frost, snow, slush or ice on a runway;
  • There are snow banks, drifts or windrows on or adjacent to a runway;
  • Sand, aggregate material, anti-icing or de-icing chemicals are applied to a runway;
  • The cleared runway width falls below published width;
  • The runway lights are obscured or partially obscured by contaminants; or
  • There is a significant change in runway surface conditions including a return to bare and dry conditions.

CRFI are accurate for packed snow or ice conditions

CRFI not valid for wet or slush covered runways

RSC and CRFI reports are issued to inform pilots of natural surface contaminants which could affect aircraft braking performance (snow,ice).

161
Q

RSC - NOTAM Example

A
162
Q

Calculation and Application of CRFI

A
  1. Part One - Determine CRFI
  • Determine the angle between the wind and the runway heading
    • Note: remember to have both in the same units (True or Mag)
  • Use Table 3 – Crosswind and CRFI Chart to determine minimum CRFI
  • Compare reported CRFI to minimum CRFI
  • Reported CRFI needs to be greater than minimum CRFI
  1. Part Two - Determine Landing Distance Required
  • Used AFM for CT-142 landing distance requirements

Use Table 1 “CRFI Recommended Landing Distance” to determine minimum runway length (can also look in AFM for more accurate numbers).

CT-142 – 3000’ landing distance is the average used. However, on 2 engines can be done in 1500’. On one engine, 1800’

163
Q

Checklist Introduction

A
  • All aircraft on which you fly will have a checklist
  • Checklists shall be used for the accomplishment of routine and emergency tasks. The checklist is a quick reference guide to normal operating, abnormal operating, and emergency procedures.
  • There are two types of checks:
  • NON CHALLENGE
    • Read from the checklist and executed.
  • CHALLENGE/RESPONSE
    • Read by one member of the crew and the correct response is made by another crewmember when the action is done or verified.

The checklist does not relieve aircrew from the responsibility of a thorough knowledge and application of the information contained in the following documents:

C-12-142-000/MB-000 - Aircraft Operating Data (AOD)
C-12-142-000/MB-001 - Aircraft Flight Manual (AFM)
C-12-142-000/MB-002 – CT-142 Standard Manoeuvre manual
C-12-142-0T0/MB-002 - NTS Operators Manual

164
Q

What is an emergency?

A
  1. B-GA-100 Book 1 Glossary
    An unusual occurrence or situation that involves or is likely to involve danger
  2. Directorate of Flight Safety
    A situation which requires the use of procedures different from routine operating procedures

Emergency procedures are designed to minimize the risk to the aircraft and/or the crew

165
Q

Emergency / Abnormal Procedures

A

All actions of the cabin crew during emergencies will be conducted under the direction of the Training Mission Commander (TMC).

All crewmembers shall be prepared to carry out personal emergency actions and to follow direction from the TMC without delay.

166
Q

Distress

A
  • A condition in which the aircraft or its crew is in grave and immediate danger and require immediate assistance.
  • Proword MAYDAY

The key phrase in this definition is “Grave and Immediate Danger”. From our checklist, distress situations would include:

  • Ditching
  • Uncontrolled Fire
167
Q

Urgency

A

A condition concerning the safety of an aircraft or its crew which does not require immediate assistance.

Proword PAN PAN

This is a situation which requires the use of emergency procedures but where the crew and aircraft are not in “Grave and Immediate Danger”. From our checklist, distress situations would include:

  • Single Engine Failure
  • Loss of Cabin Pressure
  • Hydraulic Failures
  • Electrical Failures
  • Injury to crewmember
  • Physiological Incident
168
Q

Practice Emergencies

A

Basic Phase

Students will be responsible for direction of the cabin crew’s activities, carry out personal emergency actions and additional duties to assist the TMC/AC in rectifying the emergency

169
Q

Passenger Briefing

A

B-GA-100 requirement

Briefing shall include but need not be limited to:

  • Emergency procedures
  • Use/location and operation of safety equipment
  • Any precautions and/or restrictions to be observed

B-GA-100 says so! (Book 1 Ch 3 Para 29)

Before commencing the assigned flight, the aircraft commander shall ensure that all passengers are briefed regarding the proposed flight. Verbal briefings may be supplemented by printed information guides.

170
Q

CT-142 Standard Manoeuvre Manual (SMM) Intro

A
  • Standard Manoeuvre Manual for all Aircrew
  • Provides common ground for effective communications between crewmembers who may not be familiar with other’s experience and capabilities
  • Standardization is a powerful tool used to operate efficiently and prevent accidents
  • SMM supplement higher level order such as BGA100, 1 Cdn Air Div Orders, AOD, etc.

SMM Supplements the following Pubs:
1. Aircraft Flight Manual
2. Aircraft Operation Data
3. National Defence Flying orders
4. 1 Cdn Air Div Orders
5. 17 Wing Flying orders
6. 402 Sqn Flying orders
7. CT142 Pilot Checklist

171
Q

CT-142 SMM - Definitions

A

Raw Data – no automation is employed; the aircraft is hand-flown. This level of automation is desirable when immediate, direct control of the aircraft flight path is required.

Guided Manual – the aircraft is hand-flown with flight director guidance.

Directed Automatic - the aircraft is flown with the autopilot engaged. The flight crew manually controls the aircraft through AP/FD and FMS interfaces.

GPWS - Ground Proximity Warning System.

AMRS - Aircraft Maintenance Record Set.

CFIT - Controlled Flight Into Terrain.

172
Q

Crew Positions

A
  • Aircraft Commander (AC) – Has command of the aircraft, crew and all persons on board. Responds as “AC”.
    NOTE: The AC only responds as “AC” if required. For most routine communications “Pilot” or “Co-pilot” is appropriate.
  • First Officer (FO) – second in command.
  • Training Mission Commander (TMC) - ACSO Instructor responsible for the control of training aspects of the mission. Responds as “TMC”.
  • Lead NAV (ACSO) – The ACSO with delegated responsibility for aircraft navigation. Responds as “LEAD”.
  • TACCO – During the Tactics Phase of the ACSO Course, the Lead ACSO student. Responds as “TACCO”.
  • SENSO - During the Tactics Phase of the ACSO Course, the ACSO student with responsibility for all non-ATC communications and non-tactical navigation. Responds as “SENSO”.
173
Q

Flying Designations

A

CT-142 pilots may have control from either seat. Designations are as follows:

  • Pilot (or Pilot Flying - PF) - Pilot flying the aircraft. Responds as “Pilot” regardless of seat position. Note that the term “pilot” and “pilot flying” are interchangeable.
  • Co-pilot (or Pilot Not Flying - PNF) - Pilot monitoring the pilot flying. Responds as “Co-pilot” regardless of seat position.
174
Q

Aircraft Navigation

A
  • There shall be a clear understanding of who is navigatingthe aircraft at all times.
  • When the ACSO is ready to assume navigation he/she will say: “Pilot, TMC/LeadNav/TACCO/SENSO is ready to assume navigation.”
  • Pilots will respond: “TMC/Lead Nav/ TACCO/SENSO, you have the navigation.”
  • When Training exercise is complete Pilot will say: “TMC/Lead Nav/TACCO/SENSO, I have the navigation.”
175
Q

Management of Crew - A/C

A

All crew members are under Command of the AC
AC is responsible for :
* Crew Management and tasking
* Ensuring that ATC clearances are followed

All crew members are required to advise the AC of any deviations from ATC clearances or briefed/standard procedures at an appropriate time.

176
Q

Management of Crew - Pilot Monitoring

A

The Pilot Not Flying (PNF) / Pilot Monitoring (PM) is normally responsible for:

  • Communications, Checklists, Monitoring aircraft systems
  • Maintaining a lookout.
  • The PM must also be prepared to immediately take control of the aircraft in the event of pilot incapacitation

The TMC is normally delegated control of the Cabin and must maintain good communications with the AC

177
Q

Flight Monitoring

A

Monitoring of the aircraft flight parameters to prevent:

  • CFIT (Controlled Flight Into Terrain)
  • Airspace violations.
  • Level 1 – Pilot monitoring
  • Level 2 – Automation
  • Level 3 – ACSO/AES Op

Levels of formal flight monitoring are:

Level 1 - Pilot Flying and Pilot Not Flying. The PNF is the primary means of monitoring the PF’s control of the aircraft. The PNF must make calls in accordance with Annex 1A. If the autopilot is engaged, the PF monitors the autopilot while the PNF monitors the autopilot and FGC selections.

ii. Level 2 -Automation. Automated warnings are provided by the GPWS, the Flight Guidance Computer (excessive deviation), and the Altitude Alert, and must be responded to in accordance with Annex 1A. In VMC conditions, warnings, which are obviously false, must be acknowledged so that all crew are aware of the PF’s intentions which may include continuing the flight path which caused the warning.

iii. Level 3 - ACSO/AES Op. The Air Combat Systems Officer or AES Op provides the next level of flight monitoring in case the PM or automatic monitoring fails to trap errors. See Annex 1B.

Informal flight monitoring may be carried out at any time. Crewmembers should not hesitate to question aspects of clearances or performance not specified in Annex 1A or 1B, but care must be taken not to make non-standard calls at inappropriate times.

178
Q

Sterile Cockpit

A

In accordance with RCAF FOM 2.3.1.5, sterile cockpit procedures shall be adhered during critical regimes of flight.

When observing sterile cockpit procedures, crew communications shall be limited to standard callouts or short focused communications that are either operational, emergency, or safety of flight based.