Airplane Instruments, Engines, and Systems

Question 1

In the Northern Hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally indicate a turn toward the north if:

a. an aircraft is decelerated while on an east or west heading.
b. a left turn is entered from a west heading.
c. an aircraft is accelerated while on an east or west heading.

Answer 1

c. an aircraft is accelerated while on an east or west heading.

Question 2

Deviation in a magnetic compass is caused by the:

a. presence of flaws in the permanent magnets of the compass.
b. difference in location between true north and magnetic north.
c. magnetic fields within the aircraft distorting the lines of magnetic force.

Answer 2

c. magnetic fields within the aircraft distorting the lines of magnetic force.

Question 3

During flight, when are the indications of a magnetic compass accurate?

a. only in straight and level unaccelerated flight.
b. as long as the airspeed is constant.
c. during turns if the bank does not exceed 18degrees.

Answer 3

a. only in straight and level unaccelerated flight.

Question 4

Deviation error of the magnetic compass is caused by:

a. northerly turning error.
b. certain metals and electrical systems within the aircraft.
c. the difference in location of true north and magnetic north.

Answer 4

b. certain metals and electrical systems within the aircraft.

Question 5

In the Northern Hemisphere, if an aircraft is accelerated or decelerated, the magnetic compass will normally indicate:

a. a turn momentarily
b. correctly when on a north or south heading
c. a turn toward the south

Answer 5

b. correctly when on a north or south heading

Question 6

In the Northern Hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally indicate initially a turn toward the west if:

a. a left turn is entered from a north heading.
b. a right turn is entered from a north heading.
c. an aircraft is accelerated while on a north heading.

Answer 6

b. a right turn is entered from a north heading.

Question 7

In the Northern Hemisphere, the magnetic compass will normally indicate a turn toward the south when:

a. a left turn is entered from an east heading.
b. a right turn is entered from a west heading.
c. the aircraft decelerated while on a west heading.

Answer 7

c. the aircraft decelerated while on a west heading.

Question 8

What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to the right from a south heading in the Northern Hemisphere:

a. The compass will initially indicate a turn to the left.
b. The compass will indicate a turn to the right but at a faster rate than is actually occurring.
c. The compass will remain on south for a short time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic heading of the airplane.

Answer 8

b. The compass will indicate a turn to the right but at a faster rate than is actually occurring.

Question 9

In the Northern Hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally indicate initially a turn toward the east if:

a. an aircraft is decelerated while on a south heading.
b. an aircraft is accelerated while on a north heading.
c. a left turn is entered from a north heading.

Answer 9

c. a left turn is entered from a north heading.

Question 10

The pitot system provides impact pressure or ram pressure for which instrument:

a. Altimeter
b. Vertical-speed indicator
c. Airspeed indicator

Answer 10

c. Airspeed indicator

Question 11

Which instrument will become inoperative if the pitot tube becomes clogged:

a. Altimeter
b. Vertical Speed Indicator
c. Airspeed Indicator

Answer 11

c. Airspeed Indicator

Question 12

If the pitot tube and outside vents become clogged, which instruments would be affected:

a. altimeter, airspeed indicator, turn and slip indicator.
b. altimeter, airspeed indicator, and vertical speed indicator.
c. altimeter, attitude indicator, and turn-and-slip indicator.

Answer 12

b. altimeter, airspeed indicator, vertical speed indicator.

Question 13

Which instrument will become inoperative if the static vents become clogged:

a. airspeed indicator.
b. altimeter.
c. airspeed indicator, altimeter, vertical speed indicator.

Answer 13

c. airspeed indicator, altimeter, vertical speed indicator.

Question 14

what is an important airspeed limitation that is not color coded on airspeed indicators:

a. never exceed speed.
b. maximum structural cruising speed.
c. maneuvering speed.

Answer 14

c. maneuvering speed - maximum speed at which full deflection of the airplane controls can be made without incurring structural damage.

Question 15

What does the red line on an airspeed indicator represent?

a. maneuvering speed.
b. turbulent or rough-air speed.
c. never exceed speed.

Answer 15

c. never exceed speed.

Question 16

What is the caution range of the airplane?

Answer 16

165 to 208kts

Question 17

The maximum speed at which the airplane can be operated in smooth air is:

Answer 17

208kts

Question 18

What is the full flap operating range of the airplane?

Answer 18

55 to 100kts

Question 19

What is the maximum flaps-extended speed

Answer 19

100kts

Question 20

Which marking identifies never-exceed speed?

a. Upper limit of green arc.
b. Upper limit of white arc.
c. Red radial line.

Answer 20

c. Red radial line.

Question 21

Which color identifies the power-off stalling speed in a specified configuration (flaps-up and landing gear retracted).

a. Upper limit of green arc.
b. Upper limit of white arc.
c. Lower limit of green arc.

Answer 21

c. Lower limit of green arc.

Question 22

Which color identifies the normal flap operating range?

a. Yellow arc
b. Green arc
c. White arc

Answer 22

c. White arc

Question 23

Which color identifies the power-off stalling speed with wing flaps and landing gear in the landing configuration?

a. Upper limit of green arc.
b. Upper limit of white arc.
c. Lower limit of white arc.

Answer 23

c. Lower limit of white arc.

Question 24

What is the maximum structural cruising speed?

a. 100 kts
b. 165 kts
c. 208 kts

Answer 24

b. 165kts

Question 25

Refer to figure 3 above: Altimeter 1 indicates

Answer 25

10,500 ft

Question 26

Refer to figure 3 above: Altimeter 3 indicates

Answer 26

9,500 ft

Question 27

Refer to figure 3 above: which altimeters indicate more than 10,000ft:

Answer 27

1 and 2 only.

Question 28

Refer to figure 3 above: Altimeter 2 indicates:

Answer 28

14,500 ft

Question 29

Refer to figure 82 below: Altimeter 3 indicates:

Answer 29

9,500 ft

Question 30

Refer to figure 82 below: Altimeter 1 indicates:

Answer 30

500 ft

Question 31

Refer to figure 82 above: which altimeter indicate more than 9,000 ft:

Answer 31

Altimeter 3 only

Question 32

Refer to figure 82 below: Altimeter 2 indicates:

Answer 32

1,500 ft

Question 33

What is absolute altitude?

a. The altitude read directly from the altimeter
b. The vertical distance of the aircraft above the surface.
c. The height above the standard datum plane.

Answer 33

b. The vertical distance of the aircraft above the surface.

Question 34

What is true altitude?

a. The vertical distance of the aircraft above sea level.
b. The vertical distance of the aircraft above the surface.
c. The height above the standard datum plane?

Answer 34

a. The vertical distance of the aircraft above sea level (MSL).

Question 35

What is density altitude?

a. The height above the standard datum plane.
b. The pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature.
c. The altitude read directly from the altimeter.

Answer 35

b. The pressure altitude corrected for non-standard temperature.

Question 36

What is pressure altitude?

a. The indicated altitude corrected for position and installation error.
b. The altitude indicated when the barometric pressure scale is set to 29.92 in Hg.
c. The indicated altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature and pressure.

Answer 36

b. The altitude indicated when the barometric pressure scale is set to 29.92 in Hg.

Question 37

Altimeter setting is the value to which the barometric pressure scale of the altimeter is set so the altimeter indicates:

a. calibrated altitude at field elevation
b. absolute altitude at field elevation
c. true altitude at field elevation

Answer 37

c. true altitude at field elevation

Question 38

Under what condition is indicated altitude the same as true altitude?

a. If the altimeter has no mechanical error.
b. When at sea level under standard conditions.
c. When at 18,000 ft MSL with the altimeter set at 29.92.

Answer 38

b. When at sea level under standard conditions.

Question 39

Under what condition is pressure altitude and density altitude the same value?

a. At sea level, when the temp is zero degrees Fahrenheit.
b. When the altimeter has no installation error.
c. At standard temperature.

Answer 39

c. At standard temperature.

Question 40

Under which condition will pressure altitude be equal to true altitude?

a. When the atmospheric pressure is 29.92 in Hg.
b. When standard atmospheric conditions exist.
c. When indicated altitude is equal to the pressure altitude.

Answer 40

b. When standard atmospheric conditions exist.

Question 41

If it is necessary to set the altimeter from 29.15 to 29.85, what change occurs?

a. 70-foot increase in indicated altitude.
b. 70-foot increase in density altitude.
c. 700-foot increase in indicated altitude.

Answer 41

c. 700-foot increase in indicated altitude.

The altimeter-indicated altitude moves in the same direction as the altimeter setting and changes about 1,000 feet for every change of 1 in Hg in the altimeter setting.

Question 42

If a pilot changes the altimeter setting from 30.11 to 29.96, what is the approximate change in indication?

a. Altimeter will indicate .15” Hg higher.
b. Altimeter will indicate 150 feet higher.
c. Altimeter will indicate 150 feet lower.

Answer 42

c. Altimeter will indicate 150 feet lower.

Question 43

If a flight is made from an area of low pressure into an area of high pressure without the altimeter setting being adjusted, the altimeter will indicate:

a. the actual altitude above sea level.
b. higher than the actual altitude above sea level.
c. lower than the actual altitude above sea level.

Answer 43

c. lower than the actual altitude above sea level.

Question 44

If a flight is made from an area of high pressure into an area of lower pressure without the altimeter setting being adjusted, the altimeter will indicate:

a. lower than the actual altitude sea level.
b. higher than the actual altitude sea level.
c. the actual altitude above sea level.

Answer 44

b. higher than the actual altitude sea level.

Question 45

Which condition would cause the altimeter to a lower altitude than true altitude?

a. Air temperature lower than standard.
b. Atmospheric pressure lower than standard.
c. Air temperature warmer than standard.

Answer 45

c. Air temperature warmer than standard.

Question 46

Under what condition will true altitude be lower than indicated altitude?

a. In colder than standard air temperature.
b. In warmer than standard air temperature.
c. When density altitude is higher than indicated altitude.

Answer 46

a. In colder than standard air temperature.

Question 47

How do variations in temperature affect the altimeter?

a. Pressure levels are raised on warm days and the indicated altitude is lower than true altitude.
b. Higher temperatures expand the pressure levels and the indicated altitude is higher than true altitude.
c. Lower temperatures lower the pressure levels and the indicated altitude is lower than true altitude.

Answer 47

a. Pressure levels are raised on warm days and the indicated altitude is lower than true altitude.

Question 48

Refer to figure 5 below: A turn coordinator provides an indication of the:

a. movement of the aircraft about the yaw and roll axes.
b. angle of bank up but not exceeding 30 degrees.
c. attitude of the aircraft with reference to the longitudinal axis.

Answer 48

a. movement of the aircraft about the yaw and roll axes.

Question 49

Refer to figure 6 below: To receive accurate indications during flight from a heading indicator, the instrument must be:

a. set prior to flight on a known heading.
b. calibrated on a compass rose at regular intervals.
c. periodically realigned with the magnetic compass as the gyro processes.

Answer 49

c. periodically realigned with the magnetic compass as the gyro processes.

Question 50

Refer to figure 7 below: The proper adjustment to make on the attitude indicator during level flight is to align the:

a. horizon bar to the level-flight indication.
b. horizon bar to the miniature airplane.
c. miniature airplane to the horizon bar.

Answer 50

c. miniature airplane to the horizon bar.

Question 51

Refer to figure 7 below: How should a pilot determine the direction of bank from an attitude indicator such as the one illustrated?

a. By the direction of deflection of the banking scale (A).
b. By the direction of deflection of the horizon bar (B).
c. By the relationship of the miniature airplane (C) to the deflected horizon bar (B).

Answer 51

c. By the relationship of the miniature airplane (C) to the deflected horizon bar (B).

Question 52

What is a benefit of flying a glass cockpit?

a. There is no longer a need to carry paper charts in flight.
b. Situational awareness is increased.
c. Terrain avoidance is guaranteed.

Answer 52

b. Situational awareness is increased.

also to decrease pilot workload and increase safety margin.

Question 53

What steps must be taken when flying with glass cockpits to ensure safe flight?

a. Use the moving map for primary means of navigation, use the MFD to check engine systems and weather, back up with supplementary forms of information.
b. Regularly scan each item on the PFD, confirm on the MFD.
c. Regularly scan both inside and outside, use all appropriate checklists, and cross-check with other forms of information.

Answer 53

c. Regularly scan both inside and outside, use all appropriate checklists, and cross-check with other forms of information.

Question 54

An aircraft which is equipped with an Electronic Flight Display can:

a. compensate for an airman’s lack of skill or knowledge.
b. offer new capabilities and simplify the basic flying task.
c. improve flight awareness by allowing the pilot to simply watch for alerts.

Answer 54

b. offer new capabilities and simplify the basic flying task.

Question 55

You are flying an aircraft equipped with an electronic flight display and the air data computer fails. What instrument is affected?

a. ADS-B in capability.
b. Airspeed indicator.
c. Attitude indicator.

Answer 55

b. Airspeed indicator.

Question 56

An abnormally high engine oil temperature indication may be caused by:

a. the oil level being too low.
b. operating with a too high viscosity oil.
c. operating with an excessively rich mixture.

Answer 56

a. the oil level being too low.

Question 57

Excessively high engine temperatures will:

a. cause damage to heat-conducting hoses and warping of the cylinder cooling fins.
b. cause loss of power, excessive oil consumption, and possible permanent internal engine damage.
c. not appreciably affect an aircraft engine.

Answer 57

b. cause loss of power, excessive oil consumption, and possible permanent internal engine damage.

Question 58

Excessively high engine temperatures, either in the air on on the ground, will:

a. increase fuel consumption and may increase power due to the increased heat.
b. result in damage to heat-conducting hoses and warping of cylinder cooling fans.
c. cause loss of power, excessive oil consumption, and possible permanent internal engine damage.

Answer 58

c. cause loss of power, excessive oil consumption, and possible permanent internal engine damage.

Question 59

For internal cooling, air cooled engines are especially dependent on:

a. properly functioning thermostat.
b. air flowing over the exhaust manifold.
c. the circulation of lubricating oil.

Answer 59

c. the circulation of lubricating oil.

Question 60

If the engine oil temperature and cylinder head temperature gauges have exceeded their normal operating range, the pilot may have been operating with:

a. the mixture set too rich.
b. higher-than-normal oil pressure.
c. too much power and with the mixture set too lean.

Answer 60

c. too much power and with the mixture set too lean.

Question 61

What action can a pilot take to aid in cooling an engine that is overheating during a climb?

a. Reduce rate of climb and increase airspeed.
b. Reduce rate of climb speed and increase RPM.
c. Increase climb speed and increase RPM.

Answer 61

a. Reduce rate of climb and increase airspeed.

Question 62

What is one procedure to aid in cooling an engine that is overheating?

a. Enrich the fuel mixture.
b. Increase the RPM.
c. Reduce the airspeed.

Answer 62

a. Enrich the fuel mixture.

Question 63

how is engine operation controlled on an engine equipped with a constant-speed propeller?

a. The throttle controls power output as registered on the manifold pressure gauge and the propeller control regulates engine RPM.
b. The throttle controls power output as registered on the manifold pressure gauge and the propeller control regulates a constant blade angle.
c. The throttle controls engine RPM as registered on the tachometer and the mixture control regulates the power output.

Answer 63

a. The throttle controls power output as registered on the manifold pressure gauge and the propeller control regulates engine RPM.

Question 64

A precaution for the operation of an engine equipped with a constant-speed propeller is to:

a. avoid high RPM settings with high manifold pressure.
b. avoid high manifold pressure settings with low RPM.
c. always use a rich mixture of high RPM settings.

Answer 64

b. avoid high manifold pressure settings with low RPM.

Question 65

What is an advantage of a constant speed propeller?

a. Permits the pilot to select and maintain a desired cruising speed.
b. Permits the pilot to select the blade angle for the most efficient performance.
c. Provides a smoother operation with stable RPM and eliminates vibrations.

Answer 65

b. Permits the pilot to select the blade angle for the most efficient performance.

Question 66

One purpose of the dual ignition system on an aircraft engine is to provide for:

a. improved engine performance.
b. uniform heat distribution.
c. balanced cylinder head pressure.

Answer 66

a. improved engine performance.

Question 67

If the ignition switch ground wire becomes disconnected, the magneto:

a. will not operate because the battery is disconnected from the circuit.
b. may continue to fire.
c. will not operate.

Answer 67

b. may continue to fire.

Question 68

The reason a 4-cylinder reciprocating engine continues to run after the ignition switch is postponed to OFF may be a:

a. fouled spark plug
b. wire between the magneto and spark plug in contact with the engine casing
c. broken magneto ground wire

Answer 68

c. broken magneto wire.

Question 69

With regards to carburetor ice, float-type carburetor systems in comparison to fuel injection systems are generally considered to be:

a. more susceptible to icing
b. equally susceptible to icing
c. less susceptible to icing

Answer 69

a. more susceptible to icing

Question 70

Which condition is most favorable to the development of carburetor icing?

a. Any temperature below freezing and a relative humidity of less than 50%.
b. Temperature between 32 degrees Fahrenheit and 50 degrees Fahrenheit and low humidity.
c. Temperature between 20 degrees Fahrenheit and 70 degrees Fahrenheit and high humidity.

Answer 70

c. Temperature between 20 degrees Fahrenheit and 70 degrees Fahrenheit and high humidity.

Question 71

The possibility of carburetor icing exists even when the ambient air temperature is as:

a. high as 70 degrees Fahrenheit and the relative humidity is high.
b. high as 95 degrees Fahrenheit and there is visible moisture.
c. low as zero degrees Fahrenheit and the relative humidity is high.

Answer 71

a. high as 70 degrees Fahrenheit and the relative humidity is high.

Question 72

If an aircraft is equipped with a fixed pitch propeller and a float-type carburetor, the first indication of carburetor ice would most likely be:

a. increase of RPM
b. engine roughness.
c. decrease of RPM.

Answer 72

c. decrease of RPM.

Question 73

If an aircraft is equipped with a fixed-pitch propeller and a float-type carburetor, the first indication of carburetor ice would most likely be:

a. a drop in oil temperature and cylinder head temperature.
b. engine roughness.
c. loss of RPM.

Answer 73

c. loss of RPM.

Question 74

The operating principle of float-type carburetors is based on the:

a. automatic metering of air at the venturi as the aircraft gains altitude.
b. difference in air pressure at the venturi throat and the air inlet.
c. increase in air velocity in the throat of a venturi and causing an increase in air pressure.

Answer 74

b. difference in air pressure at the venturi throat and the air intlet.

Question 75

The presence of carburetor ice in an aircraft equipped with a fixed-pitch propeller can be verified by applying carburetor heat and noting.

a. an increase in RPM and then a gradual decrease in RPM.
b. a decrease in RPM and then a constant RPM indication.
c. a decrease in RPM and then a gradual increase in RPM.

Answer 75

c. a decrease in RPM and then a gradual increase in RPM.

Question 76

Generally speaking, the use of carburetor heat tends to:

a. decrease engine performance
b. increase engine performance
c. have no effect on engine performance

Answer 76

a. decrease engine performance

Question 77

Applying carburetor heat will:

a. result in more air going through the carburetor.
b. enrich the fuel/air mixture.
c. not affect the fuel/air mixture.

Answer 77

b. enrich the fuel/air mixture.

Question 78

What change occurs in the fuel/air mixture when carburetor heat is applied?

a. decrease in RPM results from the lean mixture.
b. the fuel/air mixture becomes richer.
c. the fuel/air mixture becomes leaner.

Answer 78

b. fuel/air mixture becomes richer.

Question 79

During the run-up at a high-elevation airport, a pilot notes a slight engine roughness that is not affected by the magneto check but grows worse during the carburetor heat check. Under these circumstances, what would be the most logical initial action?

a. check the results obtained with a leaner setting of the mixture.
b. taxi back to the flight line for a maintenance check.
c. reduce manifold pressure to control detonation.

Answer 79

a. check the results obtained with a leaner setting of the mixture.

Question 80

The basic purpose of adjusting the fuel/air mixture at altitude is to:

a. decrease the amount of fuel in the mixture in order to compensate for increased air density.
b. decrease the fuel flow in order to compensate for decreased air density.
c. increase the amount of fuel in the mixture to compensate for the decrease in pressure and density of the air.

Answer 80

b. decrease the fuel flow in order to compensate for decreased air density.

Question 81

While cruising at 9,500 feet MSL, the fuel/air mixture is properly adjusted. What will occur if a descent to 4,500 feet MSL is made without readjusting the mixture?

a. The fuel/air mixture may become excessively lean.
b. There will be more fuel in the cylinders than is needed for normal combustion.
c/ The excessively rich mixture will create higher cylinder head temperatures and may cause detonation.

Answer 81

a. The fuel/air mixture may become excessively lean.

Question 82

Fuel/air ratio is the ratio between the:

a. volume of fuel and volume of air entering the cylinder.
b. weight of fuel and weight of air entering the cylinder.
c. weight of fuel and weight of air entering the carburetor.

Answer 82

b. weight of fuel and weight of air entering the cylinder.

Question 83

Detonation occurs in a reciprocating aircraft engine when:

a. the spark plugs are fouled or shorted out or the wiring is defective.
b. hot spots in the combustion chamber ignite the fuel/air mixture in advance of normal ignition.
c. the unburned charge in the cylinders explodes instead of burning normally.

Answer 83

c. the unburned charge in the cylinders explodes instead of burning normally.

Question 84

Detonation may occur at high-power settings when:

a. the fuel mixture ignites instantaneously instead of burning progressively and evenly.
b. an excessively rich fuel mixture causes an explosive gain in power.
c. the fuel mixture is ignited too early by hot carbon deposits in the cylinder.

Answer 84

a. the fuel mixture ignites instantaneously instead of burning progressively and evenly.

Question 85

If a pilot suspects that the engine (with a fixed-pitch propeller) is detonating during climb-out after takeoff, the initial corrective action to take would be to:

a. lean the mixture.
b. lower the nose slightly to increase airspeed.
c. apply carburetor heat.

Answer 85

b. lower the nose slightly to increase airspeed.

Question 86

If the grade of fuel used in an aircraft engine is lower than specified for the engine, it will most likely cause:

a. mixture of fuel and air that is not uniform in all cylinders.
b. lower cylinder head temperatures.
c. detonation.

Answer 86

c. detonation (lower grades of fuel ignite at lower temperatures. a higher temp engine may cause lower grade fuel to explode rather than burn effectively).

Question 87

The uncontrolled firing of the fuel/air charge in advance of normal spark ignition is known as:

a. combustion
b. pre-ignition
c. detonation

Answer 87

b. pre-ignition (ignition of fuel prior to normal ignition. may be caused by excessively hot exhaust valves, carbon particles, or spark plugs and electrodes heated to an incandescent, or glowing, state).

Question 88

What type of fuel can be substituted for an aircraft if the recommended octane is not available?

a. the next higher octane aviation gas.
b. the next lower octane aviation gas.
c. unleaded automotive gas of the same octane rating.

Answer 88

a. the next higher octane aviation gas.

Question 89

Filling the fuel tanks after the last flight of the day is considered a good operating procedure because this will:

a. force any existing water to the top of the tank away from the fuel lines to the engine.
b. prevent expansion by eliminating airspace in the tanks.
c. prevent moisture condensation by eliminating airspace in the tanks.

Answer 89

c. prevent moisture condensation by eliminating airspace in the tanks.

Question 90

To properly purge water from the fuel system of an aircraft equipped with fuel tank sumps and a fuel strainer quick drain, it is necessary to drain fuel from the:

a. fuel strainer drain
b. lowest point in the fuel system
c. fuel strainer drain and the fuel tank sumps

Answer 90

c. fuel strainer drain and the fuel tank sumps

Question 91

On aircraft equipped with fuel pumps, when is the auxiliary electric driven pump is used?

a. all the time to aid the engine-driven fuel pump.
b. in the event engine-driven fuel pump fails.
c. constantly except in starting the engine

Answer 91

b. in the event engine-driven fuel pump fails.

Question 92

Which would most likely cause the cylinder head temperature and engine oil temperature gauges to exceed their normal operating ranges?

a. using fuel that has a lower-than-specified fuel rating.
b. using fuel that has a higher-than-specified fuel rating.
c. operating with higher-than-normal oil pressure.

Answer 92

a. using fuel that has a lower-than-specified fuel rating.

Question 93

What should be the first action after starting an aircraft engine?

a. adjust for proper RPM and check for desired indications on the engine gauges.
b. place the magneto or ignition switch momentarily in the OFF position to check for proper grounding.
c. test each brake and the parking brake.

Answer 93

a. adjust for proper RPM and check for desired indications on the engine gauges.

Question 94

Should it become necessary to hand-prop an airplane engine, it is extremely important that a competent pilot:

a. call “contact” before touching the propeller.
b. be at the controls on the flight deck.
c. be on the flight deck and call out all commands.

Answer 94

b. be at the controls on the flight deck.

Question 95

During preflight in cold weather, crankcase breather lines should receive special attention because they are susceptible to being clogged by:

a. congealed oil from the crankcase.
b. moisture from the outside air which has frozen.
c. ice from crankcase vapors that have condensed and subsequently frozen.

Answer 95

c. ice from crankcase vapors that have condensed and subsequently frozen (always inspect that the crankcase breather lines are free of ice).

Question 96

An electrical system failure (battery and alternator) occurs during flight. In this situation, you would:

a. experience avionics equipment failure.
b. probably experience failure of the engine ignition system, fuel gauges, aircraft lighting system, and avionics equipment.
c. probably experience engine failure due to the loss of the engine-driven fuel pump and also experience failure of the radio equipment, lights, and all instruments that require alternating current.

Answer 96

a. experience avionics equipment failure,

Question 97

A positive indication on an ammeter:

a. indicates the aircraft’s battery will soon lose its charge.
b. shows the rate of charge on the battery.
c means more current is being drawn from the battery than is being replaced.

Answer 97

b. shows the rate of charge on the battery.

Question 98

To keep a battery charged, the alternator voltage output should be:

a. less than the battery voltage
b. equal to the battery voltage
c. higher than the battery voltage

Answer 98

c. higher than the battery voltage

Question 99

Which if the following statement is a true statement concerning electrical systems:

a. The master switch creates current that is supplied to the electrical system.
b. The airspeed indicator is driven by the electrical system.
c. Lights and radios use the electrical system for power.

Answer 99

c. Lights and radios use the electrical system for power.