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Gleim > Airport, Air Traffic Control, and Airspace > Flashcards

Airport, Air Traffic Control, and Airspace Flashcards

1
Q

The numbers 8 and 26 on the approach ends of the runway indicate that the runway is oriented approximately:

a. 008 degrees and 026 degrees true.
b. 080 degrees and 260 degrees true.
c. 080 degrees and 260 degrees magnetic.

A

c. 080 degrees and 260 degrees magnetic.

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2
Q

The numbers 9 and 27 on a runway indicate that the runway is oriented approximately:

a. 009 degrees and 027 degrees true.
b. 090 degrees and 270 degrees true.
c. 090 degrees and 270 degrees magnetic.

A

c. 090 degrees and 270 degrees magnetic.

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3
Q

When approaching taxiway holding lines from the side with continuous lines, the pilot:

a. may continue taxiing.
b. should not cross the lines without ATC clearance.
c. should continue taxiing until all parts of the aircraft have crossed lines.

A

b. should not cross the lines without ATC clearance.

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4
Q

What is the purpose of the runway/runway hold position sign?

a. Denotes entrance to runway from a taxiway.
b. Denotes area protected for an aircraft approaching or departing a runway.
c. Denotes intersecting runways.

A

c. Denotes intersecting runways.

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5
Q

What does the outbound destination sign identify?

a. identifies the entrance to the runway from a taxiway.
b. identifies runway on which an aircraft is located.
c. identifies direction to take-off runways.

A

c. identifies direction to take-off runways.

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6
Q

When turning onto a taxiway from another taxiway, what is the purpose of the taxiway directional sign?

a. indicates direction to take-off runway.
b indicates designation and direction of exit taxiway from runway.
c. indicates designation and direction of taxiway leading out of an intersection.

A

c. indicates designation and direction of taxiway leading out of an intersection.

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7
Q

What purpose does the taxiway location sign serve?

a. provides general taxiing direction to named runway.
b. denotes entrance to runway from a taxiway.
c. identifies taxiway on which an aircraft is located.

A

c. identifies taxiway on which an aircraft is located.

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8
Q

The yellow demarcation bar marking indicates:

a. runway with a displaced threshold that precedes the runway.
b. a hold line from a taxiway to a runway.
c. the beginning of available runway for landing on the approach side.

A

a. runway with a displaced threshold that precedes the runway.

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9
Q

A lighted heliport may be identified by a:

a. green, yellow, and white rotating beacon.
b. flashing yellow light.
c. blue lighted square landing area.

A

a. green, yellow, and white rotating beacon.

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10
Q

A military air station can be identified by a rotating beacon that emits:

a. white and green alternating flashes.
b. two quick, white flashes between green flashes.
c. green, yellow, and white flashes.

A

b. two quick, white flashes between green flashes.

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11
Q

An airport’s rotating beacon operated during daylight hours indicates:

a. there are obstructions on the airport.
b. that weather at the airport located in
“Class D” airspace is below the basic VFR
weather minimums.
c. the air traffic control tower is not in operation.

A

b. that weather at the airport located in

“Class D” airspace is below the basic VFR weather minimums.

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12
Q

How can a military airport be identified at night?

a. Alternate white and green light flashes.
b. Dual peaked (two quick) white flashes between green flashes.
c. White flashing lights with steady green at the same location.

A

b. Dual peaked (two quick) white flashes between green flashes.

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13
Q

Airport taxiway edge lights are identified at night by:

a. white directional lights.
b. blue omnidirectional lights.
c. alternate red and green lights.

A

b. blue omnidirectional lights.

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14
Q

To set the high intensity runway lights on medium intensity, the pilot should click the microphone seven times, and then click it:

a. one time within 4 seconds.
b. three times within 3 seconds.
c. five times within 5 seconds.

A

c. five times within 5 seconds

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15
Q

Which is the correct traffic pattern departure procedure to use at a noncontrolled airport?

a. depart in any direction consistent with safety, after crossing the airport boundary.
b. make all turns to the left.
c. comply with any FAA traffic pattern established for the airport.

A

c. comply with any FAA traffic pattern established for the airport.

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16
Q

The recommended entry position to an airport traffic pattern is:

a. 45 degrees to the base leg just below traffic pattern altitude.
b. to enter 45 degrees at the midpoint of the downwind leg at traffic pattern altitude.
c. to cross directly over the airport at traffic pattern altitude and join the downwind leg.

A

b. to enter 45 degrees at the midpoint of the downwind leg at traffic pattern altitude.

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17
Q

You are on approach to land on runway 19 of a non-towered airport. You observe ripples on the southeast side of a small lake 3/4 mi. east of the airport. What is the most appropriate course of action?

a. proceed with your approach to runway 19.
b. maneuver for an approach to runway 01.
c. check the wind sock to determine the appropriate runway.

A

c. check the wind sock to determine the appropriate runway.

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18
Q

When approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope indicator, the pilot shall:

a. maintain an altitude that captures the glide slope at least 2 miles downwind from the runway threshold.
b. maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope.
c. remain on the glide slope and land between the two-light bar.

A

b. maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope.

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19
Q

a below glide slope indication from a pulsating approach slope indicator is a:

a. pulsating white light
b. steady white light
c. pulsating red light

A

c. pulsating red light

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20
Q

While operating in “Class D” airspace, each pilot of an aircraft approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope indicator shall:

a. maintain a 3 degree glide until approximately 1/2 mile to the runway before going below the VASI.
b. maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe landing.
c. stay high until the runway can be reached in a power-off landing.

A

b. maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude us necessary for a safe landing.

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21
Q

Which approach and landing objective is assured when the pilot remains on the proper glidepath of the VASI?

a. continuation of course guidance after transition to VFR.
b. safe obstruction clearance in the approach area.
c. course guidance from the visual descent point to touchdown.

A

b. safe obstruction clearance in the approach area.

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22
Q

Each pilot of an aircraft approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope indicator shall:

a. maintain a 3 degree glide to the runway.
b. maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope.
c. stay high until the runway can be reached in a power-off landing.

A

b. maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope.

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23
Q

VASI red over white means

R
_

W

A

on glide slope

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24
Q

Which approach and landing objective is assured when the pilot remains on the proper glidepath of the VASI?

a. runway identification and course guidance.
b. safe obstruction clearance in the approach area.
c. lateral course guidance to the runway.

A

b. safe obstruction clearance in the approach area.

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25
Q

a slightly high glide slope indication from a precision approach path indicator is:

a. four white lights
b. three white lights and one red light
c. two white lights and two red lights

A

b. three white lights and one red light

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26
Q

wingtip vortices are created on when an aircraft is:

a. operating at high airspeeds.
b. heavily loaded.
c. developing lift.

A

c. developing lift.

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27
Q

wingtip vortices created by large aircraft tend to:

a. sink below the aircraft generating turbulence.
b. rise into the traffic pattern.
c. rise into the takeoff or landing path of a crossing runway.

A

a. sink below the aircraft generating turbulence.

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28
Q

When taking off or landing at an airport where heavy aircraft are operating, one should be particularly alert to the hazards of wingtip vortices because this turbulence tends to:

a. rise from a crossing runway into the takeoff or landing path.
b. rise into the traffic pattern area surrounding the airport.
c. sink into the flightpath of aircraft operating below the aircraft generating the turbulence.

A

c. sink into the flight of aircraft operating below the aircraft generating the turbulence.

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29
Q

When landing behind a large aircraft, the pilot should avoid turbulence by staying:

a. above the large aircraft’s final approach path and landing beyond the large aircraft’s touchdown point.
b. below the large aircraft’s final approach path and landing before the large aircraft’s touchdown point.
c. above the large aircraft’s final approach path and landing before the large aircraft’s touchdown point.

A

a. above the large aircraft’s final approach path and landing beyond the large aircraft’s touchdown point.

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30
Q

The wind condition that requires maximum caution when avoiding wake turbulence on landing is a:

a. light, quartering headwind.
b. light, quartering tailwind.
c. strong headwind.

A

b. light, quartering tailwind.

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31
Q

How does the wake turbulence vortex circulate around each wingtip?

a. inward, upward, and around each tip.
b. inward, upward, and coutnerclockwise.
c. outward, upward, and around each tip.

A

c. outward, upward, and around each tip.

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32
Q

When landing behind a large aircraft, which procedure should be followed for vortex avoidance?

a. stay above its final approach flightpath all the way to touchdown.
b. stay below and to one side of its final approach flightpath.
c. stay well below its final approach flightpath and land at least 2,000 feet behind.

A

a. stay above its final approach flightpath all the way to touchdown.

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33
Q

The greatest vortex strength occurs when the generating aircraft is:

a. light, dirty, and fast.
b. heavy, dirty, and fast.
c. heavy, clean, and slow.

A

c. heavy, clean, and slow.

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34
Q

When departing behind a heavy aircraft, the pilot should avoid wake turbulence by maneuvering the aircraft:

a. below and downwind from the heavy aircraft.
b. above and upwind from the heavy aircraft.
c. below and upwind from the heavy aircraft.

A

b. above and upwind from the heavy aircraft.

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35
Q

Your flight takes you in the path of a large aircraft. In order to avoid vortices you should fly:

a. at the same altitude as the large aircraft.
b. below the altitude of the large aircraft.
c. above the flight path of the large aircraft.

A

c. above the flight path of the large aircraft.

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36
Q

During a night flight, you observe a steady red light and flashing red light ahead at the same altitude. What is the general direction of movement of the aircraft?

a. the other aircraft is crossing to the left.
b. the other aircraft is crossing to the right.
c. the other aircraft is approaching head-on.

A

a. the other aircraft is crossing to the left.

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37
Q

During a night flight, you observe a steady white light and a flashing red light ahead and at the same altitude. What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft?

a. The other aircraft is flying away from you.
b. The other aircraft is crossing to the left.
c. The other aircraft is crossing to the right.

A

a. The other aircraft is flying away from you.

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38
Q

During a night flight, you observe steady read and green lights ahead and at the same altitude. What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft?

a. The other aircraft is crossing to the left.
b. The other aircraft is flying away from you.
c. The other aircraft is approaching head-on.

A

c. The other aircraft is approaching head-on.

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39
Q

How can you determine if another aircraft is on a collision course with your aircraft:

a. The other aircraft will always appear to get larger and closer at a rapid rate.
b. The nose of each aircraft is pointed at the same point in space.
c. There will be no apparent relative motion between your aircraft and the other aircraft.

A

c. There will be no apparent relative motion between your aircraft and the other aircraft.

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40
Q

Eye movements during daytime collision avoidance scanning should:

a. not exceed 10 degrees and view each sector at least 1 second.
b. be 30 degrees and view each sector at least 3 seconds.
c. use peripheral vision by scanning small sectors and utilizing off-center viewing.

A

a. not exceed 10 degrees and view each sector at least 1 second.

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41
Q

The most effective method of scanning for other aircraft for collision avoidance during daylight hours is to use:

a. regularly spaced concentration on the 3,9, and 12 o clock positions.
b. a series of short, regularly spaced eye movements to search each 10-degree sector.
c. peripheral vision by scanning small sectors and utilizing off-center viewing.

A

b. a series of short, regularly spaced eye movements to search each 10-degree sector.

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42
Q

Prior to starting each maneuver, pilots should:

a. check altitude, airspeed, and heading indicator.
b. visually scan the entire area for collision avoidance.
c. announce their intentions on the nearest CTAF.

A

b. visually scan the entire area for collision avoidance.

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43
Q

What procedure is recommended when climbing or descending VFR on an airway?

a. Execute gentle banks left and right for continuous visual scanning of the airspace.
b. Advise the nearest FSS of the altitude changes.
c. Fly away from the centerline of the airway before changing altitude.

A

a. Execute gentle banks left and right for continuous visual scanning of the airspace.

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44
Q

The most effective method of scanning for other aircraft for collision avoidance during nighttime hours is to use:

a. regularly spaced concentration on the 3,9, and 12 o clock positions.
b. a series of short, regularly spaced eye movements to search each 30 degree sector.
c. peripheral vision by scanning small sectors and utilizing off-center viewing.

A

c. peripheral vision by scanning small sectors and utilizing off-center viewing.

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45
Q

Most midair collision accidents occur during

a. hazy days
b. clear days
c. cloudy nights

A

b. clear days

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46
Q

Responsibility for collision avoidance in an alert area rests with:

a. the controlling agency
b. all pilots
c. air traffic control

A

b. all pilots

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47
Q

The aeronautical information manual specifically encourages pilots to turn on their landing lights when operating below 10,000 feet, day or night, and especially when operating:

a. in “Class B” airspace.
b. in conditions of reduced visibility.
c. within 15 miles of a towered airport.

A

b. in conditions of reduced visibility.

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48
Q

It is the responsibility of the pilot and crew to report a near midair collision as a result of proximity of at least:

a. 50 feet or less to another aircraft.
b. 500 feet or less to another aircraft.
c. 1000 feet or less to another aircraft.

A

b. 500 feet or less to another aircraft.

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49
Q

After landing at a tower-controlled airport, when should the pilot contact ground control?

a. When advised by the tower to do so.
b. Prior to turning off the runway
c. After reaching a taxiway that leads directly to the parking area.

A

a. When advised by the tower do to do so.

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50
Q

If instructed by ground control to taxi to Runway 9, the pilot may proceed:

a. via taxiway and across runways to, but not onto, Runway 9.
b. to the next intersecting runway where further clearance is required.
c. via taxiways and across runways to Runway 9, where an immediate takeoff may be made.

A

b. to the next intersecting runway where further clearance is required.

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51
Q

Automatic Terminal Information Service (ATIS) is the continuous broadcast of recorded information concerning:

a. pilots of radar-identified aircraft whose aircraft is in dangerous proximity to terrain or to an obstruction.
b. nonessential information to reduce frequency congestion.
c. non-control information in selected high activity terminal areas.

A

c. non-control information is selected high activity terminal areas.

52
Q

Absence of the sky condition and visibility on an ATIS broadcast indicates that:

a. weather conditions are at or above VFR minimums.
b. the sky condition is clear and visibility is unrestricted.
c. the ceiling is at least 5,000 feet and visibility is 5 miles or more.

A

c. the ceiling is at least 5,000 feet and visibility is 5 miles or more.

53
Q

When a control tower located on an airport within “Class D” airspace ceases operation for the day, what happens to the airspace designation?

a. The airspace designation normally will not change.
b. The airspace remains “Class D” airspace as long as a weather observer or automated weather system is available.
c. The airspace reverts to “Class E” or a combination of “Class E” and “Class G” airspace during the hours the tower is not in operation.

A

c. The airspace reverts to “Class E” or a combination of “Class E” and “Class G” airspace during the hours the tower is not in operation.

54
Q

A non-tower satellite airport, within the same “Class D” airspace as that designated for the primary airport, requires radio communications be established and maintained with the:

a. satellite airport’s UNICOM.
b. associate Flight Service Station.
c. primary airport’s control tower.

A

c. primary airport’s control tower.

55
Q

The lateral dimensions of “Class D” airspace are based on:

a. the number of airports that lie within the “Class D’ airspace.
b. 5 statute miles from the geographical center of the primary airport.
c. the instrument procedures for which the controlled airspace is established.

A

c. the instrument procedures for which the controlled airspace is established.

56
Q

Unless otherwise authorized, two-way radio communications with Air Traffic Control are required for landings or takeoffs at all towered airports:

a regardless of weather conditions

b. only when weather conditions are less than VFR.
c. within “Class D” airspace only when weather conditions are less than VFR.

A

a. regardless of weather conditions.

57
Q

Airspace at an airport with a part-time control tower is classified as “Class D” airspace only:

a. when the weather minimums are below basic VFR.
b. when the associated control tower is in operation.
c. when the associate flight service station is in operation.

A

b. when the associated control tower is in operation.

58
Q

When should pilots state their position on the airport when calling the tower for takeoff?

a. when visibility is less than 1 mile.
b. when parallel runways are in use.
c. when departing from a runway intersection.

A

c. when departing from a runway intersection.

59
Q

The radius of the procedural outer area of “Class C” airspace is normally:

a. 10NM
b. 20NM
c. 30NM

A

b. 20 NM

60
Q

Under what condition may an aircraft operate from a satellite airport within “Class C” airspace?

a. The pilot must file a flight plan prior to departure.
b. The pilot must monitor ATC until clear of the “Class C” airspace.
c. The pilot must contact ATC as soon as practicable after takeoff.

A

c. The pilot must contact ATC as soon as practicable after takeoff.

60
Q

Under what condition may an aircraft operate from a satellite airport within “Class C” airspace?

a. The pilot must file a flight plan prior to departure.
b. The pilot must monitor ATC until clear of the “Class C” airspace.
c. The pilot must contact ATC as soon as practicable after takeoff.

A

c. The pilot must contact ATC as soon as practicable after takeoff.

61
Q

All operations within “Class C” airspace must be in:

a. accordance with instrument flight rules.
b. compliance with ATC clearances and instructions.
c. an aircraft equipped with a transponder with automatic altitude and reporting capability.

A

c. an aircraft equipped with a transponder with automatic altitude and reporting capability.

62
Q

Which initial action should a pilot take prior to entering “Class C” airspace.

a. Contact approach control on the appropriate frequency.
b. Contact the tower and request permission to enter.
c. Contact the FSS for traffic advisories.

A

a. Contact approach control on the appropriate frequency.

63
Q

The vertical limit of “Class C” airspace above the primary airport is normally:

a. 1,200 feet AGL.
b. 3,000 feet AGL.
c. 4,000 feet AGL.

A

c. 4,000 feet AGL.

64
Q

Two-way radio communication must be established with the Air Traffic Control facility having jurisdiction over the area prior to entering which class airspace.

a. Class C.
b. Class E.
c. Class G.

A

a. Class C.

65
Q

With certain exceptions, all aircraft within 30 miles of a Class B primary airport from the surface upward to 10,000 feet MSL must be equipped with:

a. an operable VOR or TACAN receiver.
b. instruments and equipment required for IFR operations.
c. an operable transponder having either Mode S or 4096-code capability with Mode C automatic altitude reporting capability.

A

c. an operable transponder having either Mode S or 4096-code capability with Mode C automatic altitude reporting capability.

66
Q

What minimum pilot certification is required for operation within “Class B” airspace.

a. Recreational Pilot Certificate.
b. Private Pilot Certificate or Student Pilot Certificate with appropriate logbook endorsements.
c. Private Pilot Certificate with an instrument rating.

A

b. Private Pilot Certificate or Student Pilot Certificate with appropriate logbook endorsements.

67
Q

What minimum pilot certification is required for operation within “Class B” airspace:

a. Private Pilot Certificate or Student Pilot Certificate with appropriate logbook endorsements.
b. Commercial Pilot Certificate
c. Private Pilot Certificate with an Instrument Rating.

A

a. Private Pilot Certificate or Student Pilot Certificate with appropriate logbook endorsements.

68
Q

The basic VFR weather minimums for operating an aircraft within “Class D” airspace are:

a. 500-foot ceiling and 1 mile visibility
b. 1,000-foot ceiling and 3 miles visibility.
c. clear of clouds and 2 miles visibility.

A

b. 1,000-foot ceiling and 3 miles visibility.

69
Q

You would like to enter “Class B” airspace and contact the approach controller.

The controller responds to your initial radio call with “N125HF standby”. May you enter the “Class B” airspace?

a. You must remain outside “Class B” airspace until controller gives you a specific clearance.
b. You may continue into the “Class B” airspace and wait for further instructions.
c. You may continue into the “Class B” airspace without a specific clearance, if the aircraft is ADS-B equipped.

A

a. You must remain outside “Class B” airspace until controller gives you a specific clearance.

70
Q

In which type of airspace are VFR flights prohibited:

a. Class A
b. Class B
c. Class C

A

a. Class A

71
Q

The minimum flight visibility required for VFR flights above 10,000 feet MSL and more than 1,200 feet AGL in controlled airspace is:

a. 1 mile
b. 3 miles
c. 5 miles

A

c. 5 miles

72
Q

VFR flight in controlled airspace above 1,200 feet AGL and below 10,000 feet MSL requires a minimum visibility and vertical cloud clearance of:

a. 3 miles, and 500 feet below or 1,000 feet above the clouds in controlled airspace.
b. 5 miles, and 1,000 feet below or 1,000 feet above the clouds at all altitudes.
c. 5 miles, and 1,000 feet below or 1,000 feet above the clouds only in “Class A” airspace.

A

a. 3 miles, and 500 feet below or 1,000 feet above the clouds in controlled airspace.

73
Q

For VFR flight operations above 10,000 feet MSL and more than 1,200 feet AGL, the minimum horizontal distance from clouds required is:

a. 1,000 feet
b. 2,000 feet
c. 1 mile

A

c. 1 mile

74
Q

What minimum flight visibility is required for VFR flight operations on an airway below 10,000 feet MSL?

a. 1 mile
b. 3 miles
c. 4 miles

A

b. 3 miles

75
Q

The minimum distance from clouds required for VFR operations on an airway below 10,000 feet MSL is:

a. remain clear of clouds.
b. 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontally.
c. 500 feet above, 1,000 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally.

A

b. 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontally.

76
Q

What minimum visibility and clearance from clouds are required for VFR operations in “Class G” airspace at 700 feet AGL or below during daylight hours:

a. 1 mile visibility and clear of clouds.
b. 1 mile visibility, 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 horizontal clearance from clouds.
c. 3 miles visibility and clear of clouds.

A

a. 1 mile visibility and clear of clouds.

77
Q

During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum flight visibility for VFR flight at night is:

a. 1 mile
b. 3 miles
c. 5 miles

A

b. 3 miles

78
Q

During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum flight visibility for day VFR flight is:

a. 1 mile
b. 3 miles
c. 5 miles

A

a. 1 mile

79
Q

During operations within controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum distance above clouds requirement for VFR flight is:

a. 500 feet
b. 1,000 feet
c. 1,500 feet

A

b. 1,000 feet

80
Q

Outside controlled airspace, the minimum flight visibility requirement for VFR flight above 1,200 feet AGL and below 10,000 feet MSL during daylight hours:

a. 1 mile
b. 3 miles
c. 5 miles

A

a. 1 mile

81
Q

During operations within controlled airspace at altitudes of less than 1,200 feet AGL, the minimum horizontal distance from clouds requirement for VFR flight is:

a. 1,000 feet
b. 1,500 feet
c. 2,000 feet

A

c. 2,000 feet

82
Q

During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum horizontal distance from clouds requirement for VFR flight is:

a. 500 feet
b. 1,000 feet
c. 1,500 feet

A

a. 500 feet

83
Q

Normal VFR operations in “Class D” airspace with an operating control tower require the visibility and ceiling to be at least:

a. 1,000 feet and 1 mile.
b. 1,000 feet and 3 miles.
c. 2,500 feet and 3 miles.

A

b. 1,000 feet and 3 miles.

84
Q

Your VFR flight will be conducted above 10,000 ft. MSL in “Class E” airspace. What is the minimum flight visibility?

a. 3 SM
b. 5 SM
c. 1 SM

A

b. 5 SM

85
Q

What ATC facility should the pilot contact to receive a special VFR departure clearance in “Class D” airspace.

a. Automated Flight Service Station
b. Air Traffic Control Tower
c. Air Route Traffic Control Center

A

b. Air Traffic Control Tower

86
Q

A special VFR clearance authorizes the pilot of an aircraft to operate VFR while within “Class D” airspace when the visibility is:

a. less than 1 mile and the ceiling is less than 1,000 feet.
b. at least 1 mile and the aircraft can remain clear of clouds.
c. at least 3 miles and the aircraft can remain clear of clouds.

A

b. at least 1 mile and the aircraft can remain clear of clouds.

87
Q

No person may operate an airplane within “Class D” airspace at night under special VFR unless the:

a. flight can be conducted 500 feet below the clouds.
b. airplane is equipped for instrument flight.
c. flight visibility is at least 3 miles.

A

b. airplane is equipped for instrument flight.

88
Q

What are the minimum requirements for airplane operations under special VFR in “Class D” airspace at night:

a. The airplane must be under radar surveillance at all times while in “Class D” airspace.
b. The airplane must be equipped for “IFR” with an altitude reporting transponder.
c. The pilot must be instrument rated, and the airplane must be IFR equipped.

A

c. The pilot must be instrument rated, and the airplane must be IFR equipped.

89
Q

What is the minimum weather condition required for airplanes operating under special VFR in “Class D” airspace?

a. 1 mile flight visibility
b. 1 mile flight visibility and 1,000-foot ceiling.
c. 3 miles flight visibility and 1,000 foot ceiling.

A

a. 1 mile flight visibility.

90
Q

What minimum radio equipment is required for VFR operation within “Class B” airspace?

a. Two-way radio communication equipment and a 4096-code transponder.
b. Two-way radio communication equipment, a 4096-code transponder, and an encoding altimeter.
c. Two-way radio communication equipment, 4096 code transponder, an encoding altimeter, and a VOR or TACAN receiver.

A

b. Two-way radio communication equipment, a 4096-code transponder, and an encoding altimeter.

91
Q

What minimum radio equipment is required for operation within “Class C’ airspace:

a. Two-way radio communications equipment and a 4096-code transponder.
b. Two-way radio communications equipment and a 4096-code transponder, and DME.
c. Two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096 code transponder, and an encoding altimeter.

A

c. Two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096 code transponder, and an encoding altimeter.

92
Q

Unless otherwise specified, Federal Airways include that “Class E” airspace extending upward from:

a. 700 feet above the surface, up to and including 17,999 feet MSL.
b. 1,200 feet above the surface , up to and including 17,999 feet MSL.
c. the surface, up to and including 18,000 feet MSL.

A

b. 1,200 feet above the surface , up to and including 17,999 feet MSL.

93
Q

TRSA Service in the terminal radar program provides:

a. IFR separation (1,000 feet vertical and 3 miles lateral) between all aircraft.
b. warning to pilots when their aircraft are in unsafe proximity to terrain, obstructions, or other aircraft.
c. sequencing and separation for participating VFR aircraft.

A

c. sequencing and separation for participating VFR aircraft.

94
Q

From whom should a departing VFR aircraft request radar traffic information during ground operations?

a. Clearance delivery.
b. Tower, just before takeoff.
c. Ground control, on initial contact.

A

c. Ground control, on initial contact.

95
Q

Basic radar service in the terminal radar program is best described as:

a. safety alerts, traffic advisories, and limited vectoring to VFR aircraft.
b. mandatory radar service provided by the Automated Radar Terminal System (ARTS) program.
c. wind-shear warning at participating airports.

A

a. safety alerts, traffic advisories, and limited vectoring to VFR aircraft.

96
Q

If Air Traffic Control advises that radar service is terminated when the pilot is departing “Class C” airspace, the transponder should be set to code:

a. 0000
b. 1200
c. 4096

A

b. 1200

97
Q

When making routine transponder code changes, pilots should avoid inadvertent selection of which codes?

a. 7200
b. 7000
c. 7500

A

c. 7500

98
Q

When making routine transponder code changes, pilots should avoid inadvertent selection of which code:

a. 1200
b. 7600
c. 4096

A

b. 7600

99
Q

When operating under VFR below 18,000 feet MSL, unless otherwise authorized, what transponder code should be selected?

a. 1200
b. 7600
c. 7700

A

a. 1200

100
Q

At an altitude below 18,000 feet MSL, which transponder code should be selected:

a. Mode A/3, Code 1200
b. Mode F, Code 1200
c. Mode C, Code 4096

A

a. Mode A/3, Code 1200

101
Q

Which of the following codes should be set for VFR flight in “Class E” airspace?

a. 1200, Mode A/3
b. 1200, Mode F
c. 4600, Mode S

A

a. 1200, Mode A/3

102
Q

Unless otherwise authorized, if flying a transponder equipped aircraft, a pilot should squawk which VFR code:

a. 1200
b. 7600
c. 7700

A

a. 1200

103
Q

When flying HAWK N666CB, the proper phraseology for initial contact with McAlester FSS is:

a. MC ALSSTER RADIO, HAWK SIX SIX SIX CHARLIE BRAVO, RECEIVING ARDMORE VORTAC, OVER.
b. MC ALESTER STATION, HAWK SIX SIX SIX CEE BEE, RECIVING ARDMORE VORTAC, OVER.
c. MC ALSTER FLIGHT SERVICE STATION, HAWK NOVEMBER SIX CHARLIE BRAVO, RECEIVING ARDMORE VORTAC, OVER.

A

a. MC ALSSTER RADIO, HAWK SIX SIX SIX CHARLIE BRAVO, RECEIVING ARDMORE VORTAC, OVER.

104
Q

The correct method of stating 4,500 feet MSL to ATC is:

a. four thousand five hundred
b. four point five
c. forty-five hundred feet MSL

A

a. four thousand five hundred

105
Q

The correct method of stating 10,500 feet MSL to ATC is:

a. ten thousand five hundred feet
b. ten point five
c. one zero thousand, five hundred

A

c. one zero thousand, five hundred

106
Q

ATC advises, “traffic 12 o’clock”, this advisory is relative to your:

a. true course
b. ground track
c. magnetic heading

A

b. ground track

107
Q

An ATC radar facility issues the following advisory to a pilot flying on a heading of 90 degrees:

“TRAFFIC 3 O’CLOCK, 2 MILES WEST BOUND”

Where should the pilot look for this traffic:

a. East
b. South
c. West

A

b. South

108
Q

An ATC radar facility issues the following advisory to a pilot during a local flight:

“TRAFFIC 2 O CLOCK, 5 MILES, NORTH BOUND”.

Where should the pilot look for this traffic:

a. Between directly ahead and 90 degrees to the left.
b. Between directly behind and 90 degrees to the right.
c. Between directly ahead and 90 degrees to the right.

A

c. Between directly ahead and 90 degrees to the right.

109
Q

An ATC radar facility issues the following advisory to a pilot flying north in a calm wind:

“TRAFFIC 9 O CLOCK, 2 MILES, SOUTHBOUND”.

Where should the pilot look for this traffic?

a. South
b. North
c. West

A

c. West

110
Q

While on final approach for landing, an alternating green and red light followed by a flashing red light is received from the control tower. Under these circumstances, the pilot should:

a. discontinue the approach, fly the same traffic pattern and approach again, and land.
b. exercise extreme caution and abandon the approach, realizing the airport is unsafe for landing.
c. abandon the approach, circle the airport to the right, and expect a flashing white light when the airport is safe for landing.

A

b. exercise extreme caution and abandon the approach, realizing the airport is unsafe for landing.

111
Q

If the aircraft’s radio fails, what is the recommended procedure when landing at a controlled airport?

a. observe the traffic flow, enter the pattern, and look for a light signal from the tower.
b. enter a crosswind leg and rock the wings.
c. flash the landing lights and cycle the landing gear while circling the airport.

A

a. observe the traffic flow, enter the pattern, and look for a light signal from the tower.

112
Q

A steady green light signal directed from the control tower to an aircraft in flight is a signal that the pilot:

a. is cleared to land.
b. should give way to other aircraft and continue circling.
c. should return for landing.

A

a. is cleared to land.

113
Q

A flashing white light signal from the control tower to a taxiing aircraft is an indication to:

a. taxi at a faster speed.
b. taxi only on taxiways an not cross runways.
c. return to the starting point on the airport.

A

c. return to the starting point on the airport.

114
Q

if the control tower uses a light signal to direct a pilot to give way to other aircraft and continue circling, the light will be:

a. flashing red.
b. steady red.
c. alternating red and green.

A

b. steady red.

115
Q

Which light signal from the control tower clears a pilot to taxi?

a. Flashing green
b. Steady green
c. Flashing White

A

a. Flashing green

116
Q

An alternating red and green light signal directed from the control tower to an aircraft in flight is a signal to:

a. hold position
b. exercise extreme caution
c. not land; the airport is unsafe

A

b. exercise extreme caution

117
Q

When activated, an emergency locator transmitter transmits on:

a. 118.0 MHz
b. 406 MHz
c. 123.0 MHz

A

b. 406 MHz

118
Q

While on a VFR cross country and not in contact with ATC, what frequency would you use in the event of an emergency:

a. 121.5 MHz
b. 122.5 MHz
c. 128.75 MHz

A

a. 121.5 MHz

119
Q

Who should not participate in the Land and Hold Short Operations program?

a. Recreational pilots only.
b. Military pilots.
c. Student pilots.

A

c. Student pilots.

120
Q

Who has final authority to accept or decline and land and hold short clearance?

a. Pilot in command.
b. Owner/operator
c. Second-in-command

A

a. Pilot in command.

121
Q

Who has final authority to accept or decline any land and hold short clearance?

a. Pilot in command.
b. Air Traffic Controller
c. Second in command

A

a. Pilot in command.

122
Q

Where is the “Available Landing Distance” data published for an airport that utilizes Land and Hold Short Operations:

a. Special Notices section of the Chart Supplement.
b. Aeronautical Information Manual.
c. 14 CFR Part 91, General Operating and Flight Rules.

A

a. Special Notices section of the Chart Supplement.

123
Q

When should pilots decline land and hold short clearance?

a. when it will compromise safety.
b. only when the tower operator concurs.
c. pilots cannot decline clearance.

A

a. when it will compromise safety.

124
Q

what is the minimum visibility for a pilot to receive a land and hold short clearance?

a. 3 nautical miles
b. 3 statute miles
c. 1 statute mile

A

b. 3 statute miles

125
Q

what should you expect when your are told LAHSO operations are in effect at your destination airport?

a. all aircraft must operate on an IFR clearance due to high traffic volume.
b. that ATC will give you a clearance to land and hold short of a specified point on the runway.
c. delays due to low IFR conditions and high traffic volume.

A

b. that ATC will give you a clearance to land and hold short of a specified point on the runway.

126
Q

If given a landing clearance on Runway 16 and told to hold short Runway 6, how can a pilot determine the available landing distance?

a. The full runway length is available.
b. Use rule of thumb to determine the distance.
c. Ask the controller.

A

c. Ask the controller.

Gleim (8 decks)

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