All ESS flashcards

1
Q

What is an EVS?

A

An Environmental Value System (EVS) is a set of beliefs that shapes the perception of environmental threats and how they may impact the environment.

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2
Q

Name 3 inputs of an EVS

A

Religion, education, media exposure.

Other logical answers also applicable

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3
Q

Name 2 processes of an EVS

A

Acceptance/rejection of ideas and the perceived importance of environmental events.

Any other logical event

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4
Q

Name 3 outputs of an EVS

A

Actions, answers, decisions

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5
Q

What are the three main EVS?

A

Ecocentrism, Technocentristm, Anthropocentrism

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6
Q

What is an ecocentric EVS?

A

Ecocentrism is a nature-centric view which emphasizes that nature is more important than humans, and should be minimally disturbed.

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7
Q

What is an anthropocentric EVS?

A

Anthropocentrism is a human-centric view which attributes equal resources to environmental issues and the needs of the human population.

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8
Q

What is a technocentric EVS?

A

Techno-centrism is a viewpoint which believes that technology will keep pace with and provide solutions to all the environmental programs.

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9
Q

What is a system?

A

A system is made up of different parts that work together and interact with the surrounding environment.

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10
Q

What are inputs? Provide an example.

A

Inputs are elements that go into a system in order for there to be processes and output/feedback. E.g. Sunlight is an input of the photosynthesis system.

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11
Q

What are processes? Provide an example.

A

Processes act on the inputs and transform them into outputs. E.g. Photosynthesis transforms sunlight (input) into chemical energy (output).

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12
Q

What are outputs? Provide an example.

A

Outputs are the flows of energy/matter that leave a system. E.g. Chemical energy (energy) that leaves the system of photosynthesis.

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13
Q

What are the three types of systems?

A

Open, closed and isolated.

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14
Q

What is an open system? Provide an example.

A

An open system is a system that exchanges matter and energy with its surroundings. E.g. a boiling pot of water exchanges energy (heat) and matter (water vapour - gas form) with its surroundings.

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15
Q

What is a closed system? Provide an example.

A

A closed system is a system that exchanges only energy with its surroundings. E.g. A sealed water bottle with hot water. The heat energy will leave, but the water (matter) will stay in the bottle.

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16
Q

What is an isolated system?

A

An isolated system is a system that cannot exchange energy or matter with its surroundings. There are no real world examples because nothing is completely isolated.

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17
Q

What are energy transfers?

A

Transfers move energy from one place to another without its form being changed. E.g. Rivers flowing downstream across land.

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18
Q

What are energy transformations?

A

Transformations move energy and matter but change its state/form in the meanwhile. E.g. Evaporation, where water matter moves from a body of water to the atmosphere AND changes from liquid to gas form.

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19
Q

What are models?

A

Models, on the other hand, are simplified versions of systems, which don’t show inputs, outputs or storages, just the system as a whole.

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20
Q

What is the first law of thermodynamics?

A

Energy cannot be created nor destroyed. Energy can change forms, but never decrease or increase.

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21
Q

What is the second law of thermodynamics?

A

The state of entropy in a system will always increase over time.

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22
Q

What is entropy?

A

Entropy is the increase in disorder within a system.

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23
Q

How does the first law of thermodynamics relate to food chains?

A

In food chains, the first law of thermodynamics means that energy from food is passed along from one organism to another, but never created or lost. It also changes form.

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24
Q

How does the first law of thermodynamics relate to energy production?

A

In energy production, the first law of thermodynamics means that the total amount of energy stays the same, just changing form, like from chemical energy in fuel to electricity.

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25
Q

What are the implications of the first law of thermodynamics?

A

In an open system (such as an ecosystem), energy will never increase, so it has to be constantly inputted. Humans cannot create energy, so we have to use and transform what is more convenient.

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26
Q

How does the second of thermodynamics relate to food chains?

A
  • Light energy is crucial for photosynthesis in an ecosystem.
  • Energy becomes less concentrated and efficient as it changes form into chemical energy.
  • Some energy is lost as heat during the transformation process.
  • This loss and de-concentration of energy describe the process of entropy.
  • As energy transforms or transfers, entropy increases, leading to energy loss.
  • Without additional energy input into the system, the members of that ecosystem would not be able to survive.
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27
Q

How does the second of thermodynamics relate to energy production?

A

As energy transforms or transfers, entropy increases and energy is lost.

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28
Q

What are the implications of the second law of thermodynamics?

A

Entropy will always increase, so in order to survive, organisms must be supplied with more energy.

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29
Q

What is stability in ecosystems?

A

Stability is the ability of an ecosystem to remain balanced (at equilibrium).

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30
Q

What is stability determined by?

Name 3

A

Climate.
Biodiversity.
Trophic complexity.
Nutrient stores.
Frequency/intensity of disturbances.

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31
Q

How does climate impact system stability?

A

An ecosystem with a steady climate is more stable than ones with extreme weather, since their extreme weather is considered a disturbance. The fewer disturbances that occur, the more stable the ecosystem.

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32
Q

How does biodiversity impact system stability?

A

Higher biodiversity creates a more complex ecosystem. Complex ecosystems are more stable because if one part fails, another can support it. Simple ecosystems may reach their tipping point if one component collapses and nothing can support it.

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33
Q

How does tropic complexity impact system stability?

A

Similar to biodiversity, ecosystems with trophic complexity are more stable because they are not as susceptible to collapse if one organism is lost.

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34
Q

How do nutrient stores impact system stability?

A

The size of nutrient stores, the relative distribution of nutrients in the stores and the rate of nutrient cycling all determine stability. If all the nutrients are held in a single store and that store is lost, then the system can collapse very quickly.

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35
Q

How can the frequency/intensity of disturbances impact system stability?

A

Small, infrequent disturbances can be tolerated and overcome, whilst large and/or frequent ones cause problems.

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36
Q

What is equilibrium?

A

Equilibrium is the steady state of an ecosystem where all organisms are in balance with their environment and with each other.

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37
Q

What are the two types of equilibrium?

A

Unstable static equilibrium and steady-state equilibrium?

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38
Q

What is unstable static equilibrium?

Where does it occur?

A

Unstable static equilibrium occurs only in non-living systems.

It occurs when the components of the system remain constant over long periods of time.

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39
Q

What is steady-state equilibirum?

A

Steady-state equilibrium occurs in a living system, when there are many changes within boundaries, and negative feedback brings the system back to equilibrium.

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40
Q

What is negative feedback?

A

Negative feedback promotes stability by reversing the change that has occurred and re-establishing equilibrium.

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41
Q

What is positive feedback?

A

Positive feedback disrupts stability, and keeps the system away from equilibrium.

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42
Q

What is an example of negative feedback?

A

If humans have a fever that is too high, they can die. As body temperature increases, humans sweat. The evaporation of the sweat removes heat from the body and humans cool down.

Any other relevant examples are also applicable

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43
Q

What is an example of positive feedback?

A

Methane is a greenhouse gas that causes temperatures to rise, which melts permafrost.

When permafrost melts, methane is released, which is a greenhouse and further causes temperatures to rise.

Any other relevant examples.

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44
Q

What is a tipping point?

A

A tipping point is a point where positive feedback causes the system to derail, and establish a new equilibrium.

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45
Q

What would be the consequences of an ecosystem reaching its tipping point?

A

If ecosystems reach their tipping points, environmental services (water cycle, clean air, pollination) could collapse, food production capacity will decrease, marine ecosystems will drop in productivity and the climate may be unsuitable for human existence.

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46
Q

What is sustainability?

A

Sustainability is the management of the exploitation of natural resources that allows for replacement of the resources and full recovery of the ecosystems that may be affected by extraction.

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47
Q

What are renewable resources?

A

Renewable resources are those that can be replaced as fast as they are used.

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48
Q

What are non-renewable resource?

A

Non-renewable resources are those that are used quicker than they can be replaced.

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49
Q

What is natural capital?

A

The global stock of all natural resources that can be used by humans.

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50
Q

What is natural income?

A

Natural income is the economic yield from natural capital.

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51
Q

What is the link between natural capital, income and sustainability?

A

If natural capital is managed sustainably, it will continue to provide natural income for future generations.

If natural capital is managed unsustainably, it will cause a positive feedback cycle, which will result in the depletion of that capital.

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52
Q

What is an indicator of sustainability?

A

Millennium Ecosystem Assessment (MA)

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53
Q

What is an EIA?

A

An EIA (Environmental Impact Assessment) is a study done to identify any environmental impacts of a proposed project and to lessen the environmental impact that the project would create.

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54
Q

What are the stages of an EIA?

A

1) Scoping
2) Baseline study
3) Predicting effects
4) Mitigation
5) Report produced

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55
Q

What is pollution?

A

Pollution is the introduction of a substance into the natural environment at a rate at which it cannot be broken down.

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56
Q

What is point-source pollution?

A

Point-source pollution is pollution coming from a single, identifiable source. E.g. An oil spill from a ship.

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57
Q

What is non-point source pollution?

A

Non-point source pollution is pollution from different sources that make it difficult to monitor and control. E.g. Rubbish in a river dumped at multiple upstream points.

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58
Q

What is organic pollution?

A

Organic pollutants are those that originate from something that was living at one point. They are carbon-based and can be toxic. E.g. Human sewage.

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59
Q

What are inorganic pollutants?

A

Inorganic pollutants are those that are non-living and usually do not contain carbon. E.g. Phosphates from fertilizer.

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60
Q

What are persistent pollutants?

A

Persistent pollutants are those that do not break down easily. The most dangerous ones are POP’s (Persistent Organic Pollutants). E.g. DDT.

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61
Q

What are biodegradable pollutants?

A

Biodegradable pollutants are those that breakdown/decompose due to microorganism activity. E.g. Food waste.

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62
Q

What is acute pollution?

A

Acute pollution is pollution that occurs suddenly and in large quantities over a short period of time. E.g. Oil spill from a pipe.

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63
Q

What is chronic pollution?

A

Chronic pollution is the persistent, long-term emission of pollutants in low concentrations. E.g. Run-off from urban areas washes oil from the roads into rivers.

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64
Q

What are primary pollutants?

A

Primary pollutants are those that are released directly from a source into the environment. E.g. Carbon dioxide from car exhausts.

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65
Q

What are secondary pollutants?

A

Secondary pollutants are those that are formed when two or more primary pollutants react together. E.g. Ozone.

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66
Q

What are the impacts of pollution?

A

Health impacts

Ecosystem impacts

Wildlife impacts

Economic impacts

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67
Q

What are the health impacts of pollution?

A

Respiratory problems

Pollution can contaminate water and/or food sources, leading to the harmful introduction of substances to humans/animals.

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68
Q

What are the ecosystem impacts of pollution?

A

Disruption of ecosystems

Deterioration of water quality

Contamination of soil

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69
Q

What are the wildlife impacts of pollution?

Name 2

A

Habitat loss

Disruption of food chains

Harm animals health/reproduction

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70
Q

What are the economic impacts of pollution?

A

Exacerbate healthcare costs

Damage industries

Result in a loss of workforce productivity

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71
Q

What are the three ways of dealing with pollution?

A

Education

Legislation

Remediation

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72
Q

In what ways can education mitigate pollution?

Name 2 ways

A

Campaigns

Advertisements

Economic incentives.

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73
Q

How can legislation mitigate pollution?

A

Legislation can outlaw the emission of pollutants straight from the source, and control the amount of each pollutant that can be emitted into the atmosphere.

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74
Q

How can remediation mitigate pollution?

A

Remediation is the clean-up of existing pollution to restore the damage created. It is the most difficult and expensive method.

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75
Q

What is DDT?

A

DDT is an example of a POP (Primary Organic Pollutant), and it cannot be broken down.

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76
Q

What is an ecosystem?

A

An ecosystem is defined as a community of interdependent organisms and the physical environment they interact with.

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77
Q

What are abiotic factors?

A

Non-living factors of a system.

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78
Q

What are biotic factors?

A

Living factors of a system

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79
Q

What are the abiotic factors of an ecosystem?

A

Temperature, sunlight, pH, salinity, etc

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80
Q

What are the biotic factors of an ecosystem?

A

Producers, consumers, decomposers, species, populations, etc

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81
Q

What are producers?

A

Producers are plants that convert energy (sunlight) into matter (food for other trophic levels).

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82
Q

What are consumers?

A

Consumers eat the plants and/or the organisms that consume the plant, depending on what trophic level they are.

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83
Q

What are decomposers?

A

Decomposers are usually microorganisms or small organisms (worms, bacteria, etc) that break down waste into component parts for reuse.

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84
Q

What is a species?

A

Species are groups of organisms with common characteristics that can interbreed to produce fertile offspring, as organisms do not function individually.

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85
Q

What is a population?

A

Populations are groups of individuals in the same species living in the same area at the same time.

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86
Q

What is a habitat?

A

A habitat is the environment in which a species usually lives.

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87
Q

What is a niche?

A

The niche is the role an organism plays and the position it holds in the environment.

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88
Q

What are the two types of niches?

A

Fundamental and realised

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89
Q

What is a fundamental niche?

A

A fundamental niche is all the conditions that an animal can survive and reproduce.

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89
Q

What is a realised niche?

A

A realised niche is the actual habitat a species occupies as a result of limiting factors in its environment.

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89
Q

What are the two types of limiting factors?

A

Density-dependent and density-independent

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89
Q

What are limiting factors?

A

Limiting factors are the resources in the environment that limit the growth, abundance and distribution of organisms/populations in an ecosystem.

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89
Q

What are density dependent limiting factors?

Name 1

A

Density-dependent limiting factors are those that only affect the population when it reaches a certain density (competition, disease, parasitism and predation). E.g. Disease spreads best when there are a lot of organisms to infect. They tend to be biotic factors.

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90
Q

What are density independent limiting factors?

A

Density-independent limiting factors will limit populations regardless of their density (sunlight, temperature, water and natural disasters). They tend to be abiotic factors.

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91
Q

What is a carrying capacity?

A

The carrying capacity of an organism is the maximum number of individuals a species can sustainably support in a given area.

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92
Q

What are the types of population growth curves?

A

J-Curves and S-Curves.

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93
Q

What model do J curves illustrate?

A

Exponential, crash-and-boom model.

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94
Q

What do S-curves illustrate?

A

There is a brief period of exponential growth

Population growth then slows down once resources become scarce.

This then stops once the population reaches the carrying capacity.

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95
Q

What is predation?

A

Predation occurs when one organism (the predator) hunts and kills another in order to provide it with energy for survival and reproduction.

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96
Q

What is herbivory?

A

Herbivory is the consumption of plant material by an animal (herbivores).

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97
Q

What is parasitism?

A

Parasitism occurs when an organism (the parasite) takes nutrients from another organism (host).

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98
Q

What is mutualism?

A

Mutualism occurs when two organisms of different species exist in a mutually beneficial relationship.

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99
Q

What is disease?

A

Disease is the departure from the normal state of functioning of any living organism (plant, animal or human).

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100
Q

What is competition?

A

Competition is when organisms compete for a resource that has limited supply.

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101
Q

What are the two types of competition?

A

Intraspecific and interspecific

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102
Q

What is intraspecific competition?

A

Intraspecific competition is when members of the same species compete for a limited resource.

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103
Q

What is interspecific competition?

A

Interspecific competition is when members of different species compete for a limited resource.

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104
Q

What is a community?

A

A community is a group of populations living and interacting with each other in a common habitat.

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105
Q

What is the difference between ecosystems and communities?

A

The difference between ecosystems and communities is that the ecosystem includes the abiotic components, whereas a community is simply the biotic components.

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106
Q

What is photosynthesis?

A

Photosynthesis is a process in which light energy turns into chemical energy by primary producers

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107
Q

What are the inputs of photosynthesis?

A

Light, carbon dioxide, water

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108
Q

What are the outputs of photosynthesis?

A

Glucose and oxygen

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109
Q

What is the chemical equation for photosynthesis?

A

6C02 + 6H20 → C6H1206 + 602

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110
Q

What is respiration?

A

Respiration is the reverse process as photosynthesis.

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111
Q

What are the inputs of respiration?

A

Oxygen and glucose

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112
Q

What are the outputs of respiration?

A

Carbon dioxide and energy

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113
Q

What is a trophic level?

A

A trophic level of an organism is the number of steps it is from the start of the start of the food chain.

A primary producer is in the first trophic level because they are the start of the food chain, a primary consumer is 2nd, a tertiary consumer is 3rd, etc.

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114
Q

What is a food chain?

A

Food chains model trophic levels

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115
Q

How much energy is passed on from one trophic level to the next (formula)?

A

Energy efficiency = (Energy output/Energy input) x 100.

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116
Q

What is bioaccumulation?

A

Bioaccumulation is the increase in the concentration of a pollutant in an organism’s body over time as they ingest it.

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117
Q

What is biomagnification?

A

Biomagnification is the increase in the concentration of a pollutant as it moves up a food chain, from one organism to another.

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118
Q

What is the difference between bioaccumulation and biomagnification?

A

The difference between the two is that biomagnification is the increase in pollutants through different organisms, whereas bioaccumulation is the increase in pollutants in one organism.

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119
Q

What are ecological pyramids?

A

Ecological pyramids are the final way of showing the feeding relationships between groups of organisms.

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120
Q

What are the three types of ecological pyramids?

A

Pyramids of numbers, biomass and energy.

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121
Q

What is a pyramid of numbers?

A

A quantitative representation of the number of individual organisms at each trophic level in an ecosystem.

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122
Q

What is a pyramid of biomass?

A

Pyramids that show the amount of biomass at each trophic level.

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123
Q

What is biomass?

A

Biomass is the mass of living organisms in a given area expressed as dry weight of mass per unit area.

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124
Q

What are pyramids of productivity?

A

Pyramids that show the amount of energy at each trophic level.

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125
Q

What is the unit for biomass?

A

Mass per unit of an area (e.g. grams per unit - gm-2)

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126
Q

What is the unit for productivity?

A

Joules per square metre per year (Jm2yr-1).

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127
Q

What is the solar constant?

A

The solar constant is the average amount of solar energy that reaches the atmosphere when the sun is the average distance away from the earth.

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128
Q

What is insolation?

A

Insolation is the amount of solar radiation received by a surface unit over a given time.

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129
Q

What is Albedo?

A

The reflectivity of a surface is called the Albedo.

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130
Q

What is NPP? What is the formula?

A

Net primary productivity: NPP= GPP (gross) - R (respiration). Expressed as gm-2y-1

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131
Q

What is GSP?

A

Gross secondary productivity: Total productivity of consumers.

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132
Q

What is NSP?

A

Net secondary productivity: NSP = GSP - R (respiration)

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133
Q

What is the formula for GSP?

A

Gross secondary productivity: GSP = Food eaten - faecal loss (g/J m-2y-1)

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134
Q

What is sustainable yield?

A

Sustainable yield is the amount of biomass that can be extracted without reducing the natural capital of an ecosystem.

Natural capital are natural resources that can be economically exploited.

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135
Q

Does matter cycle or flow?

A

Matter cycles (meaning it goes in both directions)

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136
Q

Does energy cycle or flow?

A

Energy flows (only goes in one direction)

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137
Q

What is the process of the carbon cycle?

A

Plants absorb carbon through photosynthesis.

Animals eat plants and carbon is transferred into their bodies.

Animals also release carbon through respiration.

Decomposers (such as the shitake mushroom) break carbon down into organic matter when plants and animals die.

Over millions of years, Carbon is packed under intense pressure to create fossils.

Fossils are excavated and combusted in order to extract energy.

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138
Q

What are the flows of carbon?

A

Photosynthesis: C02 from the atmosphere is absorbed into plants.

Sedimentation: Carbon settles after decomposition and forms part of sediments.

Combustion: Carbon is released back into the atmosphere (by burning it).

Diffusion: CO2 from oceans back into the atmosphere by molecule movement.

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139
Q

What are the stores of Carbon?

A

Atmospheric
Terrestrial plants
Marine plants
Soil and organic matter
Coal, oil and gas
Sediments and rocks
Ocean surface
Deep oceans

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140
Q

What is the biosphere?

A

The biosphere is the worldwide sum of ecosystems (the area where anything is alive).

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141
Q

What is the process of the nitrogen cycle?

A
  1. Nitrogen fixation: Nitrogen gas from the atmosphere is transformed into amonnium (NH4+)
  2. Ammonification: Nitrogen from DOM is transformed into amonnium (NH4+).
  3. Nitrification: Ammonium is transformed into nitrates (No2-) and then further transformed (No3-).
  4. Assimilation: Nitrates are uptaken by plants, and are broken down as ammonium ions (stage 2).
  5. Denitification: No3- is tranformed back into nitrogen gas.
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142
Q

What are the stores of nitrogen?

A

Atmospheric storage.

Soil organic matter.

Ocean.

Terrestrial plant biomass.

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143
Q

How do humans intervene in the nitrogen cycle?

A

Less nitrogen enters the atmosphere because soil is cleared for economic exploitation (less denitrification).

Nitrogen oxides (pollutants) are released due to greater combustion. This contributes to air pollution and smog.

Chemical fertilisers are used (haber-bosch process) instead of organic fertilisers. This removes nitrogen from the atmosphere (less for the nitrogen process).

Livestock release nitrogen through waste into the soil and nearby aquatic systems.

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144
Q

What are biomes?

A

Biomes are associations of vegetation that share similar climate characteristics.

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145
Q

Name 3 biomes.

A

Temperate forest
Tropical Rainforest
Desert
Tundra
Mangrove
Temperate bogs
Coral reefs
Hydrothermal vents.

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146
Q

What are K strategy organisms?

A

K-strategy organisms reproduce small quantities with high quality (a lot of parenting, high survival rates). These organisms survive best in stable environments.

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147
Q

What are R strategy organisms?

A

R-strategy organisms reproduce large quantities in a tradeoff for quality (no parenting, at least some of them survive). These organisms survive best in unstable environments.

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148
Q

What is a survivorship curve?

A

The graphical representation of population longevity is called a survivorship curve.

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149
Q

What are type I organisms on a survivorship curve?

A

K strategy organisms

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150
Q

What are type II organisms on a survivorship curve?

A

Type II are middle ground organisms, they are equally likely to die at birth than to die of old age.

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151
Q

What are type III organisms on a survivorship curve?

A

Type III are R-selected species, where few survive to an old age.

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152
Q

What is succession?

A

Succession is the predictable change in a vegetative area over time.

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153
Q

What is the difference between primary and secondary succession?

A

Primary succession occurs in areas that have never had vegetation, whereas secondary succession occurs when human impact has left an area disturbed (eg. abandoned fields, deforested areas, etc).

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154
Q

What is resilience?

A

Ecological resilience is an ecosystem’s capacity to sustain its processes following ecological disturbances.

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155
Q

What determines the resilience of a system?

A

Stability: THow well the ecosystem can withstand disturbances.

Precariousness: The precariousness of an ecosystem is how close it is to its breaking point.

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156
Q

What are the phases of sucession?

A

Colonisation is the phase in which pioneer species adapt to extreme conditions. These species kick-start the ecosystem. Soil starts to form through weathering and decomposition.

Establishment is the phase in which the quantity of natural resources increases and food, water and habitats develop. In this phase, the ecosystem starts to work as a whole and not as individual components.

Competition is the phase in which abiotic limiting factors are less extreme, meaning that the environment becomes more stable, and more complex organisms populate the area. The complex organisms outcompete the original species.

Stability is the phase in which the amount of new organisms entering the ecosystem decreases. K-strategists dominate the ecosystems.

Climax is the phase in which the ecosystem has high levels of biodiversity and is at equilibrium. The ecosystem will remain this way as long as the climatic conditions remain the same.

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157
Q

What is zonation?

A

Zonation is the change in a vegetative community alongside an environmental gradient.

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158
Q

What is an environmental gradient?

A

An environmental gradient is the change in environmental conditions over a geographical area (altitude, water depth, proximity to ocean, etc).

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159
Q

What is altitudinal zonation?

A

Altitudinal zonation is triggered by changes in altitude.

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160
Q

What is latitudinal zonation?

A

Altitudinal zonation is triggered by changes in latitude.

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161
Q

What is a sample?

A

A small quantity representing the whole, like a soil sample indicating ecosystem contamination.

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162
Q

What is a quadrat?

A

A plot of any shape used to sample, especially for plants or non-motile organisms.

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163
Q

What is a dichotomous key?

A

A series of yes/no questions to help identify organisms.

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164
Q

What is the formula for the lincoln index?

A

N = (n1 x n2) / m2
Where:
N = Total population.
n1 = Number of animals marked in the first capture and release.
n2 = Number of animals recaptured.
m2 = number of animals

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165
Q

What is biodiversity?

A

The term “biodiversity” refers to the amount of living diversity per unit area.

166
Q

What are the three types of biodiversity?

A

Genetic biodiversity.

Species biodiversity.

Habitat biodiversity.

167
Q

What is species biodiversity?

A

Species biodiversity is the variety of species per unit area.

168
Q

What does species diversity measure?

A

Species biodiversity measures both the richness and the abundance of the species in a given area.

169
Q

How can species diversity be calculated?

A

Simpson’s diversity index

170
Q

Simpson’s diversity index is given by the equation D = (N(N-1)) / ∑ (n(n-1)). What do D, N and n represent?

A

D = Simpson Diversity Index.

N = Population of all species in an area.

n = population of a particular species.

171
Q

What is habitat diversity?

A

Habit diversity is a measure of how many habitats are present in an ecosystem, community or biome.

172
Q

What is genetic diversity?

A

Genetic diversity is the range of genetic material present in a gene pool.

173
Q

What is a gene pool?

A

A gene pool is the set of all genes present in a population.

174
Q

What are the determinants of biodiversity?

A

The age of an area.

The environmental stability of an area.

The range of habitats in an area.

175
Q

What determines the range of habitats in an area?

A

Vertical extent of vegetation: with more canopy levels, there is a higher possibility of biodiversity.

Altitude/latitute variation: with a range of altitudes, there is a higher possibility of biodiversity.

Variation in rock and soil types: variations in the abiotic environment lead to more biodiversity.

176
Q

What is the evidence for evolution?

Name 2

A

Artificial selection, convergent evolution, embryology, biogeographical distribution and fossil records.

177
Q

What is speciation?

A

Speciation is the formation of new species through biological processes.

178
Q

What is isolation?

A

Isolation is when something stops organisms from mating with their usual partners, leading to changes in their genes.

179
Q

What are the three types of isolation?

A

Geographic, temporal and behavioural.

180
Q

What is geographic isolation?

A

Geographic isolation occurs when populations are physically separated and can no longer interbreed.

181
Q

What is temporal isolation?

A

Temporal isolation occurs when populations are active at different times of the day and therefore do not meet to breed.

182
Q

What is behavioural isolation?

A

Behavioural isolation occurs when populations have distinct mating rituals.

183
Q

What is natural selection?

A

Natural selection is the gradual evolutionary change that results from genetic variation in each generation.

184
Q

What is the mechanism for natural selection?

A

Within the population of one species, there is genetic diversity (not every organism is the same). This is called variation.

Some genetic traits may be stronger than others to deal with environmental challenges and therefore have comparative advantage (advantage when compared to other members of their species).

Fitter individuals with comparative advantage are more likely to survive long enough to reproduce than those who do not have comparative advantage.

The offspring of fitter individuals may inherit the genes that give them this advantage.

185
Q

What is survival of the fittest?

A

Those with stronger traits are more likely to succeed.

186
Q

What are plate tectonics?

A

Plate tectonics is the scientific theory that explains the movement of Earth’s outer shell, which is divided into several large plates.

187
Q

How does the movement of plate tectonics cause speciation?

A

Plate tectonics causes speciation, because species were physically separated, forced to adjust to their new conditions, and thus evolved to deal with the new environmental conditions.

188
Q

What are the three types of plate boundaries?

A

Divergent, convergent and transformative.

189
Q

What is a mass extinction?

A

A mass extinction is a sudden global decrease in the numbers of species over a relatively short period of time.

190
Q

What is the IUCN red list

A

The IUCN Red List evaluates species’ extinction risk

191
Q

What is the criteria for the IUCN red list placement?

A

The number of mature individuals (reproduction capacity)

Population size reduction

Geographical range

Degree of specialisation

192
Q

What are the categories on the IUCN red list?

A

Extinct

Extinct in the wild

Critically endangered

Endangered

Vulnerable

Near threatened

Least concern

193
Q

What are the two principal causes of extinction?

A

Human causes

Natural (non-human) causes

194
Q

What are examples of natural causes of extinction?

A

Volcanic Eruptions.
Drought.
Meteors.
Glaciers and ice age.
Competition and predation.

195
Q

What are the human causes of extinction?

A

Human causes (HIPPO):

Habitat destruction and fragmentation.

Introduced species.

Pollution.

Practices of agriculture.

Over-hunting.

196
Q

What is the role of governmental organisations in the conservation of biodiversity?

A

Can prosecute violations of regulations in their jurisdictions.

197
Q

What is the role of intergovernmental organisations in the conservation of biodiversity?

A

Agreements are not legally binding under international law, but signatories are responsible for enforcement as GO’s.

198
Q

What is the role of non-governmental organisations in the conservation of biodiversity?

A

Lobby for awareness of environmental issues.

199
Q

What are flagship species?

A

A flagship species is a species selected to act as an ambassador, icon or symbol for a defined habitat, issue, campaign or environmental cause.

200
Q

What is a charismatic species?

A

Charismatic species are usually defined as “popular, charismatic species that serve as symbols and rallying points to stimulate conservation awareness and action.”

201
Q

What is a keystone species?

A

A species on which other species in an ecosystem largely depend, such that if it were removed the ecosystem would change drastically.

202
Q

What are the three methods of conservation?

A

In-situ, ex-situ, mixed

203
Q

What are protected areas?

A

Protected areas are areas under legislation for in-situ conservation

204
Q

What is the criteria for a good protected area?

A

Size, shape, corridors, proximity to other protected areas

205
Q

What are the stores of freshwater?

A

Glaciers/ice caps

Groundwater

Permafrost

Surface/atmospheric

206
Q

What are the flows of water?

A

Evaporation

Freezing

Melting

Deposition (gas to solid)

Sublimation (solid to gas)

207
Q

What are the inputs/outputs of the water cycle?

A

Snow, stream, water in soil moisture (percolation) and groundwater flow into large bodies of water, such as lakes and the ocean.

208
Q

What is the mechanism (process) of the water cycle?

A

Water evaporated from large bodies of water

Water collectes in clouds

Water precipitates and is fed back into the inputs (it becomes snow, groundwater, etc).

209
Q

How do humans alter the water cycle?

A

Humans alter the water cycle through extraction, landscape changes causing flash floods, deforestation increasing flood risk, urbanization preventing water permeation and increasing pollution, and agriculture leading to high water use and pollutant runoff.

210
Q

What is thermohaline circulation?

A

The ocean circulates through a giant conveyor belt, which is also called thermohaline circulation.

211
Q

What is the mechanism of ocean circulation?

A

The colder and the saltier the water is, it leads it to become denser.

Water cools at the poles, sinks, travels to the equator through deep ocean currents, surfaces, warms, travels to the surface through surface currents and reaches the poles.

212
Q

What are the types of diseases originating from polluted water?

A

Water-born, water-washed, water-based and water-related insect vector

213
Q

What do water-born diseases mean?

A

Diseases that occur when an individual drinks contaminated water.

214
Q

What do water-washed diseases mean?

A

Diseases that occur when there is indirect contact with contaminated water.

215
Q

What are water-based diseases?

A

Diseases that occur when the route of entry into humans vary (ingested, worms, indirect contact).

216
Q

What are water-related insect vector diseases?

A

These diseases spread by insects that breed in/near water.

217
Q

Why has water demand increased?

A

Population growth.

Average income increases.

Increased demand for meat (water intensive product).

Growth of industries.

Increase in urbanization.

218
Q

What is the value attributed for water stress?

A

Less than 1700m3/person/year in a country.

219
Q

Why is there water stress?

A

Unsustainable use.

Pollution of water.

Inefficient use.

220
Q

How would reservoirs mitigate water stress?

A

Reservoirs would store water for multiple uses, implement flood control, and allow for water quality management

221
Q

How would artificial recharge mitigate water stress?

A

Artificial Recharge increases groundwater levels, offering a solution to water scarcity by utilizing surface runoff or pumping from surface water

222
Q

How would rainfall harvesting mitigate water stress?

A

Rainfall Harvesting is a low-cost method to collect and use rainwater for domestic purposes, enhancing water availability without significant infrastructure.

223
Q

How would desalination mitigate water stress?

A

Desalination produces drinkable water from seawater,

224
Q

How would redistribution mitigate water stress?

A

Redistribution transfers water from surplus to deficit areas, potentially alleviating local water shortages

225
Q

How would the use of gray water mitigate water stress?

A

Gray Water reuses household wastewater for non-potable purposes, reducing freshwater demand

226
Q

How would reducing demand mitigate water stress?

A

Lowering consumption

227
Q

What are the trophic levels of marine ecosystems?

A

Primary producers such as phytoplankton and seaweeds, which form the base of the food chain.

Primary consumers include zooplankton, ciliates and larvae that eat the primary producers.

Secondary producers are small predators such as small fish and young large fish species.

Tertiary consumers are the top predators, such as large fish (tuna, sharks, etc), marine mammals (dolphins, seals and walruses) and birds (penguins, etc).

228
Q

Why are shallow waters more productive?

A

In shallow water nutrients mix (wind and currents).

River inputs bring in more nutrients.

Sunlight reaches the sea floor, which increases primary productivity.

229
Q

What are the trophic levels in freshwater systems?

A

Primary producers are phytoplankton and macrophytes.

Primary consumers are zooplankton and water snails.
Secondary consumers are fish, birds and frogs.

Tertiary consumers are large fish (e.g. piranhas), large birds and mammals (otters and humans).

230
Q

What are the two main categories of water pollution?

A

Inland/costal pollution
Marine-based polution

231
Q

What are 4 sources of inland/coastal pollution?

A

Potential answers:
Domestic sewage
Industrial discharge
Agricultural run-off
Urban run-off
Land development
Accidental discharges
Atmospheric inputs

232
Q

What are the 4 sources of marine-based pollution?

A

Outfall pipes
Materials dumped at sea
Shipping activities
Exploitation of resources

233
Q

Name 5 impacts of water pollution and their associated sources.

A

Potential answers:

Reduced oxygen, toxic gases, and fish deaths from organic pollutants.

Nutrient overload causing plant overgrowth, reduced light, biodiversity loss, dead zones, and health risks.

Toxic metal accumulation, harming food chains.

Synthetic chemicals damaging aquatic life and causing human health issues.

Light blockage from solids suppressing plants.

Oil spills leading to oxygen depletion and harming marine life.

Pathogens causing health risks up the food chain.

Noise and light disorienting marine animals.

Invasive species disrupting ecosystems.

234
Q

What are the chemical/physical parameters tested for water quality?

A

pH
Temperature
Suspended solids
Dissolved oxygen
Nutrients
Presence of metals

235
Q

What are pathogens?

A

Pathogens are organisms that cause disease to their hosts.

236
Q

What are transient pollutants?

A

Transient pollutants are those that are dispersed prior to testing.

237
Q

What is a microbial test?

A

A microbial test is used when the water is being used for recreational/consumption purposes. This tests for the presence of certain bacteria that are prevalent in contaminated water (e.g. E. Coli).

238
Q

Why is biological testing carried out in water?

A

To detect pathogens and transient pollutants.

239
Q

What are the methods for biologically testing water?

A

Biological monitoring using indicator species.

Biotic index (what organism is present).

Microbial test

240
Q

How can water pollution originating from industrial activity be managed?

A

Replacing harmful chemicals

Obtaining consent licences for wastewater discharge (quota)

On-site treatment to meet standards prior to discharge.

241
Q

How can water pollution originating from agricultural activity be managed?

A

Reducing pesticides/fertilizers, Managing organic waste
Efficient irrigation
Contouring/buffer zones.

242
Q

How can water pollution originating from eutrophication be managed?

A

Improving sewage treatment

Buffer zones

Water aeration

243
Q

What is soil?

A

Soil is a mixture of minerals, organic matter, air and water.

244
Q

What are the functions of soil?

A

A medium for plant growth

Water storage/purification system

245
Q

What factors impact the characteristics of soil?

A

Climate

Organisms

Relief (physical characterists of the land surface)

Parent material

Age

246
Q

What are the biotic components of soil? Provide examples.

A

Micro-organisms: Such as bacteria, algae and fungi.

Macro-organisms: Such as earthworms, insects, mites and millipedes.

247
Q

What are the inputs of soil (as a system)?

A

Minerals

Organic matter

Gases

Water

248
Q

What are the storages of soil?

A

It’s components (air, water, minerals, organic matter).

249
Q

What are the outputs of soil?

A

Wind, water and erosion can loosen or remove layers of topsoil (leeching, erosion and blowing soil away).

Plants intake nutrients and carbon dioxide from soil.

Elements of soil (clay) can become outputs if animals consume them.

250
Q

What is an example of transfers undergone by soil?

A

Leaching: Soluble materials move through the soil, mainly downwards, without changing their nature.

251
Q

What is an example of transformations undergone by soil?

A

Evaporation

Decomposition

Leeching/evaporation

252
Q

What are the layers of the soil profile (in order)?

A

O
A
B
C

253
Q

What is the O horizon of the soil profile?

A

The O horizon is the organic horizon, and it is the top layer of soil. It includes all the DOM (dead organic matter) that is eventually turned into humus.

254
Q

What is the A horizon of the soil profile?

A

The A horizon is the topsoil and mineral layer. In this layer, clay has often been washed out and there is a high organic content layer (leading to a dark colour). The A layer is the topsoil, the area with the most biological activity.

255
Q

What is the B horizon in the soil profile?

A

The B horizon is the sub-soil. This means that there is an accumulation of minerals and particles that have been washed down from layers O and A. Plant roots are found here, but there are very small quantities of DOM.

256
Q

What is the C horizon of the soil profile?

A

The C horizon is the broken down parent material, which means it may have weathered and clumped.

257
Q

What 3 elements (not chemical) determine soil texture?

A

Sand

Silt

Clay

258
Q

What factors determine the type of farming applied to a certain area?

A

Environmental conditions

Access to vehicles/technology

Financial resources

EVS

Government/political initiatives

259
Q

What are the types of farming?

A

Intensive commercial (crop)
farming.

Intensive animal farming.

Organic farming.

Subsistence farming.

Intensive subsistence farming.

260
Q

What characterises intensive animal farming? What methods does it use, and what are the environmental impacts of those methods?

A

Follows the same model as intensive crop farming, maximises outputs by inputting costly resources.

Intensive husbandry maximises output with confined spaces.

Disease spread, ethical concerns, use of growth hormones/antibiotics and the fact that organic waste contaminates water systems.

261
Q

What characterises intensive crop farming? What methods does it use, and what are the environmental impacts of those methods?

A

General idea: Tends to be more aligned with monoculture (specialising in one crop)

Techniques: The use of GMO’s (Genetically Modified Organisms), fertilisers, irrigation systems and mechanical equipment results in high (often unsustainable) yields.

Environmental challenges, which include pesticides, fertilisers, high water use, monoculture (increases risk of contaminated crop), emissions from mechanical equipment, soil degradation and habitat loss.

262
Q

What characterises organic crop farming? What methods does it use?

A

General idea: Limits chemical/pesticide use.

Techniques: Physical/biological pest control, use of natural fertilisers (manure, compost, etc) and polyculture farming (multiple crops).

Livestock management: Organic feed, no routine drugs/growth hormones and open space with outdoor access.

263
Q

What characterises subsistence farming? What methods does it use?

A

General idea: Land is cleared by slash and burn, used until fertility declines, then abandoned for new areas.

Techniques: Land management (slash and burn) and fallow periods (allowing land to regenerate before reusing).

Challenges: Lack of sustainability causes fallow periods to shorten, leading to low crop production as a whole. Slash and burn techniques can grow out of control and cause wildfires.

264
Q

What is food waste mainly attributed to in LEDCs?

A

For LEDCs (Least Economically Developed Countries), food waste is mainly attributed to pests, poor infrastructure and lack of refrigeration.

265
Q

What is food waste mainly attributed to in MEDCs?

A

For MEDCs (Most Economically Developed Countries), food waste is mainly attributed to consumer behaviour and regulatory standards.

266
Q

What has caused an increase in the demand for meat?

A

Population growth, increasing affluence, cultural status, rise in cheap meat production and awareness of the high protein content of meat.

267
Q

What are the impacts of an increased demand for meat?

A

Environmental degradation, increased water use/pollution and exacerbating impacts of climate change.

268
Q

What are sustainable farming strategies?

A

Legislation can be used to restrict certain substances (e.g. DDT) and set regulations for food production (controlled use of drugs/hormones, pesticides, etc).

Reduction of food waste.

Growing indigenous crops (crops adapted to low fertility and rainfall).

Polyculture farming

269
Q

Is soil a renewable or non-renewable resource? Why?

A

Soil is considered a non-renewable resource, given the time it takes to develop.

270
Q

What pH level is best for fertile soil?

A

Between 5.5 and 7.5

271
Q

What are the threats to soil fertility?

A

Erosion

Chemical degregation

Physical degregation

272
Q

What human activities contribute to soil degradation?

A

Urbanisation

Overgrazing

Deforestation

Farming practices

273
Q

What are the impacts of soil degradation?

A

Reduced soil fertility

Increased flooding

Desertification

274
Q

What are strategies that can mitigate soil degradation?

A

Vegetation cover

Terracing

Furrow diking

Conservation tillage

Buffer strips

Wind-breaking crops

Water management

Proper drainage

Organic matter addition

Crop rotation

Limit animal numbers

Rotational grazing

275
Q

What are the main components of the atmosphere?

A

Nitrogen (78%)

Oxygen (21%)

276
Q

What are the layers of the atmosphere (in order)?

A

Troposphere

Stratosphere

Mesosphere

Thermosphere

277
Q

What is the troposphere?

A

The troposphere is the level from sea level to 10km in the atmosphere.

278
Q

What are the processes in the trophosphere?

A

The sun heating the atmosphere/earth

Wind speeds

Jet stream

Weather

Greenhouse effect

279
Q

What is the stratosphere?

A

The stratosphere is the layer that extends from 10 to 50 kms above sea level.

The ozone is in the stratosphere, and ozone particles absorb UV radiation from the sun.

280
Q

What is the mesophere?

A

The mesosphere is the layer of the atmosphere that ranges from 50 to 80 kms above sea level.

There are no particles to absorb UV radiation, making it the coldest layer of the atmosphere (-100 degrees celsius).

281
Q

What is the thermosphere?

A

The thermosphere is the top layer of the atmosphere.

It extends from 80 - 500/1,000 kms above sea level.

282
Q

What is the functions of the ozone layer?

A

The ozone layer protects organisms from harmful UV (ultraviolet) rays (radiation) emitted by the sun.

283
Q

What are the three types of UV rays and their attributed characteristics?

A

UV-A rays are the longest wavelength. Ozone is unable to absorb this radiation.

UV-B rays are the second longest wavelength. Ozone absorbs most of the radiation, but some passes through to earth.

UV-C rays are the shortest (highest energy) rays and ozone is able to absorb all this radiation.

284
Q

What is the most dangerous UV ray for organisms?

A

UV-B

285
Q

What are the impacts of UV-B rays reaching the toposphere?

A

Sunburn, and related effects (cataracts, skin cancer, ect).

Immune-system suppression.

Reduction in crop production.

Lower levels of primary
production in food webs (primary producers, e.g. phytoplankton).

Reduction in forest productivity (exacerbating climate change, less carbon dioxide absorption).

286
Q

What are the units for ozone levels?

A

Dobson Units (DU)

287
Q

What are the threats to stratospheric ozone?

A

Chemicals can react with ozone (o3) and deplete it.

This causes more harmful radiation to reach earth.

These chemicals are called ODS (Ozone Depleting Substances). Often time, they include chlorine and bromine.

288
Q

Give an example of an ODS

A

Chlorofluorocarbons are a type of ODS. They were used as coolants, propellants in aerosol, cleaning agents and for other miscellaneous purposes.

289
Q

What is the term used to refer to the variation in stratospheric ozone levels around the world?

A

Spatial differences

290
Q

Name one solution for the conservation of ozone levels.

A

Possible answers:

International agreement (UN committees, etc).

National legislations

Public awarness

291
Q

What is air pollution?

A

Air pollution is the introduction of harmful particulate matter into the air

292
Q

What is urban air pollution?

A

Urban air pollution is matter that is introduced into the air through urban activities (burning of fossil fuels, driving, etc).

293
Q

What are the three sources of urban air pollution? Give examples of each.

A

Natural (volcanos)

Stationary (factory emissions)

Mobile (train fumes)

294
Q

What pollutants are emitted by urban air pollutants?

A

Carbon dioxide

Sulphur dioxide

Nitrogen Oxides

295
Q

What are the impacts of the emission of sulphur dioxide?

A

Respiratory problems

Eye irritation

Acid rain

296
Q

What are the impacts of the emission of nitrogen oxides?

A

Respiratory irritation

Photochemical smog

Visibility reduction

Particulate matter

297
Q

What is photochemical smog?

A

Photochemical smog is a type of air pollution that forms when pollutants from vehicle emissions and industrial processes react in the presence of sunlight.

298
Q

What pollutants are primarily involved in the formation of photochemical smog?

A

The chemical reaction occurs between nitrogen oxides (NOx) and volatile organic compounds (VOCs). It has hundreds of other chemicals but those are the main ones.

299
Q

What factors influence the production of photochemical smog?

A

High emissions of pollutants

High levels of insolation

Light winds/rain

Topography (valleys)

Presence of thermal inversion

300
Q

What small-scale solutions could manage photochemical smog?

A

Changing human behaviour

Economic incentives

Technological changes

301
Q

What is acid deposition?

A

Acid deposition is the deposition of acidic substances from the atmosphere onto the Earth’s surface, causing environmental harm.

302
Q

What is the term acidity?

A

Acidity refers to the level of hydrogen ions present in a substance and is expressed as pH.

303
Q

What pH level is considered to be ‘acidic’

A

Lower than pH 7

304
Q

Describe the mechanism of acid deposition

A

Primary pollutants sulphur dioxide (SO2) and nitrogen oxides (NOx) reacting in the atmosphere.

They create the secondary pollutants of Sulphuric acid (H2SO4) and Nitric acid (HNO3).

This causes pH of deposition to drop below 5.

305
Q

What is wet deposition?

A

Wet deposition occurs when pollutants are incorporated into clouds or precipitation.

306
Q

What is dry deposition?

A

Dry deposition occurs when gravity causes pollutants to become absorbed into plants or buildings.

307
Q

How does the presence of wind impact pollutants?

A

Strong winds disperse pollutants, but also cause them to travel long distances.

Light winds allow pollutants to accumulate.

308
Q

What are the impacts of acid deposition in an aquatic ecosystem?

A

It can lower the pH of water beyond levels suitable for the survival of aquatic organisms.

The loss of these species can alter food chains/webs.

pH being lowered causes the release of aluminium ions, which harms fish.

309
Q

What are the impacts of acid deposition on soil acidity?

A

Acid deposition increases soil acidity (lowers productivity).

Lower pH causes the release of aluminium ions, which harms plant roots.

Overall, it lowers crop yield, productivity and plant damage.

310
Q

What methods can be used to mitigate acid deposition?

A

Changing human behaviour (carpooling to reduce the amount of pollutants emitted into the air)

Economic instruments (Carbon taxes)

Technology (Solar panels for renewable energy)

Legislation (Emission standards for vehicles/industries).

311
Q

What are fossil fuels?

A

Fossil fuels are composed of coal, oil and natural gas, they supply the energy that society needs.

312
Q

How are fossil fuels created?

A

Fossil fuels are created from dead organic matter under pressure for millions of years.

313
Q

What are the benefits of fossil fuels?

A

Infrastructure is already established to rely on fossil fuels. E.g. rail links are connected to an electricity grid powered by coal.

High energy content.

Relatively cheap.

Currently, relatively abundant.

314
Q

What are the disadvantages of fossil fuel use?

A

Finite resources that are unsustainably used.

Extraction of fossil fuels can destroy habits and reduce biodiversity.

Transport and combustion of fossil fuels produces emissions

Power plants require large volumes of water, which can compromise the biodiversity of aquatic ecosystems, and its discharge can cause thermal pollution.

315
Q

What is coal? How is it extracted, and what are the impacts of its extraction?

A

Coal is the most abundant of all fossil fuels.

It is extracted through mining, which can be hazardous to human health and safety.

316
Q

What is oil? How is it extracted, and what are the impacts of its extraction?

A

Oil is another fossil fuel that is usually pumped from underground reservoirs, which can pollute underground aquifers and cause oil spills.

317
Q

What is natural gas? How is it extracted, and what are the implications of its extraction?

A

Natural gas is the fossil fuel that contaminates its environment the least.

It is extracted from sub-surface rock formations via drilling (fracking).
Fracking is a process in which water, sand and chemicals are pumped at high pressure through rocks, causing the release of natural gases.

318
Q

What is nuclear power?

A

Nuclear power is power generated by a nuclear reactor.

319
Q

How can radioactive waste be managed?

A

Low-level radioactive waste can be filtered and released into the environment little by little.

However, solid and other waste needs to be carefully disposed of.

In order to discard radioactive materials, most plants use underground repositories (storage). The concerns of this is that it can rupture.

320
Q

What are two notable nuclear disasters?

A

Chernobyl and Fukushima

321
Q

What are the advantages of using nuclear power?

A

Nuclear power stations do not produce carbon dioxide, an exacerbator of climate change.

Compared to fossil fuels, nuclear power causes fewer casualties (coal mining accidents or premature death from air pollution).

322
Q

What are the disadvantages of using nuclear power?

A

Generation of nuclear waste with high radioactive levels.

Risk of nuclear disasters.

Potential use of radioactive materials used to produce nuclear weapons.

High capital cost and high decommissioning cost (when plant is created/dismantled).

323
Q

What are sources of renewable energy? Name 3.

A

Solar

Wind

Hydropower

Biomass

Geothermal

Wave/tidal

324
Q

What are the benefits of using renewable energy?

A

Improvements in local air quality (less production of primary and secondary pollutants)

Reduced greenhouse gas emissions.

325
Q

What factors could accelerate the growth of renewable energy? Name 3.

A

Decline in fossil fuel reserves (drives price up).

Technological developments improving efficiency of renewable energy and capital cost.

Governmental support through economic incentives (subsidies).

Increasing awareness of the climate impact of fossil fuels.

Need to meet international energy targets.

326
Q

What are the advantages and disadvantages of solar power?

A

Advantages:
- They can be used in remote areas.
- Low running cost.
- Silent.
- Does not emit pollutants when operating.

Disadvantages:
- Can only function off sunlight.
- High capital cost.
- Instalment emits carbon dioxide.
- Energy needs storing.

327
Q

What are the advantages and disadvantages of wind power?

A

Advantages:
- Inexhaustible energy source.
- Can be used in remote areas.
- Once installed, does not pollute.
- Operational cost is low.

Disadvantages:
- Wind-dependent
- Noisy
- Aesthetically displeasing
- Can kill birds.
- High cost (upfront)
- Energy needs storing.

328
Q

What is hydroelectic power?

A

Hydroelectric power (HEP) is produced when water flows through a turbine connected to a generator.

329
Q

What are the advantages and disadvantages of HEP?

A

Advantages:
- Low running cost
- Sustainable
- Dams regulate the risk of flooding and provide an ecosystem
- Opportunities for recreation.

Disadvantages:
- High capital cost
- Dam construction can alter systems (human displacement, loss of habitat/species diversity, loss of sediment downstream, disruption of migratory fish patterns)

330
Q

What is geothermal power?

A

Geothermal power is power that is derived from geothermal energy.

Geothermal energy is heat from the Earth, used to generate electricity or heat buildings.

331
Q

What are the advantages and disadvantages of geothermal power?

A

Advantages:
- Cheap to operate
- Emits low levels of GHG
- Somewhat reliable supply
- Sustainable

Disadvantages:
- High capital cost
- Poisonous gases trapped under the surface of the earth can be released
- Limited to areas near volcanic activity.

332
Q

How is geothermal power sourced?

A

It is generated by drilling wells into reservoirs filled with water and/or steam, and pushing that through pipes in order to spin turbines.

The movement of these turbines generates electricity through a generator, which creates electricity.

333
Q

What is energy security?

A

Energy security is defined as “the uninterrupted availability of energy sources at an affordable price”.

334
Q

What are the factors that impact energy security?

A

The supply of energy meets the demand for energy.

Reliable supply that is not interrupted (e.g. conflict)

Affordable supply.

335
Q

Name 3 threats to energy security.

A

Possible answers:

Political instability and/or conflict in a country/region.

Accidents (industry) or natural disasters.

Risk of terrorist attacks or faulty supply infrastructure.

Exhaustion of resources.

336
Q

How can the risk of threats to energy security be mitigated?

A

Reducing imports (becoming more self-sufficienent)

Diversifying energy sources.

Promoting energy choices that favour conservation.

337
Q

What factors impact the energy choices made by individuals?

A

Availability

Sustainability

Scientific/technological developments

EVS

Economics

338
Q

What is climate?

A

Climate is the average weather over the long term at a regional level (e.g. Temperature in North America over the years).

339
Q

What is weather?

A

Weather refers to the conditions over a short period of time at a local level (e.g. Rain in Panama City on the 5th of February).

340
Q

What factors impact climate outside the atmosphere?

A

Solar radiation

Tilting and orbiting of the earth

341
Q

What factors affect climate within the atmosphere?

A

Greenhouse gases

Volcanic activity

Feedback cycles

342
Q

What is atmospheric circulation?

A

Atmospheric circulations refer to the large-scale movement of air in the earth’s atmosphere.

343
Q

What are the latitudinal extents of the Hadley, Ferrel, and Polar atmospheric circulation cells?

A

Hadley cell: Extends from 0° (Equator) to 30° latitude in both hemispheres.

Ferrel cell: Found between about 30° and 60° latitude in both hemispheres.

Polar cell: Extends from around 60° latitude to the poles (90° North and South latitude).

344
Q

What is an example of positive feedback in climate?

A

Possible answers:
- Water vapour
- Ice albedo
- Permafrost melting
- Carbon Dioxide solubility
- Cloud cover

345
Q

What is an example of negative feedback in climate?

A
  • Plant photosynthesis
  • Cloud cover
346
Q

What are range shifts?

A

Range shifts mean that with a change in climatic conditions, there is expected to be a general shift of biomes, with animals/plants moving towards the poles and upwards in elevation as the equator becomes hotter. Range shifts include biome shifts (alteration of habitats) and the extinction of less adaptive species.

347
Q

How will migration patterns alter as climate changes? What impact will this have?

A

Migration patterns will change, as migratory species usually move in response to seasonal changes. As seasonal changes alter, changes in migration and mating times, will potentially lead to mismatches in food availability.

348
Q

How will costal societies be impacted by climate change? Name 3 impacts.

A

Potential answers:

Storm intensity.

Sea level rise.

Heatwaves.

Food/water shortages.

Environmental refugees.

349
Q

What is mitigation?

A

Mitigation is defined as human intervention to reduce the source of greenhouse gas emissions or to enhance carbon sinks.

350
Q

What is a carbon sink?

A

A carbon sink is anything that absorbs more carbon from the atmosphere than it releases.

351
Q

What is geo-engineering?

A

Geo-engineering involves manipulating the earth’s environmental systems to counteract the impacts of climate change.

352
Q

What are the two types of geo-engineering?

A

Carbon dioxide removal

Solar radiation management

353
Q

What are some geo-engineering strategies for carbon dioxide removal?

A

Land use management (reforestation, reducing deforestation).

Carbon capture and storage

Absorption by oceans (ocean fertilisation with nutrients, mechanical upwelling to increase photosynthesis by phytoplankton.)

354
Q

What are theoretical geo-engineering strategies for solar radiation management?

A

Increasing earth’s surface reflectivity includes painting rooftops with white paint, cultivating high-albedo crops, covering deserts with reflective materials. It would result in a higher reflection of sunlight into space.

The use of aerosol particles, in order to attract water molecules within clouds. It would result in enhanced cloud reflectivity, more sunlight reflected into space, potential reduction in global warming.

Solar detectors in space would involve the deployment of solar deflectors or mirrors in space. It would result in reduced sunlight reaching earth and a potential decrease in global temperatures.

355
Q

What is adaptation?

A

Adaptation is defined as an adjustment to actual/expected climate and its effects, aiming to moderate harm or exploit beneficial opportunities.

356
Q

What is the difference between mitigation and adaptation? List 3 differences.

A

Mitigation is addressing the causes of climate change, whereas adaptation addresses the effects of climate change.

The effects of mitigation can be seen on a global scale, whereas the effects of adaptation are at a local level.

Mitigation is easy to measure (levels of atmospheric GHG), whereas adaptation is not.

357
Q

What are adaptation strategies for water resources impacted by changing environmental conditions?

A

Water conservation

Desalination plants

Bans on building in flood-prone areas

Flood control (barriers, drainage improvements, diversion strategies)

Infrastructure modifications to withstand floods.

358
Q

What are adaptation strategies for agriculture/fisheries?

A

Agricultural adaptation: development and use of crops resilient to climate changes, adjusting planting and harvesting times and water conservation techniques.

Fisheries adaptation: reduce fishing intensity and catches, alongside the diversification of fisherman’s employment.

359
Q

What are adaptation strategies for ecosystems?

A

Expanding conservation areas.

Creating corridors for species migration.

Protecting vulnerable areas.
Forest fire management.

360
Q

What are adaptation strategies for coastal societies?

A

Construction and reinforcement of seawalls and coastal defences.

Contingency plans for floods.

Assigned retreat and relocation areas for coastal populations.

361
Q

What are adaptation strategies for human health?

A

Monitoring systems for health risks associated with climate change.

Vaccination programmes.

Public health education on climate-related health precautions.

362
Q

What are the barriers for mitigation and adaptation? Name 4 (two of each).

A

Possible answers:
Political and economic factors including public opinion, fear of stunting economic growth, fossil fuel dependence and the prioritisation of short-term benefits are all a barrier for implementing change.

Implementation challenges, such as knowledge gaps, policy integration (poor incorporation), communication breakdowns, regulatory weakness, political instability/corruption, procrastination and financial/technological limitations all hinder change. These are especially prominent in LEDCs.

363
Q

What are methods to overcome the barriers for mitigation and adaptation? Name 3.

A

Possible answers:
Knowledge sharing.

Complementary strategies (mitigation and adaptation being integrated).

Effective communication.

Commitment/collaboration.

Financial/logistical/technological support.

MEDCs providing support for LEDCs.

364
Q

What is demography?

A

Demography is the study of populations of any organism.

365
Q

How is fertility measured?

A

CBR (Crude Birth Rate) and TFR (Total Fertility Rate).

366
Q

How is mortality measured?

A

CDR (Crude Death Rate)

367
Q

How is the balance of fertility and mortality determined?

A

NIR (Natural Increase Rate) and the DT (Doubling Time)

368
Q

What is CBR?

A

The crude birth rate (CBR) is the number of births/1000 per year.

OR

It details how many babies are born each year for every thousand people in the population of a country.

369
Q

What is the formula for CBR?

A

CBR =

Number of births/ Population

x

1000

370
Q

What is TFR?

A

The total fertility rate (TFR) is the number of children a woman is expected to have in her lifetime:

371
Q

What is the critical value of TFR and what does it indicate?

A

The critical value of TFR is 2.2.

A TFR greater than 2.2 in a country indicates an increasing population.

A TFR of 2.2 in a country indicates a stable population.

A TFR lower than 2.2 in a country indicates a decreasing population.

372
Q

What is IMR?

A

The infant mortality rate (IMR) is the number of babies that die in the first year of their life.

373
Q

What is the formula for IMR?

A

IMR =

Number of deaths of children less than a year old/ Number of live births in the same year

x

1000

374
Q

What are the factors that impact CBR and TFR? Name 3 and explain one verbally.

A

The role of children in the labour force.

The rates of urban living.

Women’s status.

Lifestyle and cultural norms.

Infant mortality rate.

Pensions.

Family planning/abortions.

Religious beliefs/traditions.

Government policy.

375
Q

What is CDR?

A

The crude death rate is the number of deaths per year per a thousand people of the population.
It details how many people die each year for every thousand people in the population.

376
Q

What is the formula for CDR?

A

CDR =

Deaths in one year/ total population

x

1000

377
Q

Name 3 factors that affect death rates and explain 1.

A

Income

Education

Access to food

Availability of health care

Water supply/sanitation

Access to shelter

378
Q

What is the NIR?

A

The rate of natural increase refers to the difference between the number of live births and the number of deaths occurring in a year

379
Q

What does it mean if fertility is greater than mortality and vice versa?

A

If fertility > mortality, fertility is positive.
If fertility < mortality, fertility is negative.

380
Q

What is the formula for NIR?

A

NIR =

(CBR - CDR) / 10

381
Q

What is DT?

A

The doubling time is how long it will take a given population to double in size.

382
Q

What is the formula for DT?

A

DT =

70/NIR

383
Q

What is the malthusian theory?

A

The malthusian theory suggests that population growth outpaces agricultural production, leading to famine, disease, and war as natural checks on population.

384
Q

What is neo-malthusian theory?

A

Emphasises not only the potential for overpopulation to cause scarcity and conflict but also advocates for population control measures, including family planning and contraception, to prevent these outcomes.

385
Q

What is overpopulation?

A

Overpopulation refers to a situation where the number of people exceeds the capacity of the environment to support life at a sustainable level.

386
Q

Name 3 consequences of overpopulation and explain one.

A

Rising price of grains (increased demand).

Unsustainable population levels exceeding the carrying capacity of regions.

Deforestation for urban expansion, agriculture, and mining.

Overexploitation of oceans depleting fish stocks.

Topsoil depletion due to over-cropping.

387
Q

What are the three types of population pyramids?

A

Expansive, constrictive and stationary pyramids.

388
Q

What are expansive pyramids? What do they indicate and where are they common.

A

Expansive pyramids are characterised by a broad base, indicating a high birth rate and a rapidly growing population.

These are common in developing countries.

They show larger numbers or percentages of the population in the younger age groups, usually with each age group smaller in size or proportion than the one born before it.

389
Q

What are constrictive pyramids? What do they indicate and where are they common.

A

Constrictive pyramids are characterised by a narrow base, indicating a decrease in fertility as less people have children.

These are most common in developed countries.

390
Q

What are stationary pyramids? What do they indicate?

A

Stationary pyramids display relatively equal numbers across age groups, although older age groups logically have lower populations.

This indicates low birth rates and low death rates, suggesting a stable population.

391
Q

What is the DTM?

A

Demographic transition model (DTM) is a theoretical framework that describes the transition of a country from high birth/death rates to low birth/death rates through stages of economic development.

392
Q

Name and explain each phase of the DTM.

A

Pre-industrial (high stationary) stage: Characterised by high birth and death rates, resulting in slow population growth. The economy is predominantly agricultural, and families tend to have many children for labour purposes.

Transitional (early expanding) stage: Death rates begin to decline significantly due to improvements in healthcare, sanitation, and nutrition, but birth rates remain high. This leads to rapid population growth. Economies start to transition from agriculture to industrialization.

Industrial (late expanding) stage: Birth rates start to decline, catching up with the decline in death rates, as a result of changes in societal values, increased access to contraception, and women entering the workforce. The population growth rate begins to slow down. The economy sees significant industrial growth.

Post-industrial (low stationary) stage: Both birth and death rates are low, stabilising the population growth at a low level. The economy is characterised by more service-oriented industries, and there is a high standard of living.

392
Q

What are the levels of CBR and CDR at each phase of the DTM?

A

In the first stage, there is a high CBR and CDR.

In the second stage, there is a high CBR and a falling CDR.

In the third stage, there is a falling CBR and CDR.

In the fourth stage, there is a low CBR and CDR.

393
Q

What are development policies?

A

Any government policy that either directly or indirectly impacts fertility and mortality are known as development policies.

394
Q

What are indirect development policies? Provide an example.

A

Definition:
Indirect government policies impacting fertility and mortality rates are measures not directly targeting these outcomes but influence them by affecting socio-economic conditions, healthcare access, education, and quality of life.

Example:
An example of an indirect government development policy are the Millennium Development Goals (MDGs) that were established by the UN in 2000.
They are a set of eight international development goals.
They include goals such as: “Ensure that, by 2015, children everywhere, boys and girls alike, will be able to complete a full course of primary schooling” and “Eliminate gender disparity in primary and secondary education, preferably by 2005, and in all levels of education no later than 2015”.
Once education levels and the status of women change, this will indirectly impact fertility rates.

395
Q

What are direct development policies? What are the two types?

A

Direct governmental policies that impact demographics are related to fertility.

Direct governmental development policies may be pro-natalist (ones that increase fertility rates) or anti-natalist (ones that decrease fertility rates.)

396
Q

Name 2 anti-natalist policies and 1 pro-natalist policies.

A

Anti-natalist strategies include:

Tax/welfare disincentives.
Raise awareness.

Pro-natalist strategies include:

Tax/welfare incentives.

397
Q

What is natural capital?

A

Natural capital is the set of renewable and non-renewable natural resources of an ecosystem.

398
Q

What are the types of natural capital?

A

Economic

Cultural/spiritual

Environmental capital

Technological capital

399
Q

What is economic capital and what is an example?

A

Economic capital: A resource that is tangible that has monetary value (E.g. gold has a known value according to weight and quality (carat)).

Technological advancements, economic conditions, and environmental considerations will alter the value of economic capital.

400
Q

What is cultural/spiritual capital and what is an example?

A

Cultural/Spiritual capital
represents the heritage and spiritual significance of sites and traditions valued within a culture or religion (E.g. Uluru (a rock formation in Australia) is sacred to Aboriginal Australians, representing spiritual capital).

401
Q

What is environmental capital and what is an example?

A

Environmental capital consists of natural resources and ecosystems that support life and economic activity (E.g. The Amazon Rainforest is a form of environmental capital for Colombia, Brazil and other South-American countries).

402
Q

What is technological capital and what is an example?

A

Technological capital is when technology itself becomes a form of capital that can either enhance or deplete natural capital (E.g. Sources of renewable energy).

403
Q

What is SDW?

A

Solid domestic waste (SDW) is also known as rubbish, trash and garbage.

OR

It is the everyday items that are discarded by the human population.

404
Q

What are the types of SDW?

A

Organic material.

Paper.

Plastics.

Glass.

Metals.

Hazardous.

405
Q

What are landfills and their associated advantages/disadvantages?

A

A landfill site is a large hole in the ground where waste materials are buried.
In order for landfills to be non-hazardous, they must be lined with clay/synthetic flexible membrane to avoid the absorption of waste into ground water, they must be as small as possible, waste must be regularly compacted and it must be daily covered with soil in order to avoid lighter waste from blowing away.

The advantages of landfills are that it is a cheap method of waste disposal and they create jobs for local communities.

The disadvantages of landfills are that they emit dangerous gases during decomposition, it can cause the pollution of groundwater, their span is limited, are aesthetically unpleasing and increase the spread of disease.

406
Q

What are incineraters and their associated advantages/disadvantages?

A

Incineration is a waste disposal method in which waste is combusted (burnt).
After waste is initiated, it is converted into ash (what is left after the burn), flue gas (the emission from combustion plants, comprising the byproducts of fuel and combustion air, along with residuals like ash) and heat.

The advantages of incinerating waste are it reduces the volume of waste, destroys pathogens in waste and it can be used to generate electricity.

The disadvantages of incinerating waste are it emits varying levels of heavy metals, releases carcinogenic pollutants, causes property devaluation, has a high capital cost and takes away local jobs provided by landfills.

407
Q

What is reducing, reusing and recycling and its associated advantages and disadvantages?

A

Reduce the amount of waste being produced in the first place.
Reuse an item multiple times, either for the original purpose or for some other purpose. Recycle the material of the object by transforming it into the raw material for a new object.

The advantages of this method are that it reduces landfill waste, conserves resources and encourages changes in human behaviour.

The disadvantages of this method are that it is inefficient and requires individual action, which does not always occur.

408
Q

What is composting and its associated advantages/disadvantages?

A

Compositing is the process of turning organic waste materials into a nutrient-rich soil material through natural decomposition.
In order to compost, organic waste has to be collected and stored until it decomposes, where it can act as a soil fertiliser.
It combines the three R’s. Removing organic material from the waste stream reduces the amount going into landfills. The decomposed organic matter is reused and recycled as soil fertiliser.

The advantages of composting is that it reduces waste, is cost-effective and improves soil health.

The disadvantages of composting is that it is time consuming, requires space and not all food can be composted (e.g. meat and dairy will rot, producing a foul odour).

409
Q

What is the carrying capacity of the human population?

A

The carrying capacity of the human population discusses whether or not a population is living sustainably.

If a population is living sustainably, there are enough natural resources to provide for the population without causing environmental damage.

410
Q

What are the reasons as to why the human carrying capacity is difficult to asses?

A

Waste assimilation: The environment’s capacity to absorb, neutralise, or recycle waste impacts human carrying capacity by determining the limits of sustainable pollution and waste production. If the waste produced by a population is greater than the environment can absorb, then the carrying capacity of that population will be lowered.

Range of resources: The diversity and availability of natural resources, from water to minerals, influence carrying capacity by affecting the supportable population size based on resource needs.

Imports: The ability to import resources from other regions affects carrying capacity by potentially allowing a population to exceed its local environmental limits through external resources.

Technology: Technological advancements impact carrying capacity by improving efficiency in resource use, waste management, and the ability to harness new resources.

411
Q

What is an ecological footprint?

A

An ecological footprint is a measure of the amount of land that is needed to support a population.

412
Q

What are the two aspects of an EF?

A

Biocapacity is the biological capacity (supply) of an area/region/country to generate the resources and absorb the wastes of a given population.

Demand looks at how much productive land is needed (demanded) to supply our resources, space for buildings and roads, and to soak up the waste we create.

413
Q

What are the components of an EF?

A

Energy, travel and goods: This component calculates the footprint associated with energy consumption, including electricity and fuel for transportation and the production of consumer goods.

Settlement and infrastructure: This measures the land area needed for housing, urban development, and public infrastructure like roads and buildings.

Food and fibre: This part assesses the amount of land and water required to produce the food we eat and the natural materials (like cotton) we use for clothing and other goods.

Seafood: This component estimates the ecological impact and necessity of harvesting seafood from oceans and freshwater bodies.

414
Q

What are the different types of EF?

A

Carbon footprint is the total amount of greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions caused by an individual, city, event, flight, country etc. GHG are emitted through transport, land clearance production and consumption of all goods.

Water footprint is the amount of water in an EF. This includes the water you use directly (washing and drinking) and indirectly such as the amount of water it takes to grow your food.

Food footprint takes into account the land used in food production (crops, grass, animal feed), the land needed to absorb carbon emissions produced during food production and the sea area for fishing.

415
Q

How are ecological footprints measured?

A

Ecological footprints are measured in gha/person:

Gha = global hectare.

416
Q

Define a biocapacity defecit/remainder.

A

A biocapacity deficit means that there is a greater demand for natural resources than the available supply, meaning the EF indicates that the given population is living unsustainably.

A biocapacity remainder means that there is a greater supply of natural resources than the demand, meaning the EF indicates that the given population is living sustainably.