Anatomy Flashcards

1
Q

What is the front of the face supplied by, cranial or cervical nerves ?

A

Cranial nerves

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2
Q

What is the region behind the ear/neck supplied by ?

A

Cervical nerves

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3
Q

Which survival nerves supply the head and neck ?

A

Anterior and posterior rami or cervical nerves C2,3,4

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4
Q

What does C1 do motor/sensory or both ?

A

Only motor innervation

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5
Q

How do sympathetic nerves get to head and neck ?

A

The post-ganglionic fibres form a plexus and hitch hike a ride with blood vessels

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6
Q

What surrounds structures of the neck ?

A

Deep fascia

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7
Q

What is the compartment with musculature in neck ?

A

Prevertebral

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8
Q

What are the vessels of the head and neck enclosed in ?

A

Carotid sheath

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9
Q

What are visceral components of the head and neck enclosed in ?

A

Pretracheal

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10
Q

Which vessels does the carotid sheath enclose ?

A

Common carotid and internal jugular

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11
Q

Which nerve is found in the carotid sheath ?

A

Vagus

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12
Q

What is the superior thyroid artery a branch of ?

A

ECA

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13
Q

What is the inferior thyroid artery a branch of ?

A

The subclavian artery

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14
Q

What does the inferior thyroid vein drain into ?

A

The bracheocephalic trunk

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15
Q

How many veins drain the thyroid ?

A

3 Superior, middle and inferior

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16
Q

At what vertebral level does the hyoid, thyroid and cricoid cartilages/bones sit ?

A

C3 - Hyoid
C4 - Thyroid
C6 - Cricoid

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17
Q

What level does the common carotid artery split ?

A

C4

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18
Q

What happens when the SCM contracts ?

A

Head tilts to side of contraction and face turns away from that side

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19
Q

What are the four borders of the neck ?

A

Mandible, midline, clavicles and trapezius

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20
Q

What is the only artery with branches in the neck ?

A

ECA

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21
Q

What might central lines be needed for ?

A

IV fluids
IV antibiotics
Blood samples

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22
Q

When shouldn’t a central line be inserted ?

A

In patients with a pneumothorax, sepsis or thrombosis

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23
Q

Where does lymph of the head and neck drain ?

A

Cisterna chyli and into the thoracic duct

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24
Q

What does the thyroid gland produce ?

A

Thyroid hormone and calcitonin

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25
Q

What does Calcitonin do ?

A

Lowers calcium and raises phosphate

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26
Q

What is a thyroglossal cysts an enlargement of ?

A

A thyroglossal duct remnant

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27
Q

What investigation is needed before thyroglossal duct excision ?

A

USS
Thyroid function tests
FNA

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28
Q

What is a cyst ?

A

Nodule that forms due to localised haemorrhage

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29
Q

What is an adenoma ?

A

Nodule that forms from benign follicular tissue

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30
Q

How do you investigate thyroid nodules ?

A

FNA aspiration
USS
Biopsy to distinguish between adenoma and carcinoma

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31
Q

What is colloid goitre ?

A

Colloid nodules, also known as adenomatous nodules or colloid nodular goitre are benign, noncancerous enlargement of thyroid tissue.

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32
Q

What happens to the thyroid is Grave’s disease ?

A

Enlarges

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33
Q

What is Grave’s disease ?

A

Graves’ disease, also known as toxic diffuse goiter, is an autoimmune disease that affects the thyroid.

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34
Q

How does Grave’s disease present

A
  • Enlargement of your thyroid gland
  • Change in menstrual cycles
  • Erectile dysfunction or reduced libido
  • Frequent bowel movements
  • Bulging eyes
  • Fatigue
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35
Q

How is Grave’s disease diagnosed ?

A
  • TSH (low levels) and thyroid hormones (high levels) blood test
  • USS
  • Thyroid radioactive isotope scan
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36
Q

How is Grave’s disease treated ?

A
  • Radioactive iodine therapy
  • Anti-thyroids
  • Beta blockers
  • Surgery
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37
Q

When is a thyroidectomy done ?

A

Thyroidectomy is used to treat thyroid disorders, such as cancer, noncancerous enlargement of the thyroid (goiter) and overactive thyroid (hyperthyroidism).

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38
Q

Who is Grave’s disease common in ?

A

Women middle-aged
Hyperthyroidism’s
Eye signs

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39
Q

Who is toxic goitre common in ?

A

Older people
No eye signs
AF

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40
Q

What is toxic goitre ?

A

Toxic multinodular goiter is an active multinodular goiter associated with hyperthyroidism.

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41
Q

How is toxic goitre diagnosed ?

A

Hormone test - TSH and thyroid hormones
FNA
USS
Thyroid radioactive isotope scan

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42
Q

What happens when the parathyroid glands don’t work?

A

Hyperparathyroidism. Hyperparathyroidism is where the parathyroid glands, which are in the neck near the thyroid gland, produce too much parathyroid hormone.

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43
Q

High levels of which mineral are seen in parathyroid disease ?

A

Calcium

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44
Q

How does parathyroid disease present ?

A
Abdominal pain
Depressed low mood 
Aching bones 
Constipation 
Weight loss
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45
Q

How do you investigate parathyroid disease ?

A

Blood tests - raised calcium and elevated parathyroid hormone
Kidney imaging e.g. X-Ray for stones
CT/USS

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46
Q

How is parathyroid disease treated ?

A

Removal of some glands but leaves others

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47
Q

What is a tracheostomy ?

A

A tube is inserted through a cut in the neck below the vocal cords. This allows air to enter the lungs. Breathing is then done through the tube, bypassing the mouth, nose, and throat.

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48
Q

Why is a tracheostomy performed ?

A
  • To protect the airways

- If the airways are obstructed

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49
Q

What is stridor ?

A

Stridor is a high-pitched, wheezing sound caused by disrupted airflow.

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50
Q

Wha causes inspiratory stridor ?

A

Glottic obstruction or above

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51
Q

What causes expiratory stridor ?

A

Tracheal obstruction

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52
Q

What causes biphasic stridor ?

A

Obstruction between glottis and trachea

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53
Q

How is stridor treated ?

A

Treat with O2
IV corticosteroids
Airway management
Surgery

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54
Q

What do the nasal airways do ?

A

Warm and humidify air

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55
Q

What generate laminar flow in the nose ?

A

The septum and turbinates

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56
Q

What do sinuses store ?

A

Warm humidified air

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57
Q

What epithelium type is the outer 1/3rd of the nose ?

A

Stratified squamous epithelium with nasal hairs

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58
Q

What type of epithelium is the inner 2/3rds of the nose ?

A

Pesudostratified columnar with cilia

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59
Q

Which antibodies does nasal mucus contain ?

A

IgA and IgE

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60
Q

What is the function of the Eustacian tube ?

A

Drainage of the middle air and pressure equalisation

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61
Q

What is the function of sinuses ? (4)

A

Impact zones
Lightens skull
Stores warm humidified air
Vocal resonance

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62
Q

What makes up the bones section of the nose ?

A

Nasal bones and the maxilla

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63
Q

What is the region above the nose known as ?

A

Glabella

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64
Q

What is the region between the nostrils called ?

A

Collumnella

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65
Q

What separates the nose from the orbits ?

A

Lamina papyracea

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66
Q

What makes up the septum of the nose ? (3)

A

Vomer
Perpendicular plate of the ethmoid
Septal cartilage

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67
Q

Where does the cartilage get its blood supply from ?

A

The mucosa overlying it

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68
Q

What are septal haematomas caused by ? (2)

A

Trauma

Drugs

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69
Q

Why do you get a running nose whilst crying ?

A

The nasolacrimal duct drains lacrimal secretions into the nose.

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70
Q

Where does the sphenoid sinus drain ?

A

Spheno-ethmoidal recess

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71
Q

Where do the anterior ethmoidal cells drain ?

A

Middle meatus

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72
Q

Where do the posterior ethmoidal cells drain ?

A

Anterior meatus

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73
Q

Where do the frontal and maxillary sinuses drain ?

A

Middle meatus

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74
Q

Blockage of which sinus results in Potts puffy ?

A

Frontal sinus

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75
Q

What is orbital cellulitis ?

A

Orbital cellulitis is inflammation of eye tissues behind the orbital septum. It is most commonly caused by an acute spread of infection into the eye socket from either the adjacent sinuses or through the blood

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76
Q

How is sinusitis treated ?

A
Antibiotics 
Saline nasal spray
Nasal corticosteroids
Analgesics 
Surgery may be needed for remove polyp
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77
Q

Which 3 structures are found near the sphenoid sinus ?

A

Optic nerve, carotids and pituitary gland

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78
Q

What is sinusitis ?

A

Sinusitis is swelling of the sinuses, usually caused by an infection.

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79
Q

What are the risk during sinusitis surgery ?

A

CSF leak

Meningitis

80
Q

Which arteries supply blood to the nose ?

A

Internal and external carotids

81
Q

Which arteries are branches of the internal carotids that supply the nose ?

A

Anterior and posterior ethmoidal

82
Q

Which arteries are branches of the external carotids that supply the nose ?

A

Sphenopalatine and superior labial

83
Q

What is the common site called where nose bleeds occur ?

A

Little’s area

84
Q

How do you control nose bleeds ?

A

Pinch the soft area of the nose

85
Q

What innervates the nose ?

A

Trigeminal branches V1 and V2

86
Q

Where is nasopharyngeal carcinoma usually seen ?

A

Fossa of Rosenmuller

87
Q

Where are sound waves converted to nerve impulses ?

A

Inner ear

88
Q

Via which nerve are impulses from the ear transmitted to the brain ?

A

Cr.N.8

89
Q

What type of epithelium is the pinna made up of ?

A

Stratified keratinised squamous epithelium

90
Q

Where are the sebaceous and ceruminous glands found in the ear ?

A

Outer 1/3rd of canal

91
Q

What changes from the outside of the ear to the inside ?

A

No wax, no hairs, no cilia

92
Q

Where is skin constantly shed from in the ear ?

A

The umbo

93
Q

What is Otitis Externa ?

A

Infection of the outer ear due to warm and wet conditions

94
Q

Which bacteria commonly cause Otitis Externa ?

A

Pseudomonas and S.aureus

95
Q

How is Otitis Externa treated ?

A

Antibiotic ear drops

96
Q

What are the 3 layers of the tympanic membrane ?

A

The cuboidal epithelium, a middle fibrous layer and an outer layer continuous with the skin.

97
Q

What does the middle ear contain ?

A

Round and oval window
Facial nerve
Ossicles
Eustacian tube opening

98
Q

What are the names of the 3 ossicles ?

A

Malleus (hammer)
Incus (anvil)
Stapes (stirrup)

99
Q

What may disrupt the ossicles ?

A

Trauma

Otoscleorsis

100
Q

What is the function of the middle ear ?

A

To convert mechanical vibrations into nerve impulses

101
Q

Which two areas do the Eustacian tube connect ?

A

The middle ear and the nasopharynx

102
Q

What is acute otitis media ?

A

Infection of the middle ear lining, causes a bulging tympanic membrane with pus.

103
Q

When does acute otitis media improve ?

A

When the tympanic membrane perforates and the pus is released

104
Q

What is a complication of acute otitis media ?

A

Pus gets into the mastoid bone causing mastoiditis

105
Q

What is otitis media with effusion ?

A

Fluid builds up in the middle ear cavity

106
Q

What are the symptoms of otitis media ?

A

Hearing loss
Pain
Pus discharge

107
Q

How is otitis media with effusion managed ?

A

Wait and watch for 3 months. Grommets if no improvement.

108
Q

How is acute otitis media treated ?

A

Antibiotics

109
Q

What is cholesteatoma ?

A

The TM is sucked inwards due to a negative pressure, a pouch forms and keratin collects in it.

110
Q

How is cholesteatoma treated ?

A

Surgery is usually needed tympanoplasty to fix. If mastoid bone is involved then may need a mastoidectomy.

111
Q

What are the complications that can arise from acute otitis media and cholesteatoma ?

A

Brain abscess
Meningitis
Facial nerve palsy
Sepsis

112
Q

How many segments does the facial nerve have ?

A

6

113
Q

What are the 5 branches of the facial nerve ?

A
Temporal 
Zygomatic 
Buccal
Mandibular 
Cervical
114
Q

What does the facial nerve supply ?

A

Muscles of facial expression
Posterior belly of digastric
Stapedius
Stylohyoid

115
Q

What does the facial nerve input to the tongue ?

A

Taste to the anterior 2/rds of the tongue

116
Q

What is the path of the facial nerve ?

A

Pons through the Internal acoustic meatus, facial canal and then the stylomastoid foramen.

117
Q

What is contained in the bony labyrinth ?

A

Perilymph

118
Q

What is contained in the membraneous labyrinth ?

A

Endolymph

119
Q

What does the vestibular apparatus do ?

A

Helps with posture and balance

120
Q

What does the cochlear do ?

A

Helps with hearing

121
Q

What inputs effect the vestibular apparatus ?

A

Proprioceptors and visual inputs

122
Q

Which reflex do the semi-circular canals controls ?

A

Vestibulo-occular reflex

123
Q

What is the Vesitbulo-occular reflex ?

A

Allows you to fix your eyes on a certain point whilst moving your head

124
Q

Which 3 nerves give sensation to the inner ear ?

A

Facial, glossopharyngeal and vagus

125
Q

Which part of the ear does the glossopharyngeal nerve innervate ?

A

Middle ear

126
Q

Which part of the ear does the facial nerve innervate ?

A

Anterior 1/2th of the EAC

127
Q

Which part of the ear does the vagus nerve innervate ?

A

Posterior 1/2th of the EAC

128
Q

What is pure tone audiometry ?

A

Identifies hearing threshold of an individual

129
Q

What is the right and left ear shown as on a pure tone audiometry graph ?

A

Left crosses and right circles

130
Q

What is loudness measured in ?

A

dB

131
Q

What is pitch measured in ?

A

Hertz

132
Q

What is normal hearing loudness ?

A

0-20 dB

133
Q

A gap of an audiometry graph indicates …

A

Conductive hearing loss

134
Q

A downward travelling line on an audiometry graph indicates …

A

Sensorineural hearing loss

135
Q

How does tympanometry work ?

A

Changes in air pressure cause the tympanic membrane to move and these are recorded.

136
Q

What does the labial frenulum connect ?

A

The lip and gum

137
Q

What does the lingual frenulum connect ?

A

The tongue and floor of mouth

138
Q

What are the two parts of the oral cavity ?

A

The oral cavity proper and oral vestibule

139
Q

Where does the oral cavity run between ?

A

The lips and palatoglossal arch, from the hard palate to the floor of the mouth

140
Q

What is the name of the duct coming from the parotid gland ?

A

Stensons duct

141
Q

What is the name of the duct coming from the submandibular gland ?

A

Wharton’s duct

142
Q

Which muscle does the parotid duct pierce through ?

A

Buccinator

143
Q

Where does the parotid duct open up in the mouth ?

A

Opposite the 2nd upper molar

144
Q

What are the superficial and deep lobes of the submandibular separated by ?

A

The myohyoid muscle

145
Q

What is the lingual nerve a branch of ?

A

V3

146
Q

What are the functions of the oral cavity ?

A
Chewing 
Digestion
Speech
Swallowing 
Taste
147
Q

Which papillae are the most numerous ?

A

Filiform

148
Q

Which papillae have taste buds ?

A

Fungiform and folliate

149
Q

Which papillae are placed anteriorly to the sulcus terminalis ?

A

Circumvilliate papillae

150
Q

Which brachial arch does the anterior 2/3rds of the tongue come from ?

A

1st

151
Q

Which brachial arch does the posterior 1/3rd of the tongue come from ?

A

3rd arch

152
Q

Which tongue muscles does the hypoglossal serve and which one is the exception ?

A

All except the palatoglossus which is innervated by vagus through the pharyngeal plexus.

153
Q

What are the borders of the oropharynx ?

A

Soft palate and glottis, palatoglossus to posterior pharyngeal wall

154
Q

Which nerves supply oropharynx ?

A

Cranial nerves 9 and 10

155
Q

Which 3 arteries supply the hypopharynx ?

A

Superior thyroid artery, ascending pharyngeal and lingual artery

156
Q

What are the boundaries of the hypopharynx ?

A

The glottis to the cricoid cartilage

157
Q

What are the 3 sections of the hypopharynx ?

A

The pyriform fossa
Post-cricoid area
posterior pharyngeal wall

158
Q

What is the function of the larynx ?

A

Voice production, it manipulates pitch and volume

159
Q

What are the 3 parts of the glottis and where do they extend to ?

A

Supraglottis - Epiglottis to false vocal cords
Glottis - False and true vocal cord space
Subglottis - True vocal cords to cricoid cartilage

160
Q

What are the two arytenoid cartilages ?

A

Cuneiform and Corniculate

161
Q

What nerve are all intrinsic muscles of the larynx innervated by ?

A

Recurrent laryngeal

162
Q

What is the cricothyroid muscle innervated by ?

A

External laryngeal nerve

163
Q

Which nerve is the supraglottic region innervated by ?

A

Internal laryngeal nerve

164
Q

Which nerve innervates the glottic and subglottic regions ?

A

Recurrent laryngeal

165
Q

What control resonance ?

A

Oral and nasal balace

166
Q

What is articulation of speech based on ?

A

Teeth, lips and tongue

167
Q

What is prosody ?

A

Production of syllable stress and emphasis

168
Q

What is prosody associated with ?

A

Brocas area (44, 45)

169
Q

Which structures run through the parotid gland ?

A

Retromandibular vein
ECA
Facial nerve

170
Q

What is globs ?

A

The feeling of something being stuck in your mouth

171
Q

What is Non-Hodgkins Lymphoma ?

A

Cancer that originates in the lymphatic system and spreads through the body.

172
Q

Which muscle is found around the uvula ?

A

Muscular uvulae

173
Q

What are the 4 intrinsic tongue muscles called ?

A

Styloglossus
Genioglossus
Palatoglossus
Hyoglossus

174
Q

What does genioglossus do ?

A

Protrudes the tongue

175
Q

What does styloglossus do ?

A

Retracts the tongue

176
Q

What does Hyoglossus do ?

A

Depresses the tongue

177
Q

What does palatoglossus do ?

A

Elevates the tongue and changes the shape of the oropharynx when swallowing

178
Q

Which two muscles work to pull the palate down ?

A

Palatoglossus

Palatopharyngeus

179
Q

Which two muscle work to pull the palate up ?

A

Tensor Veli Palatini

Levator Veli Palatini

180
Q

What supplies tensor deli palatini ?

A

V3 of trigeminal

181
Q

Which muscle helps to open the Eustacian tube ?

A

Salpingopharyngeus

182
Q

What is the name of the lymphatic tissue surrounding the eustachian tube ?

A

Adenoids

183
Q

What is the space called between the back of the tongue and the epiglottis ?

A

Vallecula

184
Q

What is the space down the side running away from the Vallecula called ?

A

Piriform fossa

185
Q

Which nerve emerges through the mental foramen and what is it a branch of ?

A

The inferior alveolar nerve and its a branch of V3.

186
Q

Which eye muscles intort (2) ?

A

Superior oblique and superior rectus

187
Q

Which 3 eye muscles abduct ?

A

The superior and inferior oblique and the lateral rectus

188
Q

Which nerve supplies the lateral rectus ?

A

Abducens

189
Q

Which nerve supplies the superior oblique ?

A

Trochlear

190
Q

What is the function of the check ligaments ?

A

They prevent over abduction and adduction

191
Q

What is the function of the suspensory ligaments ?

A

They hold the eye in place

192
Q

What is the function of myoepithelial cells ?

A

The helps to contract and expel the contents of the acini they surround

193
Q

What type of epithelium is the tongue made out of ?

A

Stratified squamous keratinised epithelium

194
Q

What is the epithelium of the middle ear ?

A

Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium

195
Q

Which type of muscle fibres are seen in the tongue ?

A

Skeletal muscle fibres