Antenatal Care Flashcards

(45 cards)

1
Q

How many antenatal visits is a multip likely to receive? And at what stages of her pregnancy will these be?

A

8 visits:
Booking visit (hx and bloods) ideally by 10/40
Dating scan at 11-13+6/40
Results at 16/40
Anomaly scan is at 18-20/40
Hb, antibodies, OGTT bloods. Anti-D given if necessary at 28/40
34/40
36/40
38/40
Offer membrane sweep and discuss induction 41/40

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2
Q

What are the two ways it is possible to estimate the date of delivery?

A

Menstrual EDD - The first day of the woman’s LMP is taken and 9 months + 1 week added to give an estimation of the due date
Dating scan EDD - More accurate than menstrual EDD, the dating scan at 11-13+6/40 is used to determine the due date based on the size of the foetus (which varies very little between pregnancies

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3
Q

True / False - All pregnant women are given an oral glucose tolerance test to screen for gestational diabetes

A

False - Women are risk assessed at booking and if they are deemed to be high risk they are offered a GTT at 24-28 weeks (earlier if previous gestational diabetes)

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4
Q

What does a ‘monozygotic’ multiple pregnancy mean?

A

Multiple embryos result from the mitotic division of a single zygote, and result in ‘identical’ twins

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5
Q

What does ‘dichorionic diamniotic’ multiple pregnancy mean?

A

Separate placenta, separate amniotic sacs

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6
Q

What does ‘monochorionic diamniotic’ multiple pregnancy mean?

A

Shared placenta, separate amniotic sacs

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7
Q

True / False: Sodium valproate is safe in pregnancy

A

False - Valproate is teratogenic and associated with neonatal seizures. It should be avoided in pregnancy.

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8
Q

True / False: Sodium valproate is a cytochrome p450 inhibitor

A

True - This means it reduces the efficacy of the COCP and should be avoided in women of childbearing age

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9
Q

Which trimester is trimethoprim considered unsafe and why?

A

Avoid in 1st trimester as it is a folate antagonist

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10
Q

Which trimester is nitrofurantoin considered unsafe and why?

A

Avoid in 3rd trimester as it is associated with fetal haemolytic anaemia

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11
Q

What is the ‘combined’ test and when is it done?

A

A test carried out between 10 and 14 weeks gestation which involves a blood test for beta-hCG and PAPP-A, and a nuchal translucency ultrasound scan

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12
Q

What is the ‘combined’ test aiming to detect?

A

Risk of Down’s syndrome primarily, but also Edward’s syndrome and Patau’s syndrome

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13
Q

Which test can a woman have for Down’s syndrome detection if she missed her ‘combined’ test screening?

A

The ‘quadruple’ test is still available to her

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14
Q

What is the ‘quadruple’ test and when can it be done?

A

Blood test for beta-HCG, AFP, oestriol, Inhibin A…carried out between 14 and 20 weeks

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15
Q

At what gestation can amniocentesis be carried out? What is the risk of misscarriage?

A

Performed after 15 weeks

1% risk of miscarriage

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16
Q

At what gestation can chorionic villus sampling be carried out? What is the risk of misscarriage?

A

Performed at 11-14 weeks

1-2% risk of miscarriage

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17
Q

Why does maternal BP drop in the first part of her pregnancy?

A

Decreased vascular resistance due to progesterone

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18
Q

What is the normal folic acid dose in pregnancy?

A

400mcg daily

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19
Q

What is the higher dose of folic acid recommended for high risk women?

20
Q

Which women are recommended to take high dose (5mg daily) folic acid?

A

When either mother or father has neural tube defect
Previous pregnancy affected by neural tube defect
Fix of neural tube defect
Mother on anti-epileptic drugs
Chronic conditions: Coeliac disease, diabetes, thalassemia trait, Sickle cell
BMI above 30

21
Q

How long should women take folic acid for during pregnancy?

A

Until 12/40

Until birth if thalassemia trait or other haemoglobinopathy

22
Q

How do you determine whether a twin pregnancy is monozygotic or dizygotic?

A

Presence of a ‘lambda’ sign on ultrasound scan indicates dizygotic pregnancy - it is a triangular sign seen between the 2 amniotic fluid sacs (dizygotic pregnancies are always dichorionic)

23
Q

List the different types of monozygotic twin pregnancy

A

Dichorionic diamniotic
Monochorionic diamniotic
Monochorionic monoamniotic
Conjoined twins

24
Q

What determines the type of placenta seen in monozygotic twins?

A

The timing of the mitotic separation

25
What type of monozygotic twin results if mitotic division occurs before Day 3?
Dichorionic diamniotic - This is the case for about 1/3 of monozygotic twin pregnancies
26
What is the most common type of monozygotic multiple pregnancy?
Monochorionic diamniotic i.e. shared placenta, separate amniotic sacs - makes up about 70% of monozygotic pregnancies
27
What type of monozygotic twin results if mitotic division occurs between day 4 and 8?
Monochorionic diamniotic
28
What type of monozygotic twin results if mitotic division occurs between day 9 and day 11?
Monochorionic monoamniotic
29
What type of monozygotic twin results if mitotic division occurs after Day 12?
Conjoined twins
30
Which type of monozygotic pregnancy carries the highest mortality?
Monochorionic monoamniotic
31
Which type of multiple pregnancy will be affected by twin to twin transfusion syndrome?
Monochorionic pregnancies
32
What is the mechanism of twin to twin transfusion syndrome?
Occurs in monochorionic pregnancies due to a shared placenta. There are anastomosing vessels within the placenta which connect Twin 1 to Twin 2. Deoxygenated blood from the donor twin is oxygenated within the placenta but it travels to the recipient twin rather than returning to the donor. This results in a starved donor twin and a recipient who grows much larger.
33
List some complications affecting the donor twin in twin to twin transfusion syndrome
Oligohydramnios IUGR Hypotension Anaemia
34
List some complications affecting the recipient twin in twin to twin transfusion syndrome
``` Polyhydramnios Polycythaemia Cardiac hypertrophy Oedema (Hydrops) Macrosomia Hypertension ```
35
When is measuring symphysis / fundal height useless?
Multiple pregnancies - it is no longer accurate
36
How many antenatal visits is a primip likely to receive? And at what stages of her pregnancy will these be?
``` 11 visits: Booking visit (hx and bloods) ideally by 10/40 Dating scan at 11-13+6/40 Results at 16/40 Anomaly scan is at 18-20/40 25/40 Hb, antibodies, OGTT bloods. Anti-D given if necessary at 28/40 31/40 34/40 36/40 38/40 40/41 Offer membrane sweep and discuss induction 41/40 ```
37
What is the 'gravidity'?
How many times a woman has been pregnant - includes normal pregnancies, ectopics, terminations, miscarriages, molar pregnancies, stillbirths
38
What is the 'parity'?
How many pregnancies a woman has delivered at 24+ weeks gestation, whether the baby was born alive or dead. Pregnancies before 24 weeks are written as a suffix e.g. P2+1 means 2 births after 24 weeks and one pregnancy which ended before 24 weeks
39
At what gestation is a rhesus negative mother given anti-D prophylaxis?
28/40 and 24/40
40
What value is considered 'high risk' for Downs syndrome?
More than 1 in 150 change
41
What diagnostic tests are available to a woman who's results classify her as 'high risk' for Downs pregnancy?
Non-invasive prenatal test Amniocentesis Chorionic villus sampling
42
What results would you expect in the combined screening test for a foetus with Down's syndrome?
Beta-HCG raised Nuchal translucency raised PAPP-A reduced
43
What would you expect the AFP result (in a quadruple test) to be in a pregnancy in which the foetus has Down's syndrome?
AFP is reduced
44
A combined test result comes back with low beta-HCG and low PAPP-A...what defect does this point to?
Edward's syndrome (Trisomy 18)
45
What results would you expect in the quadruple test for a foetus with Down's syndrome?
Beta-HCG raised Inhibin-A raised AFP reduced Oestriol reduced