Antimicrobials Flashcards

1
Q

What are the goals of administering antimicrobials?

A
  • to inhibit growth of microorganisms but not hurting the host
  • give as narrow a spectrum as possible so that the normal flora can be maintained.
  • consider if the pt is seriously ill or immunocompromised
    • these patients will need bacteriocidal antibiotics
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2
Q

what are some types of adverse reactions that can be had with antimicrobials?

A
  • hypersensitivity reaction (dose dependent)
  • direct organ toxicity (dose related)
  • potential for superinfections
  • cross-reactions with other medications we give
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3
Q

What is an SSI? How is it defined?

A
  • An infection related to an operative procedure that occurs at or near the surgical incision within 30 days of the procedure
    • purulent exudate from surgical site
    • a positive culture obtained from a surgical site that was closed initially
    • A surgeon’s diagnosis
    • A surgical site that requires reopening due to at least one of the following:
      • tenderness, swelling, redness, or heat
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4
Q

What specific aspects of a surgery can increase the risk of infection?

What surgeries have the highest incidence of infection?

A
  • procedure type
  • skill of surgeon
  • use of foreign meterial or implantable device
  • degree of tissue trauma
  • highest incidence: Carotid endarterectomy, urologic, colon
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5
Q

What patient traits increase the risk of surgical site infection?

A
  • DM
  • smoking
  • obesity
  • malnutrition
  • systemic steroid use
  • immunosuppressive therapy
  • intraoperative hypothermia
  • trauma
  • prosthetic heart valves
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6
Q

What adverse outcomes are associated with hypothermia?

A
  • increased blood loss
  • increased transfusion requirements
  • prolonged PACU stay
  • post-op pain
  • impaired immune function
  • compromised neutrophil function causing vasoconstriction and tissue hypoxia; increasing incidence of SSI
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7
Q

What are the appropriate antibiotics for Cardiothoracic and vascular surgery?

What if the pt has a b-lactam allergy?

A
  • Cefazolin, cefuroxime, or vancomycin
  • b-lactam allergy: vancomycin or clindamycin
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8
Q

What is the difference between bacteriocidal and bacteriostatic?

A
  • Bacteriocidal: kills the susceptible bacteria
  • Bacteriostatic: reversibly inhibits the growth of bacteria
    • for bacteriostatic, the duration of the therapy must be long enough to allow the person’s defense mechanisms to eradicate the bacteria
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9
Q

What are some bacteriocidal antibiotics?

A
  • PCNs and cephalosporins
  • Isoniazid
  • metronidazole
  • polymyxins
  • rifampin
  • bacitracin
  • aminoglycosides
  • vancomycin
  • quinolones
  • PIMP-R-BAVQ (this mneumonic has been censored due to adult content)
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10
Q

What are some bacteriostatic antibiotics?

A
  • Chloramphenicol
  • clindamycin
  • macrolides
  • sulfonamides
  • tetracyclines
  • trimethoprim
  • Cora carries more sulfur than Tim

from the list of ABX she elaborated on during lecture, “the list is SLiM”: (by default the rest she talked about are bacteriocidal)

  • Sulfa
  • cLindamycin
  • Macrolides
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11
Q

What is the structure of Penicillin?

-

A
  • dicyclic nucleus that has a thiazolidine ring connected to a B-lactam ring
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12
Q

Is Penicillin bacteriocidal or bacteriostatic?

MOA?

What kind of organisms can affect?

A
  • interferes with the synthesis of peptidoglycan which is an essential component to cell walls of susceptible bacteria
  • Organisms:
    • pneumococcal
    • meningococcal
    • streptococcal
    • actinomycosis
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13
Q

How is Penicillin excreted?

What can increase the E 1/2t?

A
  • Rapid renal excretion; plasma concentration decreases 50% in 1st hour
    • 10% is excreted through glomerular filtration
    • 90% secreted by renal tube
    • anuria increases elimination half time by 10x
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14
Q

Penicillin adverse reactions

A
  • Most allergenic antimicrobial (up to 10%)
  • rash, with or without fever
  • hemolytic anemia
  • maculopapular rash (delayed)
  • immediate sensitivity: anaphylaxis
  • cross-sensitivity common with all PCN drugs AND cephalosporins
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15
Q

Why is there cross sensitivity between PCN and cephalosporins?

How common is it?

A

Because both classes have a b-lactam ring

anywhwere from 2-8% of people with PCN allergy are also allergic to cephalosporins

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16
Q

What is the difference between 1st and 2nd generation PCNs?

Examples?

A
  • The later generations are also efective on some gram- bacilli
    • haemophilus influenza
    • E coli
  • Examples: Amoxicillan, ampicillin
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17
Q

If your patient is allergic to 1st generation PCN, can you give them a 2nd?

A

No! You should substitue it with clindamycin or vancomycin

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18
Q

Are cephalosporins (Cefazolin) -cidal or -static?

MOA?

A
  • Bactericidal- inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis and have low toxicity
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19
Q

Facts about Cefazolin:

spectrum of activity?

allergy incidence?

excretion?

A
  • Broad spectrum activity
  • allergy incidence is 1-10%
    • anaphylaxis is 0.02%,
    • PCN and cephalosporin allergy 1-3%
  • Renal excretion
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20
Q

Which generation of cephalosporin is best for Menningitis?

A
  • 3rd generation
  • achieves therapeutic levels in the CSF and they also have lower toxicity than earlier generations
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21
Q

What is the structure of Macrolides?

two examples?

Which is the prototype?

A
  • macrolytic lactone ring containing 14-16 atoms with a deoxy sugar attached
  • Erythromycin, Azithromycin
  • Prototype: erythromycin
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22
Q

Is Erythromycin -cidal or -static?

MOA?

What kinds of bacteria is it effective against?

A
  • It can be either, depending on the type of organism they are treating
  • MOA: inhibits bacterial protein synthesis
  • Effective against:
    • Gram + bacilli
    • pneumococci
    • streptococci
    • staphylococci
    • mycoplasma
    • chlamydia
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23
Q

How is Erythromycin metabolized?

How might this effect other meds?

A
  • metabolized by the CYP450 and excreted in bile
    • ay increase serum concentration of theophylline, warfarin, cyclosporine, methylprednisone, and digoxin
  • no need to alter dose in renal patients
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24
Q

What are the side effects of Erythromycin?

A
  • GI intolerance
    • promotes gastric emptying- causes cramping
    • N/V
  • Cholestasic hepatitis
    • decreased bile secretion from hepatocytes or decreased flow of bile through ducts
  • QT effects
    • prolongs cardiac repolarization
    • torsades de pointes
  • thrombophlebitis
    • common with prolonged IV use
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25
Q

Clindamycin

class?

-cidal or -static?

Effective against what kinds of bacteria?

A
  • Class: Linomycins
  • Bacteriostatic
  • Effective against: (similar to Erythromycin)
    • gram + bacilli
    • pneumococci
    • streptococci
    • staphylococci
    • mycoplasma
    • chlamydia
  • **more effective against anaerobes
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26
Q

Why is Clindamycin’s use limited to infections that are difficult to treat?

What surgeries is it most commonly used for?

A
  • Severe GI complications
    • pseudomembranous colitis (stop abx if pt has diarrhea)
  • most commonly used in female GU surgeries
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27
Q

What are the side effects of Clindamycin?

A
  • Severe GI complications
  • skin rash
  • Prolonged NMB
    • prolonged pre and post junctional effects at NMJ
    • these effects cannot be antagonized with anticholinesterases of calcium
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28
Q

Vancomycin:

structure

-cidal or -static?

MOA

A
  • Glycopeptide derivative
  • Bacteriocidal
  • impairs cell wall synthesis
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29
Q

What kinds of infections is Vancomycin effective against?

When else would we give vanco?

A
  • Gram + bacteria
    • severe staph infections
    • streptococcal, enterococcal endocarditis
  • PCN/Cephalosporin allergy
  • administered with aminoglycoside for endocarditis
  • drug of choice for MRSA
  • procedures with prosthetic devices
  • CSF and shunt related infections
30
Q

How is vanco eliminated?

E1/2t?

A
  • Renal excretion 90% unchanged in the urine
  • E1/2t = 6 hours
    • can be prolonged (up to 9 days) in renal failure patients
31
Q

What is the dose of Vanco?

A
  • 10-15 mg/kg over 60 minutes
  • 1 gram mixed in 250 ml
32
Q

What are side effects of vanco?

A
  • profound hypotension- if administered rapidly
  • Red man syndrome
  • ototoxicity- when concentrations >30mcg/ml; worsened with aminoglycosides
  • nephrotoxicity-rare unless given with aminoglycosides
  • return of Neuromuscular blockade
  • phlebitis
33
Q

When is the combination of vancomycin and aminoglycosides indicated?

A
  • endocarditis caused by strep. viridans or enterococci

(combo increases risk of otoxicity and nephrotoxcity**)

34
Q

Vancomycin:

excretion

Does it penetrate the CSF?

A
  • Renal excretion by glomerular filtration (80-90% is 24 hours
  • Slow CSF penetration unless there is meningeal inflammation
35
Q

What are 5 Aminoglycosides?

A
  • Streptomycin & Kanamycin
    • older, not often used
  • Gentamicin
    • broad spectrum, used for GU procedures
    • toxic > 9mcg/ml
  • Amikacin (derivative of kanamycin)
    • heavy hitter; used for gentamicin or tobramycin resistang gram - bacilli
  • Neomycin
    • for skin, eye, or mucous membrane infections
    • only topical b/c most nephrotoxic
36
Q

What antibiotic can be used to treat hepatic coma? How?

A

Neomycin- used to bring down ammonia levels

37
Q

Aminoglycosides

-cidal or -static?

what kind of bacteria?

excretion

E1/2t?

A
  • Bactericidal
    • effective for aerobic gram - and + bacteria
  • Extensive renal excretion through glomerular filtration
  • E1/2t 2-3 hours
    • increased 20-40x with renal failure
38
Q

Which antibiotics potentiate NDMRs?

A
  • Aminoglycosides
    • can be reversed with neostigmine or calcium gluconate
  • Clindamycin
    • cannot be reversed with reversal agents or calcium
39
Q

What are two fluroquinolones and what are they used to treat?

A
  • Ciprofloxacin
    • respiratory infections
    • TB
    • anthrax
    • bone and soft tissue infections
  • Moxifloxacin
    • acute sinusitis
    • bronchitis
    • complicated abdominal infections
40
Q

What are side effects of Fluoroquinolones?

A
  • QT prolongation
  • peripheral neuropathy
  • psychosis
  • Stevens-Johnson Syndrome
  • Mild GI disturbance- N/V
  • dizziness, insomnia
  • tendon or achilles rupture
  • muscle weakness in patients with myasthenia gravis
41
Q

Fluoroquinolones:

-cidal or -static?

effective against what kind of bacteria?

A
  • Bactericidal- broad spectrum
  • effective for enteric gram - bacilli and mycobacterium
    • GI/GU infections
42
Q

Fluoroquinolones

Excretion

E1/2t?

A
  • Renal excretion, through glomerular filtration and renal tubular secretion
    • decrease dose in renal dysfunction
  • E1/2t: 3-8 hours
  • can inhibit CYP450
43
Q

Sulfonamides:

-cidal or -static?

MOA?

A
  • Bacteriostatic
  • prevent normal use of PABA by bacteria to synthesize folic acid
44
Q

Sulfonamides:

clinical use

elimination

A
  • Clinical uses:
    • UTI
    • inflammatory bowel disease
    • burns
  • Elimination: portion of drug is acetylated in the liver and other is renally excreted
    • reduce dose in renal dysfunction
45
Q

Sulfonamides Side effects

A
  • skin rash
  • anaphylaxis
  • photosensitivity
  • allergic nephritis
  • drug fever
  • hepatotoxicity
  • acute hemolytic anemia
  • thrombocytopenia
  • increased effect of PO anticoagulant
46
Q

Metronidazole

-cidal or -static?

types of bacteria

Clinical use

A
  • Bactericidal
  • Anaerobic gram - bacilli clostridium
  • Useful in many infections
    • CNS infections
    • abdominal and pelvic sepsis
    • C-diff (with vanco)
    • endocarditis
    • pre-op prophylaxis for colorectoal surgery
47
Q

Metronidazole

administration

side effects

A
  • PO or IV
    • well absorbed orally and widely distributed in tissue including CNS
  • Side effects
    • dry mouth
    • metallic taste
    • nausea
    • avoid alcohol
48
Q

What are the 1st line antimycobacterial agents?

A
  • Isoniazid- bacteriostatic, -cidal if bacteria are dividing
    • hepato-renal toxicity
  • Rifampin- bacteriocidal
    • Induces CYP450
    • hepato-renal toxicity, thrombocytopenia, anemia
  • Ethambutol- bacteriostatic
    • optic neuritis
  • Pyrazinamide- bacteriostatic
    • liver toxicity
49
Q

Amphotericin B

Use

elimination

A
  • Given for yeasts and fungi
  • slow renal excretion
    • renal function is impaired in 80% of pts
    • most recover, some have permanent decrease in GFR
50
Q

Amphotericin B

Side effects

A
  • fever, chills, dyspnea, hypotension during infusion
  • impaired hepatic function
  • hypokalemia
  • allergic reactions
  • seizure
  • anemia
  • thrombocytopenia
51
Q

Acyclovir

uses

side effects

A
  • used to treat herpes
  • may cause renal damage if infused rapidly
  • thrombophlebitis
  • HA during infusion
52
Q

What are interferons?

What are they used for?

A
  • glycoproteins produced in response to viral infections
  • bind to receptors on host cell membranes and induce the production of enzymes that inhibit viral replication
  • enhance tumoricidal activities of macrophages
  • used to treat Hep B & C
53
Q

Interferon side effects

A
  • flu like symptoms
  • hematologic toxicity
  • depression/irritability
  • decreased mental concentration
  • development of autoimmune conditions
  • rashes
  • alopecia
  • changes in CV, thyroid, hepatic function
54
Q
A
55
Q

What anesthesia interactions can you expect with Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors?

Other Side effects?

A
  • Can change drug clearance and effect of methadone
  • Nausea, diarrhea, myalgia, increase LFTs, peripheral neuopathy, marrow suppression, inhibition of CYP450
56
Q

What anesthesia interactions can you expect with Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors?

Other side effects?

A
  • extends the half life and effects of:
    • midazolam, diazepam, triazolam
    • fentanyl, meperidine, methadone
  • Nevirapine- induces CYP450
  • Delavirdine- inhibition of CYP450- decreased fentanyl clearance by about 67%
57
Q

What anesthesia interactions can you expect with Rotanavir (protease inhibitors)?

Other side effects?

A
  • Prolongs the half life and effects of:
    • amiodarone, digoxin
    • diazepam, midazolam, triazolam
    • fentanyl, meperidine, methandone
  • inhibits CYP450
  • hyperlipidemia, glucose intolerance, abnormal fat distribution
58
Q

What anesthesia interactions can you expect with integrase strand transfer inhibitors?

A

none

59
Q

What kind of anesthesia interactions can you expect with early inhibitors?

A
  • changes clearance and effect of midazolam
60
Q

Which antimicrobials are safe in pregnancy?

A
  • PCNs
  • cephalosporins
  • erythromycin
61
Q

Why must dosing for elderly be carefully considered?

A
  • renal impairment- decreased GFR
  • decreased plasma protein (mostly albumin)
  • reduced gastric motility and acidity
  • increased total body fat
  • decreased hepatil blood flow
62
Q

Which antimicrobials must you use with caution during pregnancy?

contraindicated?

A
  • Caution:
    • aminoglycosides (ototoxicity in mom and baby)
    • clindamycin (colitis in mom)
  • contraindicated:
    • tetracyclines (tooth discoloration in baby)
63
Q

Which antimicrobials are safe in the elderly if creatinine level is normal?

Which should you use caution with?

A
  • safe:
    • PCNs
    • cephalosporins
  • caution:
    • aminoglycosides and vancomycin
64
Q

Clindamycin pharmacokinetics

A
  • E1/2t = 2.5 hours
  • penetrates most tissues and abcesses
  • does NOT penetrate into CNS or intracellular
  • hepatic metabolism, no dose adjustment for renal failure
65
Q

Aminoglycoside pharmacokinetics

A
  • VD = 25% of body weight
  • adjust maintenance dosing based upon creatinine
  • plasma monitoring necessary
66
Q

Which antimicrobials are CYP450 inhibitors?

A

Sulfonamides

Erythromycin

Fluroquinolones

67
Q

Which antimicrobials cause muscle weakness?

A

Ciprofloxacin

Clindamycin

(moxifloxacin causes peripheral neuropathy)

68
Q

Which antimicrobials will you decrease your dose for if the pt has renal disease?

A

Sulfonamides

Fluroquinolones

Vanc

PCN

cephalosporins

aminoglycosides

69
Q

Which antimicrobials increase QT interval?

A

moxifloxacin

macroglides

70
Q

Which surgeries require cefazolin + Metronidazole?

A

Head and neck ( with entry into orpharynx)

Colorectal (emergency surgery or obstruction)

Appendectomy