Audit Flashcards

1
Q

Define an “unconditional requirement”

A

Must be complied with in order for auditors to complete an engagement in accordance with GAAS. Will always include the word “must” or “is required to”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Define a “presumptively mandatory requirement”

A

Auditor is expected to comply with in every circumstance in which it applies. In rare circumstances the auditor may depart from a presumptively mandatory requirement if the required procedure would be ineffective but must document how an alternate procedure was sufficient to achieve the objective of the standard. Will always include the word “should”.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

AR Turnover

A

Net Credit Sales / Average Receivables

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Ratio of Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts Receivable to Gross Accounts

A

Allowance for Uncollectible A/R / Average Gross Receivables

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Computer-Assisted Audit Technologies (CAAT)

A

Efficient and effective at handling large amounts of data in machine-readable form when the task involves a repetitive process and the identification or accumulation of objective information

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

General Controls (IT)

A

Policies and procedures that relate to many applications and support the effective functioning of application controls by helping to ensure the continued proper operation of information systems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Processes Often Subject to General Controls

A

(1) data center and network operations
(2) system software acquisition, change, and maintenance
(3) program change
(4) access security
(5) application system acquisition, development, and maintenance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

IT Application Controls

A

Controls designed to achieve a specific control objectives related to specific accounting procedures - pertain to the processing of individual applications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

IT Application Control Classifications

A

(1) Input Controls
(2) Processing Controls
(3) Output Controls

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

5 Basic Analytical Procedure Comparisons

A

CRAFT

Client vs Industry
Related Accounts
Actual vs Budget
Financial vs Non-financial
This year vs Prior
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Audit Procedures

A

I-CORRIIA

Inquiry
Confirmation
Observation
Recalculation
Reperformance
Inspection of tangible assets
Inspection of records or documents
Analytical procedures
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Compliance Audit

A

Performed to determine if the entity is complying with appropriate laws and regulations - often performed by government or regulatory organization; may be randomly selected or based on indication of non-compliance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Operational Audits

A

Generally performed by internal auditors to determine if management’s policies are being followed appropriated and to evaluate entity’s performance as well as it’s compliance with internal controls

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Financial Statement Audit

A

Examination for purpose of giving objective opinion regarding the fairness of the financial statement presentations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

General Purpose Framework

A

designed to meet the common financial information objectives of a wide range of users

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Special Purpose Framework

A

Framework other than GAAP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Special Purpose Framework Examples

A

(1) Cash basis
(2) Modified cash basis
(3) Tax basis
(4) Regulatory agency basis
(5) Contractual basis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Professional Skepticism

A

Attitude that includes a questioning mind and a critical assessment of audit evidence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Reasonable Assurance

A

A high level of assurance - NOT absolute assurance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Steps in an Audit

A

(1) Prepare for audit
(2) Obtain understanding of client, it’s environment, including internal control
(3) Assess risks of material misstatement and determine nature, timing, and extent of further procedures
(4) Perform tests of control
(5) Perform substantive procedures
(6) Formulate an opinion
(7) Issue an audit report

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Clarity Project Standard Format

A

(1) Introduction
(2) Objectives
(3) Definitions
(4) Requirements
(5) Application and other explanatory material

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Clarity Standards - Introduction

A

Includes the purpose and scope of each standard

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Clarity Standards - Objective

A

What requirements it’s expected to achieve

Aids the auditor in:

  • Determining if additional audit procedures are necessary in addition to those required in order to meet objective
  • Evaluating whether auditor has obtained sufficient appropriate audit evidence
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Significant Finding

A

Inability to achieve an objective - must be documented

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Three GAAS Categories

A

(1) General Standards
(2) Fieldwork Standards
(3) Reporting Standards

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

GAAS General Standards Definition

A

Apply to all aspects of the engagement from acceptance to completion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

GAAS Fieldwork Standards Definition

A

Apply only to the portion of the engagement devoted to gathering evidence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

GAAS Reporting Standards Definition

A

Apply only to the manner in which the audit report is to be written

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

GAAS vs Audit Procedures

A

GAAS measures the quality of the auditors performance vs audit procedures which are acts to be performed by the auditor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

10 GAAS Standards

A

TIPPICANOE

Training and proficiency
Independence
due Professional care
Planning and supervision
Internal controls
Corroborative audit evidence
Accounting principles in conformity with US GAAP
No new accounting principles applied (consistency)
Omitted informative disclosures (none)
Expression of an opinion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

GAAS General Standards

A

Training and Proficiency
Independence
Due Professional Care

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

GAAS Fieldwork Standards

A

Planning and Supervision
Internal Controls
Corroborative Audit Evidence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

GAAS Reporting Standards

A

Accounting principles in conformity with US GAAP
No new accounting principles applied (consistency)
Omitted informative disclosures (none)
Expression of an opinion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

GAAS - Training and Proficiency

A

Proper Education
Knowledge of the Industry and Business
Practical Experience

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

In making judgements about the extent of the effect of the internal auditors work on the auditors procedures, the auditor considers

A

AU-C 610.22

(1) Materiality of the financial statement amounts
(2) Risk (inherent and control) of material misstatements of the assertions related to these financial statement amounts
(3) Degree of subjectivity involved in the evaluation of the audit evidence gathered in support of the assertions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Internal Auditors May Affect the Auditors Audit Plan By

A

Altering the procedures the auditor performs when obtaining and understanding of the entity’s internal control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Auditors May Use the Results of the Internal Auditors Tests of Controls Regarding

A

The effectiveness of relevant controls to reduce the extent of control testing procedures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Control Risk

A

Risk that a material misstatement that could occur in an assertion about a class or transaction account balance or disclosure will not be prevented or detected and corrected on a timely basis by the entity’s internal controls

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Inherent Risk

A

Susceptibility of an assertion about a class of transaction, account balance, or disclosure to a misstatement that could be material either individually or in the aggregate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Standard Auditors Report Introductory Paragraph

A

1st paragraph - should include:

(1) Entity whose financial statements have been audited
(2) Statement that the financial statements have been audited
- identify the title of each statement
- specify date or period covered by each financial statement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Responses to address the assessed risk of material misstatement at the financial statement level

A

AU-C 330.A1

(1) Emphasizing to the audit team the need to maintain professional skepticism
(2) Assigning more experienced staff or those with specialized skills or using specialists
(3) Providing more supervision
(4) Incorporating additional elements of unpredictability in the selection of further audit procedures to be performed
(5) Making general changes to the nature, timing, or extent of audit procedures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Internal Audit

A

Examination of accounting records and other evidence to establish compliance with entities policies and procedures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Quality Control Elements

A

HEAL-ME

(1) Human resources (personnel management)
(2) Ethical requirements (independence)
(3) Acceptance and continuance of client relationships and specific engagements
(4) Leadership responsibilities for quality within the firm (“tone at the top”)

(5) Monitoring
(6) Engagement performance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Entities Receiving Funds from Federal Programs Require a Single Audit in Any Year When

A

(1) The entity spends more than $750,000 in federal awards, grants, and funds

AND

(2) Spends funds from one or more federal program
* If entity only spends funds from one program it may be eligible for a program audit versus a single audit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Program Audit

A

Performed to determine if the projected objectives established by a legislative body for a particular program have been achieved

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Evaluating Objectives of Program Audits

A

(1) Attainment of desired results or benefits
(2) Effectiveness of programs and related functions
(3) Compliance with requirements of laws and regulations related to the program

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Single Audit Act Amendment of 2013

A

Implemented by OMB Circular A-133

Federal legislation that establishes uniform requirements for the audits of federal financial assistance provided to state and local governments and not-for-profit organizations that expend total federal financial assistance equal to or in excess of a specified amount in a fiscal year to have an audit performed in accordance with the act

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Percentage-of-coverage rule

A

Included in Single Audit Act Amendment of 2013

(1) Major programs must be audited
(2) Low risk programs allow for percentage-of-coverage exception

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Major Program Definition

A

Programs that account for at least 40% of spending of federal funding by that entity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Percentage-of-coverage exception

A

Low risk programs audit scope can be reduced to as low as 20% of federal funding spent by the entity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Audit Trail

A

Path left by transaction when it’s processed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Audit Trail Order

A

(1) Original source documents
(2) Transactions, entries, and posting of entries
(3) Financial statements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

How Has IT Impacted the Audit Trail

A

(1) Source documents may no longer be produced and access to documents is more difficult
(2) Ledger summaries may be replaced by electronic master files
(3) Printed data may not be available
(4) Processing activities are difficult to observe - much is automated within the system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

OMB’s Uniform Guidance Subrecipient Definition

A

Nonfederal entity that receives a subaward from a pass through entity to carry out part of a federal program

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Management Affirmations Included in Management Representation Letter

A

AU-C 580

(1) Fair presentation of the financial statements and managements responsibility for them
(2) Completeness of all information provided to the auditor and in financial statements
(3) Representations relating to recognition, measurement, and disclosure (including absence of knowledge of fraud or suspected fraud)
(4) Information concerning subsequent events

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Management Representation Letter

A

Written representation from management containing various affirmations;

(1) Addressed to auditor
(2) Written on client letterhead
(3) Signed by responsible auditor
(4) Dated as of date of auditors report
(5) Required audit procedure - refusal is scope limitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Assurance Engagement

A

Objective to provide assurance regarding financial statements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Integrity

A

(1) An element of character fundamental to professional recognition - quality which the public trust derives and benchmark against which a member must ultimately test all decisions
(2) Requires a member to be honest and candid within the constraints of client confidentiality
(3) Measured in terms of what is right and just
(4) Requires observation of the principles of objectivity and independence and due professional care

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Workpapers Should Show

A

(1) Audit work was adequately planned and supervised
(2) Sufficient understanding of the entity and it’s environment, including internal control, was obtained
(3) Audit evidence obtained provides sufficient appropriate audit evidence to provide a reasonable basis for opinion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Once Engagement has been Accepted Successor Auditor May

A

(1) Make specific inquiries of the predecessor auditor as to matters that affect the conduct of the audit
(2) Review predecessors workpapers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

In Evaluating Reasonableness of Estimates Auditor Concentrates on Key Factors and Assumptions that are

A

(1) Significant to the accounting estimate
(2) Sensitive to variations
(3) Deviations from historical patterns
(4) Subject and susceptible to misstatements and bias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Factors Related to Control Activities that May Impact Auditors Consideration of the Effect of IT on Internal Controls

A

(1) Information processing
(2) Segregation of duties
(3) Physical controls

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Elements of Prospective Compilation Report

A

(1) Identification of prospective financial statements
(2) Statement that the compilation was performed in accordance with attestation standards established by AICPA
(3) Statement that compilation is limited in scope and CPA doesn’t issue an opinion or any assurance
(4) Statement that forecasted results may not be achieved (usually difference between forecast and actual results)
(5) Explanation that CPA assumes no responsibility to update the report for future events and circumstances occurring after the date of the report
(6) Be dated and signed by the practitioners firm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Disclosure of Known Departure from GAAP Needed for

A

Compilation
Review
Audit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Code of Ethics

A

Established by the AICPA to “express the professions recognition of it’s responsibilities to the public, to clients, and to colleagues”

–“principles for honorable behavior, even at the sacrifice of personal advantage”

applies to all members of the AICPA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Code of Ethics Principles

A

Broad guidelines that provide framework for the rules - the spirit behind the rules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Code of Ethics Rules

A

Establish fundamental behavior - minimum acceptable level of conduct that form the basis for disciplinary action

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Code of Ethics Interpretations of Rules of Conduct

A

Guidelines on the scope of the rules - answer many applicability questions - not enforceable but deviations must be justified

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Code of Ethics; Ethics Rulings

A

Formal rulings made by the Professional Ethics Division’s Executive Committee - presented as factual questions and answers; departures in similar circumstances must be justified

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Factors to Consider Regarding Accountants Needs for Retention of Engagement Documentation

A

(1) Nature of the engagement and the firms circumstances
(2) Whether professional standards, law, or regulation prescribe specific retention periods for certain types of engagements
(3) If there are generally accepted retention periods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Request to Change Engagement May Result From

A

(1) Change in circumstances affecting the entity’s requirement for an audit or review
(2) Misunderstanding as to nature of an audit, review, or compilation
(3) Restriction on the scope of audit/review whether client or circumstance imposed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Factors to be Considered Before Agreeing to Change in Engagement

A

(1) Reason for client request (particularly implications of a scope restriction)
(2) Additional effect required
(3) Estimated additional cost

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Elements of the Engagement Letter

A

FACSIMILE

Fees
Auditors responsibility (GAAS)
Confirmation of engagement
Scope and objective of engagement
Internal control
Managements responsibility
Irregularities - fraud
iLlegal acts - noncompliance with applicable laws and regulations
Errors
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Review Engagement Documentation Should Include

A

(1) Engagement letter
(2) Analytical procedures performed
(3) Expectations when not otherwise readily determinable from documentation and factors considered in development of expectations
(4) Significant matters covered in accountants inquiry procedures and responses
(5) Significant findings
(6) Unusual matters considered during review, including their disposition
(7) Communications (oral or written) to appropriate management regarding fraud or noncompliance with laws and regulations that come to the accountants attention
(8) Representation letter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Auditors Responsibility

A

(1) Conducting an audit in accordance with GAAS
(2) Informing the client of improvements in control or economy of operations that come to auditors attention during the engagement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Client’s Audit Responsibilities

A

(1) Making all records available
(2) Not limiting the scope of auditors work
(3) Paying the fee based on the agreed upon method

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Financial Interests that Impair Independence

A

(1) Direct Financial Interests

(2) Material Indirect Financial Interests

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Direct Financial Interest

A

Ownership in entity/client or nonclient investee of client

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Material Indirect Financial Interest

A

Involvement other than direct ownership that exceeds 5% of member’s net worth

Member considered to include individual, their firm, and family

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Examples of Indirect Financial Interest

A

(1) Member is trustee of any trust or executer/administrator of any estate that has or is committed to acquire any direct or material indirect interest in the entity/client
(2) Member has any joint closely held business investment with the entity or with any officer, director, or principal shareholder
(3) Member holds stock in a bank that holds loans to the client
(4) Ownership of mutual fund that holds shares of client
(5) Member has lessor relationship with the client
(6) Litigation between member and client
(7) Member owed fees by client

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

ARSC

A
  • Accounting and Review Services Committee

- Issues SSARS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

SSARS

A

Statements on Standards for Accounting and Review Services

Govern the compilation and review services rendered in connection with unaudited financial statements or other unaudited financial information of an entity that is not required to file financial statements with a regulatory agency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Who Issues SSARs

A

Accounting and Review Services Committee (ARSC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Responsibilities of the PCAOB

A

(1) Register public accounting firms that prepare audit report for issuers
(2) Establish or adopt auditing, quality control, ethics, independence, and other standards relating to the preparation of audit reports for issuers
(3) Conduct inspections of registered public accounting firms
(4) Conduct investigations and disciplinary proceedings concerning, and impose appropriate sanctions with justified upon, registered public accounting firms and associated persons of such firms
(5) Enforce compliance with SOX, the rules of PCAOB, professional standards, and the securities laws relating to the preparation and issuance of audit reports and the obligations and liabilities of accountants with respect thereto, by registered public accounting firms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

PCAOB

A

-Nonprofit corporation established by SOX to oversee the audits of issuers that are subject to the securities laws in order to protect the interests of investors and further the public interest in the preparation of informative, accurate, and independent audit reports

  • Not an agency or establishment of US government
  • Composed of 5 members
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Members of PCAOB

A

5 member with high integrity who have demonstrated a commitment to the interest of investors and the public; should have an understanding of the financial reporting process as it exists under the securities laws as well as the responsibilities of accountants regarding the preparation and issuance of audit reports; appointed to 5 year staggered terms by SEC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Subsequent Event

A

AU-C 560

An event occurring after the balance sheet date but prior to the issuance of the auditors report which has a material effect on the financial statements and therefore requires adjustment or disclosure in the statements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

2 Types of Subsequent Events

A

(1) Provide additional evidence regarding conditions that existed at the balance sheet date and affect estimates in the financial statements - require adjustments
(2) Provide additional evidence regarding conditions that DID NOT exist at the balance sheet date but arose subsequent to that date but may require disclosure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

How should auditors handle information brought to their attention after the report date?

A

Auditor has no obligation to perform any further procedures after the report date

Auditor should:

(1) Consult with an attorney

(2) Determine if the subsequently discovered information:
a. is reliable
b. existed at the date of the report
c. is material to the report
and
d. is applicable to the report that’s still being relied on

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Elements of Accountants Compilation Report

A
  • In writing
  • Statement that management’s responsible for financial statements
  • ID financial statements subject to compilation
  • ID entity whose financial statements were subject to compilation
  • Specify date or period covered
  • Statement that compilation with performed in accordance with SSARs
  • Statement that accountant did not audit or review statements nor were they required to perform any procedures to to verify accuracy or completeness therefore doesn’t express opinion, conclusion, nor provide any assurance
  • Signature of accountant or firm
  • City and state where accountant practices
  • Date of report ( date accountant completed procedures required)
  • Each page of financial statements compiled by accountant may include reference such as “see compilation report” at accountants discretion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Obtaining an understanding of the entity and it’s environment will help the auditor:

A

(1) Establish materiality for planning purposes and to evaluate whether judgment remains appropriate
(2) Consider appropriateness of selection and application of accounting policies
(3) Consider adequacy of financial statement disclosures
(4) ID areas where special audit considerations may be necessary
(5) Develop expectations for analytical procedures
(6) Design and perform further audit procedures to reduce risk to an appropriately low level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Obtaining an understanding of the entity and it’s environment is:

A

A continuous, dynamic process of gathering, updating, and analyzing information through an audit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Qualified opinion should be expressed when

A

Sufficient appropriate audit evidence concludes that misstatements are material but not universal to the financial statements

OR

Auditor is unable to obtain sufficient appropriate audit evidence but concludes that the possible effects could be universal but not material

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Adverse opinion is expressed when

A

Sufficient appropriate audit evidence is acquired but misstatements are both material and universal to the financial statements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Adverse Opinion

A

An “overall” audit opinion which states that the financial statements do not present fairly the financial position or the results of operations or cash flows in conformity with the applicable financial reporting framework

Must have sufficient appropriate audit evidence to support

Requires disclosure of all substantive reasons for the adverse opinion and the principal effects of the inconsistency on the financial statements if known OR a statement in a separate emphasis-of-matter or other-matter paragraph that the effects aren’t reasonably determinable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

When is an adverse opinion warranted?

A

When departure from an applicable financial reporting framework or the inconsistency is sufficiently material and pervasive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Qualified Opinion

A

Except for the effects of the matter to which the qualification relates, the financial statements present fairly in all material respects

Requires disclosure of all substantive reasons in one or more separate emphasis-of-matter or other-matter paragraph

The words “except for” and a reference to the emphasis-of-matter or other-matter paragraphs should appear in the opinion paragraph

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

When is a qualified opinion warranted?

A

When the matter is material enough to prevent an unmodified opinion but not sufficiently material to require an adverse or disclaimer of opinion. Expressed when there is one of the following:

(1) Lack of sufficient appropriate evidence that doesn’t warrant a disclaimer of opinion
(2) Restriction of scope that doesn’t warrant a disclaimer of opinion
(3) Departure from GAAP that doesn’t warrant an adverse opinion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Unaudited Financial Statements Presented Comparatively With Audited Financial Statements Should:

A

(1) Be clearly marked as unaudited

AND

(2) Include either:
- A separate paragraph in the audit report describing the responsibility assumed for the unaudited financial statements

OR

  • The reissued report on the unaudited statements
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Employee Retirement Income Security Act

A

ERISA

Regulates employers who offer pension or welfare plans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Review Report Elements

A
  • Must Be Written*
    (1) Title (including the word “independent”)
    (2) Addressee (as appropriate)
    (3) Introductory Paragraph
    (4) “Management’s Responsibility” section
    (5) “Accountant’s Responsibility” section
    (6) Concluding section
    (7) Manual or printed signature of accountants firm
    (8) City and state where accountant practices
    (9) Date of review report
    (10) Each page of financial statements reviewed should include reference to report
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Review Report Introductory Paragraph Elements

A

Identifies

(1) Entity whose financial statements have been reviewed
(2) The financial statements reviewed

Specifies
(1) Date or period covered by each financial statement

Includes statements that

(1) The financial statements identified were under review
(2) A review includes primarily applying analytical procedures to managements financial data
(3) A review is substantially less in scope than an audit - don’t express an opinion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Review Report Management’s Responsibility Section

A

Includes explanation that management is responsible for the preparation and fair presentation of the financial statements in accordance with the applicable financial reporting framework; this responsibility includes the design, implementation, and maintenance of internal control sufficient to provide a reasonable basis for the preparation and fair presentation of financial statements in accordance with the applicable financial reporting framewok

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Review Report Accountants Responsibility Section

A

Includes the following statements:

(1) The accountants responsibility is to conduct the review engagement in accordance with SSARs promulgated by the Accounting and Review Services Committee of the AICPA. Accountant’s review report should also explain that those standards require that the accountant perform the procedures to obtain limited assurance as a basis for reporting whether the accountant is aware of any material modifications that should be made to the financial statements for them to be in accordance with the applicable financial reporting framework
(2) The accountant believes that the review evidence obtained is sufficient and appropriate to provide a basis for conclusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Review Report Conclusion

A

Must have appropriate heading and include statement about whether the accountant is aware of any material modifications to the accompanying financial statements for them to be in accordance with applicable financial reporting framework and identifies origin of those principles, if applicable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Date of Review Report

A

No earlier than the date on which the accountant completed procedures sufficient to obtain limited assurance as a basis for reporting whether the accountant is aware of any material modifications that should be made to the financial statements for them to be in accordance with the applicable financial reporting framework, including evidence that:

(1) All statements including notes have been prepared
(2) Management has asserted that they have taken responsibility for those statements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Auditor May Request Direct Assistance From the Internal Auditors In:

A

(1) Obtaining an understanding of internal control
(2) Performing tests of controls
(3) Performing substantive tests

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

In Regards to Litigation, Claims, and Assessments the Auditor Must Obtain Audit Evidence Relevant To:

A

(1) It’s existence
(2) The accounting period in which it’s underlying cause occurred
(3) Degree of probability of an unfavorable outcome
(4) Range of potential loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Corroborating Evidence

A

(1) Evidence other than the books of original entry which allows the auditor to reach a conclusion
(2) Includes both internally and externally generated documents
(3) All information obtained by the auditor through inquiry, observation, inspection, and physical examination and any other information developed by or available to the auditor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

When Are Contingent Fees Permitted?

A

When they involve a legal proceeding or ruling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Statistical Sampling Allows the Auditor to Make _________ Statements About the Population on the Basis of a Sample

A

Objective

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Key Considerations in the Development of an Audit Program

A

(1) Materiality
(2) Risk of material misstatement
(3) Business and industry considerations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Audit Risk

A

Risk of Material Misstatement (RMM) + Detection Risk (DR)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Sampling Methodologies

A

(1) Random-Number Sampling
(2) Systemic Sampling
(3) Haphazard Sampling
(4) Block Sampling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Random-Number Sampling

A

Numbered documents or transactions are selected through the use of random number tables or computer software

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Systemic Sampling

A

Every “nth” item is selected from a randomly distributed population from a randomly selected starting point

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Haphazard Sampling

A

Sample consisting of units selected without any conscious bias - assuming random distribution of the population

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Block Sampling

A

aka Cluster Sampling - Sample consisting of contiguous units

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Inquiries to Make of Predecessor Auditor

A

RID-C

(1) Reasons for change
(2) Integrity of management
(3) Disagreements during audit
(4) Communication with management or those charged with governance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Matters to Be Communicated to Those Charged with Governance

A

DISAPPROVE

(1) Disagreements with management
(2) Illegal acts (Noncompliance with laws and regulations)
(3) Significant accounting policies adopted or changed by management
(4) Adjustments proposed by auditor with significant impact on the financial statements
(5) Prior discussions with management before acceptance of the engagement
(6) Problems or significant difficulties arising during the audit in obtaining evidence and employee cooperation
(7) Responsibilities of the auditor under GAAS to form and express an opinion
(8) Other information
(9) Views of the accountant regarding the qualitative aspects of the entity’s significant accounting policies , estimates, and disclosures
(10) Estimates in the accounting records and the process used to obtain them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Other Information to be Communicated to Those Charged with Governance

A

(1) Corrected misstatements brought to managements attention as a result of audit procedures
(2) Items discussed with or communicated to management regarding significant findings or issues
(3) Auditor views on accounting or auditing matters about which management consulted with other accountants
(4) Written representations requested by the auditors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Review Conclusion Should be Obtained By:

A

(1) Making inquiries of management and other personnel
(2) Performing analytical procedures
(3) Obtaining representations from management

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

CPA Should Establish Policies and Procedures for Determining the Acceptance of a Client to:

A

Minimize the risk of being associated with a client whose management lacks integrity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

Audit Procedure in Regards to Related Party Transactions

A

(1) Determine existence
(2) Identify transactions
(3) Examine as to business purpose, substance, extent and effect on financial statement
(4) Be certain appropriate information is disclosed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

Information to be Disclosed Regarding Related Party Transactions

A

(1) Nature of relationship(s)
(2) Description of transactions
(3) Dollar volume of transactions
(4) Amounts due from or to relate parties and terms if relevant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

Assertions Related to Over or Understatement of Revenue

A

(1) Valuation
(2) Completeness
(3) Cutoff

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

To Compile or Review the Financial Statements, Accountant Should Possess and Understanding of:

A

The clients business.

(1) The clients organization
(2) The operating characteristics
(3) The nature of it’s asset’s, liabilities, revenues, and expenses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Pro Forma Included in Any Report Filed with the SEC must be Presented in a Matter that:

A

(1) Doesn’t contain an untrue statement of a material fact or omit a material fact necessary to in order to make the pro forma financial information not misleading
(2) Reconciles it with the financial condition and results of operating of the issuer under GAAP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

Letter of Inquiry Required for

A

Audit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

For Review Engagement Accountant Should Consider

A

(1) Making inquiries concerning actions taken at meetings of stockholders, board of directors, committees of the board of directors or comparable meetings that may affect the financial statement
(2) Reading the financial statements to consider whether the financial statements appear to conform with the applicable reporting framework
(3) Obtaining reports from other accountants who have been engaged to audit or review the financial statements of significant components of the entity, it’s subsidiaries, and other investees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

Indepence and Compilation Engagements

A

(1) Accountant isn’t precluded from issuing a compilation report for an entity from which the accountant isn’t independent - must determine whether they are independent or not
(2) When not independent accountant should indicate lack of independence in final paragraph of compilation report
(3) If elect to disclose reasons for impaired independence all such reasons should be included in descriptions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

Accountant May Obtain Industry Knowledge Through

A

(1) AICPA guides
(2) Industry publications
(3) Financial statements of other entities in the industry
(4) Textbooks and periodicals
(5) Appropriate continuing professional education
(6) Individuals knowledgeable about the industry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

When an Independent Auditor is Engaged to Report on Financial Statements Prepared for Use in Another Country the Auditor Should Perform Audit Procedures Necessary to Comply With

A

The general and fieldwork standards of that country as well as GAAS or International Standards on Auditing when requested to do so

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

SOX Section 409

A

Real Time Issuer Disclosures

Issuers must disclose to the public on a rapid and current basis any additional information concerning material changes in financial conditions or operation in plain english

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

Auditors Planning Activities

A

(1) Identifying characteristics of the engagement that affect the scope of the audit
(2) Determining the reporting objectives to plan the nature and timing of communications
(3) Consider other factors that the auditor deems significant to the direction of the audit
(4) Ascertain the nature, timing, and extent of resources needed to perform the engagement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

Steps in Planning an Audit

A

BRAINSTOPS

(1) Basic discussions with the client
(2) Review of audit documentation
(3) Ask about recent developments
(4) Interim financial statements analyzed
(5) Non-audit personnel of the accounting firm who have provided services to the client should be identified and consulted
(6) Staffing for audit should be determined
(7) Outside assistance needs should be determined
(8) Pronouncements reflecting changes in accounting principles should be read or reviewd
(9) Scheduling with the client

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

Analytical Procedures are _______ in the Planning of an Audit

A

Mandatory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

Detection Risk

A

Risk that audit procedures will incorrectly lead to a conclusion that material misstatement doesn’t exist when it does.

DR = Test of Details Risk + Substantive Analytical Procedure Risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

Detection Risk has _______ Relationship to Risk of Material Misstatement

A

Inverse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

Two Types of Fraud

A

(1) Fraudulent Financial Reporting

(2) Misappropriation of Assets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

Fraudulent Financial Reporting

A

Manipulation, falsification, alteration of accounting records or supporting documents.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

Misappropriation of Assets

A

(1) Defalcation schemes
(2) Embezzlement of funds
(3) Theft of other assets
(4) Misuse of entity assets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

Known Misstatements

A

Misstatements specifically identified during the audit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

Likely Misstatements

A

Have not been specifically identified but are considered likely to exist based on audit evidence obtained or due to a difference between between management and auditor judgement

May be based on the assumption that known misstatements identified in a sample are proportionately present in the population

May be based on the auditors knowledge of of entity, it’s industry, or it’s environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

Successor Auditor May Review Predecessor Auditors Workpapers Including

A

(1) Planning Documentation
(2) Internal Control
(3) Audit Results
(4) Analysis of balance sheet accounts
(5) Analysis relating to contingencies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

Auditors Must Document Consideration of Fraud Including:

A

(1) Brainstorming session
(2) Procedures performed to obtain information used to identify risks of material misstatement due to fraud
(3) Identified risks of material misstatement
(4) Reasons revenue recognition wasn’t considered a fraud risk factor if appropriate
(5) Results of procedures performed in response to risk of management override of controls
(6) Other factors drawing the auditor to the conclusion that additional procedures were required
(7) Nature of communication about fraud

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

Fraud Risk Factors

A
  • Motivation
  • Opportunities
  • Attitudes/ Rationalizations
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

If Independence is Impaired During a Compilation Engagement Accountant Should

A

Include a final paragraph in compilation report referencing non-independence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

In Planning an Examination of Internal Control the Auditor Should Consider

A

(1) Knowledge of the entity’s internal control obtained during other professional engagements
(2) Matters affecting the industry in which the entity operates
(3) Matters relating to the entity’s business
(4) Extent of recent changes, if any, in entity, operations, or internal control
(5) Preliminary judgements about materiality and risk
(6) Deficiencies previously communicated to those charged with governance
(7) Legal or regulatory matters of which the entity is aware
(8) Type and extent of available evidence related to effectiveness of internal control
(9) Public information about the entity relevant to the evaluation of the likelihood of material misstatement
(10) Knowledge about risks related to the entity evaluated as part of the auditors client acceptance and retention evaluations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

Auditors Report on Summary Financial Statements Derived From Those that the CPA has Audited Should Indicate that:

A

(1) Auditor has audited and expressed an opinion on the complete financial statements
(2) Date of the auditors report on the complete financial statements
(3) Type of opinion expressed
(4) Whether, in the auditors opinion, the information set forth in the summary financial statements is presented fairly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

Actions Auditor Should Take if Other Supplementary Information Contains Material Inconsistency with Financial Statements

A

(1) Determine if financial statements or auditors report require revision
(2) Request client revise other information
(3) If client refuses, consider taking further action

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

Further Action to Consider if Client Refuses to Revise Other Supplementary Information Containing Material Inconsistency with Financial Statements

A

(1) Add emphasis-of-matter paragraph to auditors report describing inconsistency
(2) Withdraw from engagement
(3) Withhold use of auditors report with other information

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

If Accountant Believes Modification of Standard is not Adequate to Indicate Deficiencies Accountant Should:

A

Withdraw from the compilation or review engagement.

May wish to consult with legal counsel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

Qualified or Adverse Opinion Based on Illegal Acts Should be Expressed When:

A

Illegal act has material effect on statements and hasn’t been properly accounted for or disclosed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

Qualified or Disclaimer of Opinion Based on Illegal Acts Should Expressed

A

If precluded by the client from obtaining sufficient appropriate audit evidence to evaluate whether an illegal act that could be material has occured

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

When Auditor Should Withdraw Based on Illegal Acts

A

If client refuses to accept auditors report as modified for illegal acts

Reasons for withdrawal should be provided in writing to those charged with governance

157
Q

Matters Included in Understanding With Client Regarding Audit of Financial Statements

A

(1) Elaboration of scope of audit
(2) Form of any other communication of results of audit
(3) Arrangements regarding planning and performance of audit (including composition of audit team)
(4) Expectation that management will provide written representations
(5) Agreement of management to make draft financial statements and any accompanying information available to auditor in time to audit in proposed time tables
(6) Agreement of management to inform auditor of events occurring or facts discovered after date of financial statements by management that may affect financial statements
(7) Basis on which fees are computed and billing arrangements
(8) Request for management to confirm receipt of and agree to terms of engagement letter as evidenced by signature

158
Q

Elaboration Of Scope of Audit Should Include Reference to:

A

Applicable legislation, regulations, GAAS, and ethical and other pronouncements

159
Q

When Basic Financial Statements are Accompanied by Supplemental Information in Compilation or Review Accountant Should:

A

Clearly indicate degree of responsibility, if any, accountant is taking regarding such financial information in either:

(1) An other-matter paragraph in the accountants report on financial statements

OR

(2) Separate report on supplementary information

160
Q

Elements of Supervision

A

(1) Instructing the team
(2) Keeping informed of significant issues encountered
(3) Reviewing work performed
(4) Dealing with differences of opinion among firm personnel

161
Q

Supervision

A

Involves directing the efforts of the engagement team that’s involved in accomplishing the objectives of the audit and determining whether those objectives were acheived

162
Q

When Auditor Reissues Report of the Financial Statements the Date of Reissued Report Should Be

A

Same as the original report

AU-C 560.16

163
Q

If Auditor Reissues Report Revised Financial Statement and Revised Opinion Differs from Previously Expressed Opinion Auditor Should Disclose What in Emphasis-of-Matter or Other-Matter Paragraph

A

(1) Date of auditors previous report
(2) Type of opinion previously expressed
(3) Substantive reasons for different opinion
(4) Auditors opinion on revised financial statement is different from previous opinion

164
Q

Revised Reports Should be _________ Dated

A

Dual

165
Q

Financial Expert as Defined by SOX Title IV

A

A Person who has, through education and experience as a public accountant or auditor or a principal financial officer, comptroller, or principal accounting officer of an issuer:

(1) An understanding of GAAP and financial statements

(2) Experience in:
- Preparation or auditing of financial statements of generally comparable issuers
- Application of such principles in connection with the accounting for estimates, accruals, and reserves

(3) Experience with internal accounting controls
(4) An understanding of audit committee functions

166
Q

Acceptable Experience to be Considered a Financial Expert as Defined by SOX Title IV

A
Public Accountant
Auditor
Principal Financial Officer of Issuer
Comptroller of Issuer
Principal Accounting Officer of Issuer
167
Q

Audit Team Should Communicate About the Risks of Material Misstatement Due to Fraud During Which Phase of the Audit

A

Throughout the entire audit

168
Q

Analytical Procedures Consist of

A

Evaluations of financial information made by a study of plausible relationships among both financial and non-financial data

169
Q

SOX Title III Section 303

A

“Improper Influence on Conduct of Audits”

It is prohibited for any issuer’s officer or director (or anyone acting under their direction) to take any action to fraudulently influence, coerce, manipulate, or mislead any independent public or certified accountant engaged in the performance of an audit of the financial statements of that issuer for the purpose of rendering such financial statements materially misleading

170
Q

Code Of Professional Conduct Threats to Independence

A

(1) Adverse interest threat
(2) Advocacy threat
(3) Familiarity threat
(4) Management participation threat
(5) Self-interest threat
(6) Self-review threat
(7) Undue influence threat

171
Q

Adverse Interest Threat

A

When member’s interests are in opposition to the clients they may not act objectively

172
Q

Advocacy Threat

A

May compromise independence when promoting a clients position, depending on the degree to which member promotes it

173
Q

Familiarity Threat

A

Long relationship with the client may make member sympathetic to clients interest or accepting of client’s work or product

174
Q

Management Participation Threat

A

Member who serves as an officer or director of an attest client, accepts responsibility for the design, implementation, or maintenance of internal control for an attest client, or hires, supervises or terminates employees of the attest client

175
Q

Self-Interest Threat

A

When member may benefit from an interest in or relationship with an attest client - may be financial or non-financial

176
Q

Self-Review Threat

A

When member or member’s firm performs non-attest services or an attest client there is the possibility that either the member won’t test the information with an appropriate level of due diligence or may overlook an error or other discrepancy to preserve reputation of firm or relationship with client

177
Q

Undue Influence Threat

A

Threat that the member will subordinate judgement to a third party as a result of the third party’s reputation or expertise, aggressive or dominant personality, or attempts to coerce or exercise excessive influence; or to someone associated with the attest client

178
Q

Items Needed to Determine Sample Size

A

(1) Reliability Level
(2) Expected Deviation Rate (Estimated Error Rate)
(3) Tolerable Deviation Rate

179
Q

Tolerable Deviation Rate

A

Greatest error rate the auditor is willing to tolerate and still conclude that the control is working effectively.

180
Q

Reliability Level

A

Level of confidence which represents the degree of sampling risk the auditor is willing to accept.

181
Q

Expected Deviation Rate

A

Rate by which the auditor expects the sample to vary

182
Q

Elements to be Considered in Evaluating Company’s Internal Control Environment

A

(1) Communication and enforcement of integrity and ethical values
(2) Commitment to competence
(3) Participation of those charged with governance
(4) Management’s philosophy and operating style
(5) Organizational structure
(6) Assignment of authority and responsibility
(7) Human resource policy and practices

183
Q

Competencies Required For Engagement Partner

A

(1) Understanding the role of quality control and the code of professional conduct
(2) Understanding the services to be performed
(3) Technical proficiency
(4) Familiarity with the industry
(5) Professional judgement
(6) Understanding the organizations information technology system

184
Q

Accounting Firm’s Quality Control System Should Include Work Review Considering if:

A

(1) Work has been performed in accordance with professional standards and regulatory and legal requirements
(2) Significant findings and issues have been raised for further consideration
(3) Appropriate consultations have taken place and resulting conclusions have been documented and implemented
(4) Nature, timing, and extent of work is appropriate and without need for revision
(5) Work performed supports conclusions and is appropriately documented
(6) Evidence obtained is sufficient and appropriate to support report
(7) Objectives of engagement procedures have been achieved

185
Q

Three Primary Objectives of Internal Control System

A

ACE

(1) Accurate and reliable financial reporting
(2) Compliance with applicable laws and regulations
(3) Efficient and effective operations

186
Q

Assertions Related to Events and Transactions that Occurred During the Period

A

CPA-CO

(1) Completeness
(2) Period Cutoff
(3) Accuracy and valuation
(4) Classification
(5) Occurence

187
Q

Assertions Related to Account Balances

A

RACE

(1) Rights and Obligations
(2) Accuracy and Valuation
(3) Completeness
(4) Existence

188
Q

Assertions Related to Presentation

A

RACOU-n’s

(1) Rights and obligations
(2) Accuracy and valuation
(3) Completeness
(4) Occurence
(5) Understandability and classification

189
Q

Components of Internal Control

A

CRIME

(1) Control Activities
(2) Risk Assessments
(3) Information and communication
(4) Monitoring
(5) Environment (Control environment)

190
Q

Control Environment

A

CHOPPER

(1) Commitment to Competence
(2) Human Resource Policy and Practices
(3) Organizational Structure
(4) Participation of Those Charged with Governance
(5) Philosophy of Management and Operating Style
(6) Ethical Values and Integrity
(7) Responsibility Assigment

191
Q

COSO Principles Related to Control Environment

A

Management and those charged with governance should:

(1) Demonstrate a commitment to integrity and ethical values
(2) Exercise their oversight responsibility
(3) Establish structure, authority, and responsibility
(4) Demonstrate a commitment to competence
AND
(5) Enforce accountability

192
Q

COSO Principles Related to Risk Assessment

A

(1) Specify suitable objectives
(2) Identify and analyze risks
(3) Assess fraud risk
(4) Identify and analyze significant change

193
Q

Types of Control Activities

A

PIPS

(1) Performance Reviews
(2) Information Processing
(3) Physical Controls
(4) Segregation of Duties

194
Q

Performance Reviews Control Activities

A

Controls involving the evaluation of performance against some criteria

195
Q

Information Processing Control Activities

A

Controls that prevent the processing of information unless certain criteria are met

196
Q

Physical Controls

A

Controls that limit access to assets

197
Q

Segregation of Duties

A

Involving assigning different people responsibilities for certain activities related to a transaction

198
Q

Duties that Should be Segregated

A

ARCC

(1) Authorization of transactions
(2) Recording (posting) of transactions
(3) Custody of assets
(4) Comparisons (reconciliations)

199
Q

COSO Control Activities Principles

A

(1) Select and develop control activities
(2) Select and develop general controls over technology
(3) Deploy controls through policies and procedures

200
Q

COSO Information and Communication Principles

A

(1) Use relevant information
(2) Communicate internally
(3) Communicate externally

201
Q

COSO Monitoring Principles

A

(1) Conduct ongoing and/or separate evaluations

(2) Evaluate and communicate deficiencies

202
Q

Common Techniques for Documenting Internal Controls

A

FIND

(1) Flowchart
(2) Internal Control Questionnaire
(3) Narrative or Memorandum
(4) Decision table/tree

203
Q

Before Submission of a Compilation the Accountant Should

A

Read the financial statements and consider whether they appear to be appropriate in form and free from obvious material errors

204
Q

PCAOB Rule 3502

A

Holds individual responsible for taking an action knowing, or recklessly not knowing, that violates the rules of the PCAOB, provisions of the securities laws, and professional standards

205
Q

What is a Review?

A

Service with an objective of obtaining limited assurance that there are no material modifications that should be made to the financial statements. Is assurance and attest engagement.

206
Q

List Assurance Engagements

A

Review and Audit

207
Q

List Attest Engagements

A

Compilation
Review
Audit

208
Q

What is a Compilation?

A

Service with objective of assisting management in presenting financial information in the form of financial statements without undertaking to obtain or provide any assurance that there are no material modifications to be made to the statements. Is an attest engagement NOT an assurance engagement.

209
Q

Potential Benefits of IT to Internal Controls

A

Efficiency and effectiveness

(1) Consistently apply predefined business rules and perform complex calculations in processing large volumes of data
(2) Enhance timeliness, availability, and accuracy of engagement
(3) Facilitate additional analysis of information
(4) Enhance ability to monitor the performance of entity’s activities and policies and procedures
(5) Reduce risk that controls will be circumvented
(6) Enhance ability to achieve effective segregation of duties by implementing security controls in applications, databases, and operating systems

210
Q

Extent and Nature of the Risks to Internal Control Associated with IT Vary Depending on the Nature and Characteristics of:

A

Entity’s information system

211
Q

2 Broad Categories of Statistical Sampling

A

Attribute Sampling

Variable Sampling

212
Q

Attribute Sampling

A

Used to estimate the rate of occurrence of specific quality in a population

213
Q

Discovery Sampling

A

Appropriate when expected occurrence rate is extremely low (near zero). Used when auditor desires a specific chance of observing at least one example of occurrence if the true rate of occurrence is greater than expected

214
Q

Variables Sampling

A

Classical statistical sampling method that reaches a conclusion on monetary amounts of a population

215
Q

Attribute Sampling Risks

A
  • Assessing risk of material misstatement too low

- Assessing risk of material misstatement too high

216
Q

Risk of Assessing the RMM Too Low

A

Auditor concludes deviation rate is lower than tolerable rate when true deviation rate is higher than tolerable rate - will not do sufficient amount of testing and may fail to uncover material misstatement - Ineffective

217
Q

Risk of Assessing the RMM Too High

A

Auditor concludes deviation rate is higher than tolerable rate when true deviation rate is lower than tolerable rate
- improperly decides not to rely on control and do more substantive testing - inefficient

218
Q

Variable Sampling Risks

A

(1) Risk of incorrect acceptance

(2) Risk of incorrect rejection

219
Q

Risk of Incorrect Acceptance

A

Based on sample auditor may estimate that amount is close enough to recorded amount to conclude that number is materially correct when actually materially misstated - ineffective

220
Q

Risk of Incorrect Rejection

A

Based on sample auditor may estimate that amount is different enough to decide number is materially misstated when actually correct - auditor will perform a large amount of additional tests - inefficient

221
Q

Working Capital

A

Current Assets - Current Liabilities

222
Q

What Does the Working Capital Ratio Measure?

A

Company’s solvency

223
Q

Current Ratio

A

Current Assets/Current Liabilities

224
Q

Quick Ratio

A

(Acid Test Ratio)

Cash + Marketable Securities + Net Receivables / Current Liabilities

225
Q

Current Cash Debt Coverage Ratio

A

Net Cash Provided By Operating Activities / Average Current Liabilities

226
Q

Inventory Turnover

A

Cost Of Goods Sold/ Average Inventory

227
Q

Asset Turnover

A

Net Sales/ Average Total Assets

228
Q

Auditors Responsibility In Regards to Accounting Estimates

A

Determining the reasonableness of the estimate

229
Q

Auditor Actions Related to Reasonableness of Accounting Estimates

A

(1) Identifying circumstances that require estimates
(2) Evaluate whether the methods for making estimates are appropriate and applied consistently
(3) Determine if changes from prior period are appropriate

230
Q

Consulting Services

A

Provide advisory services but don’t generally remain to implement advice

231
Q

Internally Generated Audit Evidence is More Reliable When:

A

Internal control is effective

232
Q

Audit Evidence is More Reliable When it’s in What Form?

A

Documentary

233
Q

Documentary Evidence

A

Any type of written record the entity has exchanged with an outside party

234
Q

Persuasiveness of Evidence is Based on it’s

A

Source

235
Q

Hierarchy of Evidence Sources

A

(1) Directly obtained by auditor
(2) Obtained directly from outsider
(3) Prepared by outsider but obtained from client
(4) Prepared by client

236
Q

Number of Days’ Supply in Average Inventory

A

360/ Inventory Turnover

OR

Average (ending) Inventory / Average daily COGS

237
Q

Number of Days’ Sales in Average Receivables

A

360/Receivables Turnover

238
Q

Profit Margin on Sales

A

Gross Margin

Net Income/Net Sales

239
Q

If Auditor Believes There Could Be Substantial Doubt of Entity to Continue as a Going Concern, Written Representation From Management Including What Should be Obtained?

A

(1) Management’s plans to mitigate substantial doubt

(2) Financial statements disclose all details relevant to ability to continue to as going concern

240
Q

Management Plans to Mitigate Substantial Doubts May Include Plans To:

A

(1) Dispose of assets
(2) Borrow money or restructure debt
(3) Reduce or delay expenditures
(4) Increase ownership equity

241
Q

Conditions or Events That Might Alert an Auditor to Identify Substantial Doubt

A

(1) Negative trends (ie: recurring operating losses)
(2) Indications of possible financial difficulties (ie: default on loan)
(3) Internal matters (ie: work stoppages)
(4) External matters that have occurred (ie: legal proceedings)

242
Q

Materiality

A

Concept that recognizes some matters, individually or in the aggregate, are important for fair presentation.

Matter of professional judgement based on the auditors perception of the needs of financial statement users.

Involves both quantitative and qualitative considerations.

243
Q

Factors to Consider in Materiality Judgements Based on Perception of Users Needs

A

(1) Whether applicable financial reporting framework, laws, or regulations affect users expectations regarding measurement or disclosure
(2) Key disclosures in the entity’s industry and environment
(3) Whether attention is focused on the financial performance of a particular business segment that is separately disclosed in consolidating financial statements

244
Q

Rate of Return on Assets

A

Net Income/Average Total Assets

245
Q

Rate of Return on Equity

A

(Net Income - Preferred Dividends)/ Average Common Stockholders Equity

246
Q

Earnings Per Share

A

(Net Income - Preferred Dividends)/ Weighted Shares Outstanding

247
Q

Price-Earnings Ratio

A

Market Price of Stock/ Earnings per share

248
Q

Payouts Ratio

A

Cash Dividends/Net Income

249
Q

Debt to Equity

A

Total Debt / Stockholders Equity

250
Q

Debt to Total Assets

A

Total Debt / Total Assets

251
Q

Times Interest Earned

A

Income before Interest Expense and Taxes / Interest Expense

252
Q

Cash Debt Coverage Ratio

A

Net Cash Provided By Operating Activities / Average Total Liabilities

253
Q

Book Value Per Share

A

Common Stockholders Equity / Outstanding Shares

254
Q

A Practitioner Should NOT Compile Prospective Financial Statements That Excludes:

A

Disclosure of the summary of the significant assumptions

255
Q

A Practitioner Should NOT Compile a Financial Projection That Excludes:

A

Either:

(1) Identification of hypothetical assumptions
(2) Description of limitations on the usefulness of the presentation

256
Q

General Partner Has a ________ Financial Interest

A

Direct

257
Q

Limited Partner has a ____________ Financial Interest

A

Indirect

258
Q

When does Limited Partner have a Direct Financial Interest

A

If limited partner:

(1) Controls partnership
(2) Supervises or participates in partnership investment decisions
(3) Has the ability to replace general partner
(4) Has ability to participate in investment decisions

259
Q

Audit Program

A

Written outline of work to be done during an audit

260
Q

Disclaimer of Opinion

A

Expression of no opinion

261
Q

When is Disclaimer of Opinion Warranted

A

When restrictions on scope of audit are so severe that auditors are unable to obtain sufficient appropriate audit evidence

262
Q

Confidential Client Information Rule Does Not

A

(1) Relieve member of profession obligations under “Compliance with Standards” and “Accounting Principles”
(2) Affect members obligation to comply with validly issued and enforceable subpoena or summons
(3) Prohibit members compliance with applicable laws and government regulations
(4) Prohibit review of a members professional practice under AICPA or state CPA society or Board of Accountancy
(5) Preclude member from initiating a complaint with or responding to any inquiry made by the professional ethics division or trial board of AICPA or a duly constituted investigative or disciplinary body of a state CPA society or Board of Accountancy

263
Q

Actions to Be Taken Upon Auditor Reissuing a Report

A

(1) Read financial statements of subsequent periods
(2) Compare prior-period financial statements to the subsequent periods
(3) Request written representation from management
(4) Obtain representation letter from successor auditor

264
Q

Qualitative Aspects of Deviations to be Considered

A

(1) Nature and cause of deviation

(2) Possible relationship of the deviation to other phases of the audit

265
Q

Auditor Responses to Discovering Risk of Fraud Exists

A

(1) Changing overall conduct of audit
(2) Consider changing nature, timing, and extent of audit procedures
(3) Consider performance of certain procedures to further address risk involving management override of controls

266
Q

Potential Audit Conduct Considerations in Response to Discovery that Risk of Fraud Exists

A

(1) Assignment of personnel and supervision
(2) Managements selection of accounting principles
(3) Using audit procedures that include an element of unpredictability

267
Q

Who Should Perform Analytical Procedures in the Overall Review Stage of an Audit

A

Manager or partner

268
Q

Assessment of Competence of Internal Auditor is Obtained by Inquiring About

A

(1) Education level and professional experience
(2) Professional certification and continuing education
(3) Audit policies, programs, and procedures
(4) Practices regarding assignment of internal auditors
(5) Supervision and review of internal auditors activities
(6) Quality of working paper documentation reports and recommendations
(7) Evaluation of internal auditors performance

269
Q

When Discovering Information Leading Successor Auditor to Believe that Prior Year’s Financial Statements Audited by Predecessor Auditor Require Substantial Revision, Successor Auditor Should:

A

Arrange a meeting between all parties

270
Q

When Issuing Letters for Underwriters (Comfort Letters) Accountant May Provide Negative Assurance Concerning

A

The entity’s information being in conformity with GAAP

271
Q

Which Risks May be Expressed in Quantitative and Non-Quantitative Terms

A

(1) Control Risk
(2) Inherent Risk
(3) Detection Risk

272
Q

A Financial Forecast is Appropriate for ________ Use Because

A

General or limited

The assumptions as general in nature regarding factors that will affect the entity’s performance

273
Q

A Financial Projection is Appropriate for _________ Use Because

A

Limited

The assumptions are based on hypothetical propositiong

274
Q

Hypothetical Propositions

A

Assumptions about events or transactions that may not actually occur

275
Q

AU-C 805

A

States that it is perfectly acceptable for an auditor to be engaged to audit only one financial statement or specific element of financial statement. Not considered a scope limitation but must be properly conveyed with expressing an opinion

276
Q

SOX Title I Section 104

A

“Inspections of Registered Public Accounting Firms”

PCAOB has mandate and authority to conduct compliance inspections of each registered public accounting firm

277
Q

Per SOX Section 104 Firms That Audit More than 100 Issuers Must be Inspected How Often?

A

Annually

278
Q

Per SOX Section 104 Firms That Audit 100 or Less Issuers Must be Inspected How Often?

A

Every 3 years

279
Q

SQCS

A

Statements on Quality Control Standards

280
Q

TRUE or FALSE

A Clients Accounting Data By Itself Cannot be Considered Sufficient Appropriate Audit Evidence to Support the Financial Statements

A

True - AU-C 500.A7

281
Q

Source Code Comparison Program

A

Compares the coding of the program from its last run with the original program to test for any unauthorized changes

282
Q

If Auditor Decides to Consider the Effect of Internal Auditors Work on The Audit or to Use Them to Provide Direct Assistance, Auditor Must Evaluate:

A

(1) Objectivity of internal audit function
(2) Internal auditor’s technical competence
(3) That work is carried out with due professional care
(4) Communications between internal auditor and external auditor are effective
(5) Internal auditors knowledge of prior-year audits
(6) How internal auditors allocate their resources
(7) Scope of internal audit activities

283
Q

In Determining the Planned Effect of the Internal Auditors Work on the Nature, Timing, and Extent of the Audit, External Auditor Shall Consider:

A

(1) Nature and scope of specific work performed
(2) Assessed risks of material misstatement at the assertion level for particular classes of transactions, account balances, and disclosures
(3) Degree of subjectivity involved in the evaluation of audit evidence

284
Q

SOX Section 203

A

Audit Partner Rotation

Lead audit partner must rotate every 5 years

285
Q

Elements of Standard Report on Examination of Prospective Financial Statements

A

(1) Title including the word “independent”
(2) Identification of prospective financial statements
(3) Identifications of responsible party and statement of responsibility
(4) Practitioners responsibility is to give opinion
(5) Examination conducted in accordance with attestation standards established by AICPA
(6) Practitioner believes examination provides reasonable basis for opinion
(7) Opinion that statements are presented in conformity with AICPA presentation guidelines and that underlying assumptions provide reasonable basis for forecast or projection
(8) Caveat that prospective results may not be achieved
(9) Practitioner assumes no responsibility to update the report for events and circumstances occurring after the date of the report
(10) Signature of firm
(11) Date of examination report

286
Q

Test Data

A

Data specifically designed and developed to test the accuracy and completeness of a computer program

287
Q

Test Data Approach

A

(Test Deck Approach)

Test data is introduced to the clients computer program using the same program to operate the application being tested. Output is then compared to auditors predetermined results.

288
Q

Integrated Test Facility

A

Introduces a fictitious entity with real entries in the master files of the clients computer system then auditor compares the processing with what should be there in order to test that data processing is reliable

289
Q

When Testing Entity’s Fair Vale Measurement and Disclosures, Auditor Evaluates Whether:

A

(1) Management’s assumptions are reasonable and reflect market information
(2) Fair value measurement was determined using an appropriate model, if applicable
(3) Management used relevant information that was reasonably available at the time

290
Q

Single Combined Report Covering Both Subject Matter than Requires Restriction and Subject Matter that Does Not Require Such Restriction, Combined Report is Appropriate for What Kind of Use?

A

Restricted Only

291
Q

When Should Negative Confirmations Be Used?

A

(1) Combined assessed level of inherent and control risk are low
(2) A large number of small balances are involved
(3) Auditors has no reason the believe that recipients of requests are unlikely to give them considerations
(4) Low exception rate is expected

292
Q

Procedures That May Bring Noncompliance of Laws and Regulations to Auditor’s Attention

A

(1) Inquiring of management and those charged with governance
(2) Inspecting correspondence with relevant licensing or regulatory authorities

293
Q

If Noncompliance or Suspected Noncompliance With Laws and Regulations Becomes Apparent, the Auditor Should Obtain:

A

(1) An understanding of the nature of the act and the circumstances in which it has occurred
(2) Further information to evaluate the possible effect on financial statements

294
Q

How Long Must Auditors of Issuers Retain Audit Documentation?

A

Minimum of 7 years

PCAOB AS 1215 Paragraph 14

295
Q

SOX Section 208 Title II

A

It is unlawful for any unregistered public accounting firm to prepare or issue an audit report with respect to any issuer if the firm or associated person engages in any activity with respect to any issuer that is prohibited by section 10A of the SEC Act 1934 or any rule or regulation of the SEC or PCAOB

296
Q

Prior to PCAOB Rules Becoming Effective They Must be Approved By:

A

The SEC

297
Q

Objectives of the Auditor

A

(1) Obtain sufficient appropriate audit evidence regarding material amounts and disclosures
(2) Perform specified audit procedures that may identify instances of noncompliance
(3) Respond appropriately to noncompliance or suspected noncompliance

298
Q

Vertical Analysis of Cost of Goods Sold

A

Cost of Goods Sold/ Net Sales

299
Q

Relationship of Net Income to Cash Flows from Operations May Appear Unusual Because

A

Management recorded fictitious revenues but was unable to manipulate cash

300
Q

Disclaimer of Opinion is Expressed When

A

Auditors is unable to obtain sufficient appropriate audit evidence and concludes the possible effects of undetected misstatements may be both universal and material

301
Q

When Disclaiming an Opinion Due to Scope Limitation, the Auditor ___________ Identify the Procedures that Were Performed

A

Should Not

302
Q

Requirements for Firm to Designate Itself as “Members of the AICPA”

A

All CPA owners must be members

303
Q

When an Auditor is Asked to Report on the Fair Presentation of Financial Statements Prepared in Conformity with a Regulatory Basis of Accounting, Requirements Include

A

(1) Issue a standard report modified for the departures from GAAP
(2) Additional paragraph is added to this report which expresses the auditors opinion on whether the financial statements present in conformity with prescribed basis of accounting

304
Q

In Regards to Misstatements, Auditor Should Document:

A

(1) Levels of materiality and tolerable misstatement, including any changes, used in the audit and the basis on which levels were determined
(2) Summary of uncorrected misstatements, other than those that are trivial, related to known and likely misstatements
(3) Auditor’s conclusion as to whether uncorrected misstatements, individually or in the aggregate, do or do not cause the financial statements to be materially misstated, and the basis of the conclusion
(4) All known and likely misstatements identified by the auditor during the audit, other than those that are trivial, that have been corrected by management

305
Q

Why does Auditor Perform a Walkthrough of Transactions from Inception to Presentation

A

(1) Determine if necessary control is missing or ineffective

(2) Determine different types of significant transactions handled by process

306
Q

When Reporting on an Entity’s Internal Control over Financial Reporting the Auditor May Issue which of the Following?

(1) A combined report on the financial statements and internal control
(2) Separate reports on the financial statements and internal controls

A

Either

307
Q

If the Auditor Chooses to Issue a Separate Report on Internal Control they Should Include

A

A paragraph in the auditors report on the financial statements saying:

“We have also audited, in accordance with the standards of the PCAOB, [entity]’s internal control over financial reporting as of [ date of statement ] based on [ identify criteria ] and our report dated [ date of report, should be the same date as financial statement report ] expressed [ include nature of opinion ]”

308
Q

Managements Refusal to Provide a Written Representation as Part of an Examination Engagement Should Cause the Auditor to:

A

Withdraw from engagement or disclaim an opinion

309
Q

Limitations Inherent to Internal Control

A

(1) Human judgement in decision making can be faulty
(2) Breakdown in internal control can occur because of human failures such as simple errors or mistakes
(3) Errors may occur in the use of information produced by IT, individuals may not understand the purpose of automated controls or the use of information produced by IT

310
Q

PCAOB Rule 3522 Regarding Tax Transactions

A

Prevents registered public accounting firms from marketing, planning, or opining in favor of tax treatment of a transaction

Should public firms violate this rule, they will no longer be considered independent

311
Q

Can auditor downgrade from audit of non-issuer to review or compilation if client has prohibited correspondence with entity’s legal counsel?

A

No

312
Q

Can auditor downgrade from audit of non-issuer to review or compilation if client refuses to provide signed management representation letter?

A

No

313
Q

When Assessing Control Risk Below the Maximum Level, Auditor is Required to Document Understanding of the Entity’s:

A

(1) Control activities that help ensure management’s directives are carried out
(2) Control environment factors that help auditor plan the audit

314
Q

Auditors Report on Financial statements Prepared in Accordance with Comprehensive Basis of Accounting other than GAAP must include:

A

AU-C 800.22

(1) A statement as to conformity
(2) Reference to a note in financial statements
(3) Statement that presentation is a comprehensive basis of accounting other than GAAP

315
Q

Internal Control Definition

A

A process effected by those charged with governance, management, and other personnel - designed to provide reasonable assurance about the achievement of entity’s objectives with regard to reliability of financial reporting, effectiveness and efficiency of operations, and compliance with applicable laws and regulations

316
Q

The Auditor Should Prepare Audit Documentation that is Sufficient to Enable an Experienced Auditor, Having no Previous Connection with the Audit, to Understand:

A

(1) The nature, timing, and extent of the audit procedures performed to comply with GAAS and applicable legal and regulatory requirements
(2) Results of the audit procedures performed and the audit evidence obtained
(3) Significant findings or issues arising during the audit, the conclusions reached thereon, and significant professional judgements made in reaching those conclusions

317
Q

Primary Goal of the Engagement Team Discussion with Audit Team

A

Give guidance to the staff regarding the susceptibility of the entity’s financial statements to material misstatement

318
Q

Elements to be Included in Final Paragraph of Restricted Use Report

A

(1) Statement indicating that the report is intended solely for the information and use of specified parties
(2) Identification of the specified parties for whom the report is restricted
(3) Statement that the report is not intended to be and should not be used by anyone other than the specified parties

319
Q

Bond Indenture

A

Formal written statement specifying the conditions under which a bond is issued, including any restrictions or covenants

320
Q

Integrated Test Facility

A

Fictitious entries are integrated with real entities in the master file. Test Data is integrated with real (line) data and is concurrently processed with real data during the normal processing cycle

*Most effective to test adequacy of program controls and monitor the performance of the system.

321
Q

Transactions that may Indicate Noncompliance with Laws and Regulations

A

(1) Unexplained payments to government officials or employees
(2) Investigation by a government agency
(3) Enforcement proceeding
(4) Payment of unusual fines and penalties
(5) Violations of law or regulations cited in reports of examinations by regulatory agencies made available to auditors
(6) Large payments for unspecified services to consultants, affiliates, or employees
(7) Sales commissions or agents fees that seem excessive
(8) Unusual payments in cash or transfers to bank accounts
(9) Failure to file tax returns or pay government duties or similar fees that are common to the entity’s industry

322
Q

Who Initiates Communication Between Predecessor and Successor Auditor

A

Successor Auditor

323
Q

GAO Threats to Independence

A

(1) Self-Interest
(2) Self-Review
(3) Bias
(4) Familiarity
(5) Undue Influence
(6) Management Participation
(7) Structural Threats

324
Q

Procedures to Determine of Slow-Moving, Excess, Defective, and Obsolete Items Included in Inventories are Properly Identified

A

(1) Examine and analyze inventory turnover
(2) Review industry experience and trends
(3) Analytically review the relationship of inventory to anticipated sales volume
(4) Tour the plant
(5) Inquire of production and sales personnel concerning possible excess or obsolete inventory items

325
Q

Communication Component of Internal Control Involves Communication With

A

(1) Personnel regarding their roles and responsibilities
(2) Personnel about how their activities in the financial reporting system relate to others
(3) Personnel about how and to whom to report financial reporting exceptions
(4) Between management and those charged with governance and third parties such as regulatory authorities

326
Q

Procedures Required Related to Subsequent Events

A

(1) Read and review interim financial statements
(2) Make inquiries of officers
(3) Read minutes of stockholders, directors, and officers meetings
(4) Inquire of legal counsel
(5) Observe events in subsequent periods
(6) Scan records for unusual transactions
(7) Obtain letter of representation on subsequent events

327
Q

Inquiries to be Made of Officers Regarding Subsequent Events

A

(1) Any substantial contingent liabilities or commitments existing at date of balance sheet or inquiry
(2) Any significant change in the capital stock, long term debt, or working capital
(3) Current status of items that were accounted for on the basis of tentative, preliminary, or inclusive data
(4) Any unusual adjustments made during the period from the balance sheet date to date of inquiry

328
Q

Inquiries to be Made of in House Legal Counsel

A

Matters pertaining to:

(1) Litigation
(2) Compliance with laws and regulation
(3) Knowledge of fraud or suspected fraud
(4) Warranties
(5) Post-sales obligations
(6) Arrangements with business partners
(7) Meaning of contract terms

329
Q

Auditors Standard Report Doesn’t Include an Expression Related to the Consistent Application of an Applicable Financial Reporting Framework if:

A

(1) No change in accounting principle has occurred

OR

(2) There has been a change in accounting principles or the method of their application but the effect of the change is not material

330
Q

Minimum Required Compilation Documentation

A

(1) Engagement letter
(2) Copy of financial statements
(3) Copy of accountants report

331
Q

Additional Required Documentation for Compilations of Pro Forma Financial Information

A

Copy of pro forma information

332
Q

Payroll Control Objectives

A

(1) Proper authorization of new employees
(2) No fictitious employees included in the payroll
(3) All terminated employees removed from payroll
(4) Employees paid authorized amounts
(5) All transactions recorded correctly
(6) Detailed records maintained
(7) Government regulations complied with

333
Q

Audit Plan Should Include Description of

A

(1) Nature, extent, and timing of planned assessment procedures sufficient to assess the risks of material misstatement
(2) Nature, extent, and timing of planned further audit procedures at the relevant assertion level for each material class of transactions, account balance, and disclosure
(3) Other audit procedures to be carried out for the engagement to comply with GAAS

334
Q

Training and Proficiency GAAS Standard

A

The audit must be performed by a person or persons having adequate technical training and proficiency as an auditor.

335
Q

Independence GAAS Standard

A

In all matters relating to the assignment an independence in mental attitude must be maintained by the auditor(s)

336
Q

Due Professional Care GAAS Standard

A

Due professional care must be exercised in the performance of the audit and the preparation of the report.

337
Q

Planning and Supervision GAAS Standard

A

The auditor must adequately plan the work and must properly supervise any assistants.

338
Q

Internal Control GAAS Standard

A

The auditor must obtain a sufficient understanding of the entity and the environment including it’s internal control, to assess the risk of material misstatement of the financial statements, whether due to error or fraud, and to design the nature, timing, and extent of further audit procedures.

339
Q

Corroborative Audit Evidence GAAS Standard

A

The auditor must obtain sufficient appropriate audit evidence by performing audit procedures to afford a reasonable basis for an opinion regarding the financial statements under audit.

340
Q

Consistency GAAS Standard

A

The report must identify those circumstances in which principles have not been consistently observed in the current period in relation to the preceding period.

341
Q

Accounting Principles in Conformity With US GAAP GAAS Standard

A

The report must state whether the financial statements are presented in conformity with US Generally Accepted Accounting Principles

342
Q

Omitted Informative Disclosures - None GAAS Standard

A

Informative disclosures in the financial statements are to be regarded as reasonably adequate unless otherwise stated in the report.

343
Q

Expression of an Opinion GAAS Standard

A

The report must contain either an expression of opinion regarding the financial statements taken as a whole, or an assertion to the effect that an opinion cannot be expressed. When an overall opinion cannot be expressed, the reasons therefore should be stated. In all cases where an auditor’s name is associated with the financial statements the report should contain a clear-cut indication of the character of the auditors work, if any, and the degree of responsibility the auditor is taking.

344
Q

Implicit GAAS Reporting Standards

A

(1) Consistency

(2) Omitted informative disclosures

345
Q

Explicit GAAS Reporting Standards

A

(1) Accounting principles in conformity with US GAAP

(2) Expression of an opinion

346
Q

Why Are Beginning Balances Significant?

A

(1) Beginning balance sheet amounts affect items reported on current period’s income statement, statement of cash flows, and statement of changes in stockholders equity.
(2) Must determine that the methods applied in the previous period are the same as those being applied in the current period or that changes have been appropriately accounted for and disclosed.
(3) Opening balances for certain items (ie: contingencies) may have ongoing implications that affect the current period’s disclosure

347
Q

Factors that Influence Nature, Extent, and Timing of Planning

A

(1) Size and complexity of the entity
(2) Auditors experience with the entity
(3) Knowledge of the entity’s business and industry
(4) Knowledge of the entity and it’s environment, including internal control

348
Q

Planning Activities Applied in Developing Overall Audit Strategy

A

(1) Identifying characteristics of the engagement that will affect the scope of the audit
(2) Determining reporting objectives to plan nature and timing of communications
(3) Consider other factors that the auditor deems significant to the direction of the audit
(4) Consider the preliminary activities and relevant knowledge gained from other engagements
(5) Ascertain nature, timing, and extent of resources needed to perform the engagement

349
Q

Factors that Influence Selection of Appropriate Materiality Benchmark

A

(1) Make up of elements of the financial statements
(2) Items on the financial statements that are expected to be of particular interest to the users
(3) Nature of the entity
(4) Entity’s ownership and organizational structure
(5) How entity is financed
(6) Volatility of benchmark

350
Q

Benchmarks and Materiality Relationship

A

Materiality often measured by applying percentage to a benchmark

351
Q

Required Materiality Documentation

A

(1) Materiality for financial statements taken as a whole
(2) Materiality for specific classes of transactions, account balances, or disclosures if appropriate
(3) Performance materiality
(4) Revisions to any materiality measurements

352
Q

Performance Materiality

A

AKA Tolerable Misstatement

(1) Takes into account that a misstatement that is not material when compared to financial statements as a whole may reach that level when combined with other misstatements
(2) Estimated at an amount that it is probable that the aggregate of uncorrected and undetected misstatements won’t reach a level that causes financial statements to be materially misstated as a whole
(3) Lower than materiality at financial statement level

353
Q

Inherent Limitations of Internal Control

A

COCO

(1) Collusion
(2) Override by management
(3) Competence / Human Error
(4) Obsolescence

354
Q

4 Procedures for Testing Controls

A

RIIO

(1) Reperformance
(2) Inspection
(3) Inquiry
(4) Observation

355
Q

How Often Should Auditor Test Operating Effectiveness of Controls that Haven’t Changed

A

Once every 3 years

356
Q

Dual Purpose Testing

A

Tests that are designed to test the effectiveness of controls while providing evidence as to the fairness or correctness of an element of the financial statements

357
Q

Sarbanes Oxley Section 406

A

Code of ethics for senior financial officers

358
Q

Sarbanes Oxley Code of Ethics for Senior Financial Officers

A

(1) Promotes honest and ethical conduct
(2) Full, fair, accurate, timely and understandable disclosures
(3) Compliance with applicable governmental laws and regulations

359
Q

Factors to be Considered in Evaluating the Design of the Entity’s Control Environment

A

(1) Communication and enforcement of integrity and values
(2) Commitment to competence
(3) Participation of those charged with governance
(4) Management participation and operating style
(5) Organizational structure
(6) Assignment of authority and responsibility
(7) Human resource policies and practices

360
Q

Final Set of Audit Documentation Should be Completed within ________ Days of the Report Release Date

A

45

361
Q

Negative Confirmation

A

Requests recipient only respond if they disagree with the information stated on the request

362
Q

Vertical Analysis of Costs of Goods Sold

A

Cost of goods sold / net sales

363
Q

When Substantive Procedures Are Performed at an Interim Date the Auditor Should;

A

Perform further substantive procedures or substantive procedures combined with tests of controls to cover the remaining period that provide a reasonable basis for extending the audit conclusions from interim date to period end

364
Q

Factors to Consider in Deciding Whether to Perform Substantive Procedures at an Interim Date

A

(1) The control environment and other relevant controls
(2) The availability of information at a later date that’s necessary for auditor procedures
(3) Objective of substantive procedure
(4) Assessed risk of material misstatement
(5) Nature of class of transactions or account balance and relevant assertions
(6) Ability of auditor to reduce risk that misstatement that exist at period end are not detected by performing appropriate substantive procedures or substantive procedures combined with test of controls to cover remaining period

365
Q

Sarbanes Oxley Section 206 Title II

A

Prevents a registered public accounting firm from performing an audit or issuer financial statements if CEO, controller, CFO, CAO or any equivalent position was employed at the public accounting firm and participated in the audit of the entity during one year period preceding the date of initiation of audit

366
Q

AU-C 315

A

Understanding the entity and it’s environment and assessing the risks of material misstatement

367
Q

AU-C 315 Requirements

A

(1) Auditor must perform risk assessment procedures to assess risk of material misstatement at both financial statement level assertion level
(2) obtaining understanding of internal control relevant to the audit

368
Q

AU-C 315 Objective

A

Auditor to identify and assess risks of material misstatement due to fraud or error at the financial statement and relevant assertion level through understanding the entity and it’s environment, including the entity’s internal control thereby providing a basis for designing and implementing responses to the assessed risks of material misstatement

369
Q

Internal Controls Are Evaluated at Both the ___________ and ________ Level

A

Entity and Assertion

370
Q

Examples of Risk Assessment Procedures

A

(1) Analytical procedures
(2) Inquiries of management and others within the entity including inquiries of internal auditors
(3) Inspection of documents and records
(4) Observation

371
Q

Knowledge Obtained Through Risk Assessment Procedures Used to:

A

(1) Identify types of potential misstatements
(2) Consider factors that affect risk of material misstatement
(3) Design tests of controls and substantive procedures

372
Q

Techniques to Gain Information about Clients Internal Control System

A

(1) Prior audits
(2) Re-performance
(3) Inquiry
(4) Inspection
(5) Observation

373
Q

Conditions to be Met for Practitioner to Perform an Agreed Upon Procedures Engagement

A

(1) Practitioner is independent
(2) Party engaging practitioner is responsible for subject matter or has a reasonable basis for providing a written assertion about the subject matter when the nature of the subject matter is such that a responsible party doesn’t otherwise exist
(3) For engagements on prospective financial information the prospective financial statements include a summary of significant assumptions

374
Q

Compilation of Prospective Financial Statements Involves

A

(1) Assembling to the extent necessary, the prospective financial statements based on responsible party’s assumptions
(2) Performing required compilation procedures
(3) Issuing a compilation report

375
Q

Sarbanes-Oxley Section 208

A

Prevents public accounting firms in violation of SEC of PCAOB rules from preparing or issuing any audit report with respect to that issuer

376
Q

PCAOB Rule 3524

A

Audit committee pre-approval of certain tax services

377
Q

In Connection with Seeking Audit Committee Pre-approval to Perform for an Audit Client any Permissible Tax Services, a Registered Public Accounting Firm Shall

A

(1) Describe details in writing to the audit committee of the issuer
(2) Discuss with the audit committee of the issuer the potential effects of the services on the independence of the firm
(3) Document the substance of it’s discussion with the audit committee of the issuer

378
Q

Items to be Described in Writing to the Audit Committee of an Issuer When Seeking Pre-approval to Perform Permissible Tax Service

A

(1) Scope of service
(2) Fee structure for engagement
(3) Any side letter or other amendment to the engagement letter or any other agreement between firm and audit client relating to the service
(4) Any compensation agreement or other agreement between the firm and any person other than audit client with respect to the promoting, marking, or recommending of a transaction covered by the service

379
Q

Flowchart

A

Visual depiction of the internal control structure that shows a process from beginning to end

380
Q

Details Included in Flowchart

A

(1) Which departments or groups of employees are responsible for each function
(2) What documents are used and how they’re distributed and disposed of
(3) Interaction among departments or groups of employees

381
Q

Flowchart Best Use

A

Helpful in determining if there is adequate segregation of duties and tracing documents through the system

382
Q

Internal Control Questionnaire

A

(1) Series of questions that can be answered with a simple yes or no
(2) Usually designed so that a yes implies control properly in place (strength) and a no answer indicates potential weakness

383
Q

ICQ Best Use

A

Easily identifies potential weakness in internal control

384
Q

ICQ Weakness

A

Difficult to develop a complete and comprehensive questionnaire and it’s difficult to obtain an understanding of the flow of the system using it

385
Q

Narrative or Memorandum

A

(1) In the form of a detailed written description of the internal control structure
(2) Similar to flowchart but with words not symbols
(3) Not frequently used

386
Q

Narrative or Memorandum Strengths

A

Easy for user to understand the flow of the system and interrelationships among departments and employees that are part of it

387
Q

Narrative or Memorandum Weakness

A

(1) Doesn’t clearly indicate whether there’s an adequate segregation of duties
(2) Difficult to visualize the flow of information
(3) Can be cumbersome

388
Q

Decision Table/ Tree

A

Uses yes/no questions and each answer will direct the user to the next relevant question to document employee choices from several actions depending on conditions faced

Limited tool that can’t effectively document entire structure

389
Q

Factors Considered When Evaluating the Entity’s Ability to Prepare Fairly Presented Finacial Statements

A

(1) Auditors perception of the competency of the entity’s accounting personnel
(2) Evaluation of entity’s ability to develop estimates and interpret accounting principles
(3) Whether the auditor considers management aggressive or believes management is under pressure to achieve difficult financial goals
(4) If industry or economy has created particular challenges
(5) If entity is seeking financing or anticipating entering into a substantial transaction