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Gleim > Aviation Weather > Flashcards

Aviation Weather Flashcards

1
Q

Every physical process of weather is accompanied by, or is the result of, a:

a. movement of air.
b. pressure differential.
c. heat exchange.

A

c. heat exchange.

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2
Q

What causes variations in altimeter settings between weather reporting points:

a. unequal heating of the earth’s surface.
b. variation of terrain elevation.
c. coriolis force.

A

a. unequal heating of the earth’s surface.

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3
Q

The wind at 5,000 feet AGL is southwesterly while the surface wind is southerly. The difference in direction is primarily due to:

a. stronger pressure gradient at higher altitudes.
b. friction between the wind and the surface.
c. stronger coriolis force at the surface.

A

b. friction between the wind and the surface.

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4
Q

The development of thermals depends upon:

a. counter clockwise circulation of air.
b. temperature inversions.
c. solar heating.

A

c. solar heating.

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5
Q

Convective circulation patterns associated with sea breezes caused by:

a. warm, dense air moving inland from over the water.
b. water absorbing and radiating heat faster than the land.
c. cool, dense air moving inland from over the water.

A

c. cool, dense air moving inland from over the water.

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6
Q

The boundary between two different airmasses is referred to as a:

a. frontolysis.
b. frontogenesis.
c. front.

A

c. front.

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7
Q

One weather phenomenon which will always occur when flying across a front is a change in the:

a. wind direction.
b. type of precipitation.
c. stability of the air mass.

A

a. wind direction.

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8
Q

One of the most easily recognized discontinuities across a front is:

a. a change in the temperature.
b. an increase in cloud coverage.
c. an increase in relative humidity.

A

a. a change in the temperature.

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9
Q

If there is a thunderstorm activity in the vicinity of an airport at which you plan to land, which hazardous atmospheric phenomenon might be expected on the landing approach:

a. precipitation static.
b. wind-shear turbulence.
c. steady rain.

A

b. wind-shear turbulence.

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10
Q

a non-frontal, narrow band of active thunderstorms that often develop ahead of a cold front is known as a:

a. prefrontal system.
b. squall line.
c. dry line.

A

b. squall line.

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11
Q

What conditions are necessary for the formation of thunderstorms:

a. high humidity, lifting force, and unstable conditions.
b. high humidity, high temperature, and cumulus clouds.
c. lifting force, moist air, and extensive cloud cover.

A

a. high humidity, lifting force, and unstable conditions.

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12
Q

During the life cycle of a thunderstorm, which stage is characterized predominately by downdrafts:

a. Cumulus.
b. Dissipating.
c. Mature.

A

b. Dissipating.

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13
Q

Thunderstorms reach their greatest intensity during the:

a. mature stage.
b. downdraft stage.
c. cumulus stage.

A

a. mature stage

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14
Q

What feature is normally associated with the cumulus stage of a thunderstorm?

a. roll cloud.
b. continuous updraft.
c. frequent lightning.

A

b. continuous updraft.

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15
Q

Which weather phenomenon signals the beginning of the mature stage of a thunderstorm?

a. the appearance of an anvil top.
b. precipitation beginning to fall.
c. maximum growth rate of the clouds.

A

b. precipitation beginning to fall.

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16
Q

Thunderstorms which generally produce the most intense hazard to aircraft are:

a. squall line thunderstorms.
b. steady-state thunderstorms.
c. warm front thunderstorms.

A

a. squall line thunderstorms.

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17
Q

Which weather phenomenon is always associated with a thunderstorm:

a. lightning.
b. heavy rain.
c. hail.

A

a. lightning.

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18
Q

The mature stage of a thunderstorm begins with:

a. formation of the anvil top.
b. the start of the precipitation.
c. continuous downdrafts.

A

b. the start of precipitation.

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19
Q

The destination airport has one runway, 8-26, and the wind is calm. the normal approach in calm wind is a left-hand pattern to runway 8. There is no other traffic at the airport. A thunderstorm about 6 miles west is beginning its mature stage, and rain is starting to reach the ground.

The pilot decides to:

a. depart expecting the thunderstorm to dissipate prior to arrival, then land on runway 8.
b. delay departure until the thunderstorm has dissipated.
c. fly an approach to runway 26 since any unexpected wind due to the storm will be westerly.

A

b. delay departure until the thunderstorm has dissipated.

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20
Q

You are avoiding a thunderstorm that is in your flightpath. You are over 20 miles from the cell; however, you are under the anvil of the cell. Is this a hazard?

a. no, you are at a safe distance from the cell.
b. yes, hail can be discharged from the anvil.
c. yes, this is still in the area of dissipation.

A

b. yes, hail can be discharged from the anvil.

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21
Q

One in-flight condition necessary for structural icing to form is:

a. small temperature/dewpoint spread.
b. stratiform clouds.
c. visible moisture.

A

c. visible moisture.

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22
Q

In which environment is aircraft structural ice most likely to have the highest accumulation rate?

a. cumulus clouds with below freezing temperatures.
b. freezing drizzle.
c. freezing rain.

A

c. freezing rain.

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23
Q

The presence of ice pellets at the surface is evidence that there:

a. are thunderstorms in the area.
b. has been cold frontal passage.
c. is a temperature inversion with freezing rain at a higher altitude.

A

c. is a temperature inversion with freezing rain at a higher altitude.

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24
Q

How will frost on the wings of an airplane affect takeoff performance?

a. frost will disrupt the smooth flow of air over the wing, adversely affecting its lifting capability.
b. frost will change the camber of the wing, increasing its lifting capability.
c. frost will cause the airplane to become airborne with a higher angle of attack, decreasing the stall speed.

A

a. frost will disrupt the smooth flow of air over the wing, adversely affecting its lifting capability.

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25
Q

Why is frost considered hazardous to flight?

a. frost changes the basic aerodynamic shape of the airfoils, thereby increasing lift.
b. frost slows the airflow over the airfoils, thereby increasing control effectiveness.
c. frost spoils the smooth flow of air over the wings, thereby decreasing lifting capability.

A

c. frost spoils the smooth flow of air over the wings, thereby decreasing lifting capability.

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26
Q

How does frost affect the lifting surfaces of an airplane on takeoff?

a. frost may prevent the airplane from becoming airborne at normal takeoff speed.
b. frost will change the camber of the wing, increasing lift during takeoff.
c. frost may cause the airplane to become airborne with a lower angle of attack at a lower indicated airspeed.

A

a. frost may prevent the airplane from becoming airborne at normal takeoff speed.

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27
Q

Which conditions result in the formation of frost?

a. the temperature of the collecting surface is at or below freezing when small droplets of moisture fall on the surface.
b. the temperature of the collecting surface is at or below the dewpoint of the adjacent air and the dewpoint is below freezing.
c. the temperature of the surrounding air is at or below freezing when small drops of moisture fall on the collecting surface.

A

b. the temperature of the collecting surface is at or below the dewpoint of the adjacent air and the dewpoint is below freezing.

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28
Q

An almond or lens-shaped cloud which appears stationary, but which may contain winds of 50 knots or more, is referred to as:

a. an inactive frontal cloud.
b. a funnel cloud.
c. a lenticular cloud.

A

c. a lenticular cloud.

29
Q

Crests of standing mountain waves may be marked by stationary, lens-shaped clouds known as:

a. mamma-tocumulus clouds.
b. standing lenticular clouds.
c. roll clouds.

A

b. standing lenticular clouds.

30
Q

Possible mountain wave turbulence could be anticipated when winds of 40 knots or greater below:

a. across a mountain ridge, and the air is stable.
b. down a mountain valley, and the air is unstable.
c. parallel to a mountain peak, and the air is stable.

A

a. across a mountain ridge, and the air is stable.

31
Q

Where does wind shear occur?

a. only at higher altitudes.
b. only at lower altitudes.
c. at all altitudes, in all directions.

A

c. at all altitudes, in all directions.

32
Q

A pilot can expect a wind-shear zone in a temperature inversion whenever the wind speed at 2,000 to 4,000 feet above the surface is at least:

a. 10 knots.
b. 15 knots.
c. 25 knots.

A

c. 25 knots.

33
Q

When may hazardous wind shear be expected?

a. when stable air crosses a mountain barrier where it tends to flow in layers forming lenticular clouds.
b. in areas of low-level temperature inversion, frontal zones, and clear air turbulence.
c. following frontal passage when stratocumulus clouds form indicating mechanical fixing.

A

b. in areas of low-level temperature inversion, frontal zones, and clear air turbulence.

34
Q

If the temperature/dewpoint spread is small and decreasing, and the temperature is 62 degrees Fahrenheit, what type weather is most likely to develop?

a. freezing precipitation.
b. thunderstorms.
c. fog or low clouds.

A

c. fog or low clouds.

35
Q

What is meant by the term “dewpoint”

a. the temperature at which condensation and evaporation are equal.
b. the temperature at which dew will always form.
c. the temperature to which air must be cooled to become saturated.

A

c. the temperature to which air must be cooled to become saturated.

36
Q

The amount of water vapor which air can hold depends on the:

a. dewpoint.
b. air temperature.
c. stability of the air.

A

b. air temperature.

37
Q

What are the processes by which moisture is added to unsaturated air?

a. evaporation and sublimation.
b. heating and condensation.
c. supersaturation and evaporation.

A

a. evaporation and sublimation

38
Q

Clouds, fog, or dew will always form when:

a. water vapor condenses.
b. water vapor is present.
c. relative humidity reaches 100 percent.

A

a. water vapor condenses.

39
Q

Low-turbulence can occur and icing can become hazardous in which type of fog:

a. rain-induced fog.
b. upslope flog.
c. steam fog.

A

c. steam fog

40
Q

In which situation is advection fog most likely to form:

a. a warm, moist air mass on the windward side of mountains.
b. an air mass moving inland from the coast in winter.
c. a light breeze blowing colder air out to sea.

A

b. an air mass moving inland from the coast in winter.

41
Q

What situation is most conductive to the formation of radiation fog?

a. warm, moist air over low, flatland areas on clear, calm nights.
b. moist tropical air moving over cold, offshore water.
c. the movement of cold air over much warmer water.

A

a. warm, moist air over low, flatland areas on clear, calm nights.

42
Q

What types of fog depend upon wind in order to exist?

a. radiation fog and ice fog.
b. steam fog and ground fog.
c. advection fog and upslope fog.

A

c. advection fog and upslope fog.

43
Q

Clouds are divided into four families according to their:

a. outward shape.
b. height range.
c. composition.

A

b. height range.

44
Q

The suffix “nimbus” used in naming clouds, mean:

a. a cloud with extensive vertical development.
b. a rain cloud.
c. a middle cloud containing ice pellets.

A

b. a rain cloud.

45
Q

The conditions necessary for the formation of cumulonimbus clouds are a lifting action and:

a. unstable air contacting an excess of condensation nuclei.
b. unstable, moist air.
c. either stable or unstable air.

A

b. unstable, moist air.

46
Q

What clouds have the greatest turbulence?

a. towering cumulus.
b. cumulonimbus.
c. nimbostratus.

A

b. cumulonimbus.

47
Q

What cloud types would indicate convective turbulence?

a. cirrus clouds.
b. nimbostratus clouds.
c. towering cumulus clouds.

A

c. towering cumulus clouds.

48
Q

At approximately what altitude above the surface would the pilot expect the base of a cumuliform clouds if the surface air temperature is 82 degrees Fahrenheit and the dewpoint is 38 degrees Fahrenheit?

a. 9,000 feet AGL.
b. 10,000 feet AGL.
c. 11,000 feet AGL.

A

b. 10,000 feet AGL.

49
Q

What is the approximate base of the cumulus clouds if the surface air temperature at 1,000 feet MSL is 70 degrees Fahrenheit and the dewpoint is 48 degrees Fahrenheit?

a. 4,000 feet MSL.
b. 5,000 feet MSL.
c. 6,000 feet MSL.

A

c. 6,000 feet MSL.

50
Q

Cumulus clouds often indicate:

a. possible turbulence.
b. a temperature inversion.
c. a dry adiabatic lapse rate.

A

a. possible turbulence.

51
Q

What is a characteristic of stable air?

a. stratiform clouds.
b. unlimited visibility.
c. cumulus clouds.

A

a. stratiform clouds.

52
Q

When warm, moist, stable air flows upslope, it:

a. produces stratus type clouds.
b. causes showers and thunderstorms.
c. develops convective turbulence.

A

a. produces stratus type clouds.

53
Q

If an unstable air mass if forced upward, what type clouds can be expected?

a. stratus clouds with little vertical development.
b. stratus clouds with considerable associated turbulence.
c. clouds with considerable vertical development and associated turbulence.

A

c. clouds with considerable vertical development and associated turbulence.

54
Q

What are the characteristics of unstable air?

a. turbulence and good surface visibility.
b. turbulence and poor surface visibility.
c. nimbostratus clouds and good surface visibility.

A

a. turbulence and good surface visibility.

55
Q

A stable air mass is most likely to have which characteristic?

a. showery precipitation.
b. turbulent air.
c. poor surface visibility.

A

c. poor surface visibility.

56
Q

Steady precipitation preceding a front is an indication of:

a. stratiform clouds with moderate turbulence.
b. cumuliform clouds with little or no turbulence.
c. stratiform clouds with little or no turbulence.

A

c. stratiform clouds with little or no turbulence.

57
Q

What are characteristics of a moist, unstable air mass?

a. cumuliform clouds and showery precipitation.
b. poor visibility and smooth air.
c. stratiform clouds and shower precipitation.

A

a. cumuliform clouds and showery precipitation.

58
Q

What measurement can be used to determine the stability of the atmosphere?

a. atmospheric pressure.
b. actual lapse rate.
c. surface temperature.

A

b. actual lapse rate.

59
Q

What would decrease the stability of an air mass?

a. warming from below.
b. cooling from below.
c. decrease in water vapor.

A

a. warming from below.

60
Q

What are the characteristics of an unstable atmosphere:

a. a cool, dry air mass.
b. a warm, humid air mass.
c. descending air in the northern hemisphere.

A

b. a warm, humid air mass.

61
Q

Clouds with extensive vertical development over mountainous terrain are a sign of:

a. a dry adiabatic lapse rate.
b. a stable air mass.
c. an unstable air mass.

A

c. an unstable air mass.

62
Q

The stability of an air mass can usually be determined by:

a. the height of the tropopause.
b. measuring the dry adiabatic lapse rate.
c. cloud types and the type of precipitation.

A

c. cloud types and the type of precipitation.

63
Q

What feature is associated with a temperature inversion?

a. a stable layer of air.
b. an unstable layer of air.
c. chinook winds on mountain slopes.

A

a. a stable layer of air.

64
Q

the most frequent type of ground or surface-based temperature inversion is that which is produced by:

a. terrestrial radiation on a clear, relatively still night.
b. warm air being lifted rapidly loft in the vicinity of mountainous terrain.
c. the movement of colder air under warm air, or the movement of warm air over cold air.

A

a. terrestrial radiation on a clear, relatively still night.

65
Q

When there is a temperature inversion, you would expect to experience:

a. clouds with extensive vertical development above an inversion aloft.
b. good visibility in the lower levels of the atmosphere and poor visibility above an inversion aloft.
c. an increase in temperature as altitude increases.

A

c. an increase in temperature as altitude increases.

66
Q

Which weather conditions should be expected beneath a low-level temperature inversion layer when the relative humidity is high?

a. smooth air, poor visibility, fog, haze, or low clouds.
b. light wind shear, poor visibility, haze, and light rain.
c. turbulent air, poor visibility, fog, low stratus type clouds, and showery precipitation.

A

a. smooth air, poor visibility, fog, haze, or low clouds.

67
Q

An increase in temperature with an altitude increase:

a. is indication of an inversion.
b. denotes the beginning of the stratosphere.
c. means a cold front passage.

A

a. is indication of an inversion.

68
Q

Temperature and radiation variations over land with a clear sky typically lead to:

a. minimum temperature occurring after sunrise.
b. outgoing terrestrial radiation peaking at noon.
c. temperature reaching a maximum closer to noon than to sunset.

A

a. minimum temperature occurring after sunrise.

Gleim (8 decks)

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