BA Content Flashcards

1
Q

Agency (RST Definition)

A

Fiduciary relationship that arises where
- One person (the Principal) manifests assent that another person (the Agent) shall act on P’s behalf and
- Subject to P’s control, and
- A consents to act in this way

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2
Q

6 types of agents & their definitions

A

Universal Agent: authorized to perform all acts that can be lawfully delegated to a representative.

General Agent: authorized by the principal to transact all business affairs of the principal at a certain place.

Special agent: authorized by the principal to handle a specific business transaction.

Agency coupled with an interest: Agent has paid for the right to have authority for a business

Gratuitous agent: No payment is made to the agent, i.e. a favor or a volunteer

Subagents: Agent appoints other agents

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3
Q

Types of agent authority (just the names)

A

Actual Express
Actual Implied
Apparent
Inherent
Ratification
Estoppel

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4
Q

Actual Express Authority

A
  1. P tells A to do something & A does it
  2. P is bound
  3. Look at P’s explicit instructions
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5
Q

Actual Implied Authority

A

Necessary to complete job

A does something necessary to complete P’s actual instruction, but P didn’t tell A to do this necessary thing (but it’s within the scope of A’s duties)

Look at:
P’s explicit instructions
What else might be reasonably included in those instructions to accomplish the job
Past permission regarding similar acts
The relationship between P & A

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6
Q

Apparent Authority

A

About what what a 3rd party reasonably believes P has authorized A to do

Test: (1) P must act in a way that it seems that A has authority & (2) the 3rd party must reasonably think A has authority.

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7
Q

Inherent Authority

A

Undisclosed P is liable for the acts of an agent who proceeds within the scope of authority typically given to A with similar duties, regardless of limitations the principal imposes on that agent.

only applies to apparent authority

The law will sometimes hold an undisclosed principal liable for certain unauthorized transactions of his agent when
- A 3rd party has made a detrimental change in position
- P had notice of the agent’s conduct
- The conduct might induce third parties to change their positions; AND
- P did not take reasonable steps to notify the third parties of the facts.

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8
Q

Elements of agency authority of estoppel

A

P creates (on purpose or accidentally) an appearance of authority in A

3rd party reasonably relies on the fake authority

3rd party changes their position in reliance upon the fake authority

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9
Q

What’s the difference between apparent authority & estoppel?

A

Estoppel requires a change in position by 3rd party (apparent authority doesn’t)

Apparent authority requires a manifestation by P to the 3rd party (estoppel doesn’t)

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10
Q

When is P directly liable to 3rd parties for A’s torts?

A

A has actual authority and commits a tort

A didn’t know act was a tort and P authorized it

P negligently supervised or controlled A

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11
Q

Test to determine if the act within the scope of employment

A

Was the conduct the same general nature as A’s duties?

Was the conduct substantially removed from the authorized time & space limits of the employment?

Was the conduct at least partially motived by a purpose to serve the employer?

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12
Q

Factors to consider to determine if it’s employee or independent contractor

A

a. Extent of control
b. Is the kind of job typically done under supervision of employer or not?
c. Skill required for this particular job
d. Does the employer supply the tools and place of work?
e. Length of time the person is employed
f. Method of payment (by time, by job, salary)
g. Is the work part of the regular business of the employer?

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13
Q

When is P liable for torts of independent contractors?

A

Principal retains control over the aspect of the work in which the tort occurs

Inherently dangerous activities

Negligent hiring by principal

Nondelegable duty

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14
Q

Factors to consider to determine if the franchisor can be vicariously liable for torts committed by franchisees

A

Extent of the franchisor’s involvement in the francisee’s day-to-day operations

Franchisors’ right to control the franchisee’s operations

Franchisor’s right to terminate the relationship

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15
Q

Duty of Care in agency

A

A has a duty to P to act with the care, competence, and diligence normally exercised by agents in similar circumstances

A’s special skills or knowledge are considered (If A claims to possess special skills or knowledge, A has a duty to the principal to act with the care, competence, and diligence normally exercised by agents with such skills or knowledge)

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16
Q

Duty of Obedience in Agency

A

A has duty to act only within scope of A’s actual authority, complying with P’s instructions

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17
Q

Duty of Accounting in Agency

A

A has duty to P to:
1. Not treat P’s property as A’s
2. Not to mingle P’s property with anyone else’s
3. Manage accounts properly

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18
Q

Duty of Loyalty in Agency

A

Take no advantage from acts relating to the interest of the principal without the principal’s knowledge and consent

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19
Q

RST definition of partnership

A

A partnership is an association of 2+ people to carry on as co-owners a business for profit

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20
Q

Rebuttable presumption that people who share the profits of a business are a partner in the business, unless the profits were received:

A
  1. Debt service
  2. Wages
  3. Rent
  4. Annity
  5. Loans
  6. Sale of business or other property
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21
Q

Partnership by estoppel elements

A
  1. Plaintiff must establish a representation, either express or implied, that one person is the partner of another
  2. The making of the representation by the person sought to be charged as a partner or with his consent
  3. A reasonable reliance in good faith by the third party upon the representation
  4. A change of position, with consequent injury, by the third person in reliance on the representation
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22
Q

Partner’s duty of care

A

Limited to in gross negligence or reckless conduct, intentional misconduct, or a knowing violation of law.

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23
Q

Capital Contributions

A

Amount of money or assets given to a business or partnership by one of the owners or partners.

The capital contribution increases the owner or partner’s equity interest in the entity

Capital contribution is maintained in a “capital account” that is not income to partner

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24
Q

UPA - The liabilities of the partnership shall rank in order of payment, as follows

A

Debts to creditors of the partnership other than partners;

Debts to partners for contributions other than for capital and profits (an actual loan);

Debts to partners for capital contributions;

Debts to partners for profits (meaning, any residual value

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25
Q

Modifying partnership rights 3 part test

A

Extent of an individual’s ability to control & operate the business

Extent to which an individual’s compensation is based on business profits

Extent of employment security the individual has

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26
Q

3 phases of dissolution of the partnership

A

dissolution
winding up
final termination

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27
Q

Non-Judicial Grounds for dissolution without breaking the agreement

A

When a specific time/task ends

When any partner wants to & there’s no “definite term or specified particular undertaking”

When all partners agree

When any partner gets expelled

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28
Q

Non-Judicial Grounds for dissolution by breaking the agreement

A

Where carrying on business is illegal

Death of any partner

Bankruptcy of any partner or the partnership (In re Fulton)

Decree of court

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29
Q

Judicial Grounds for dissolution

A

Partner has been declared of an unsound mind

Partner is incapable of performing his part

Partner is guilty of conduct that affect prejudicially the carrying on of the business

Partner “willfully or persistently” breaches the partnership agreement

Business can only be carried on at a loss

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30
Q

A partner’s dissociation is wrongful if (UPA):

A

It’s in breach of an express provision of the partnership agreement or

It’s before the expiration of a term partnership and:
a. Partner withdraws by express will (unless it’s within 90 days of another partner’s dissociation by death or wrongful dissociation)
b. Partner is expelled by judicial determination
c. Partner is dissociated by bankruptcy or
d. in the case of a partner who is not an individual, trust other than a business trust, or estate, the partner is expelled or otherwise dissociated because it willfully dissolved or terminated.

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31
Q

Rights of shareholders in corporations

A

Vote on a limited range of issues

Receive payment of dividends when and as declared by board

Inspect corporate books and records

Receive distribution upon termination

Purchase proportionate share of a new issuance or corporate stock to maintain current ownership percentage (Preemptive Right)

File derivative suits to redress wrong suffered by the corporation (damages recovered belong to corporation)

Free transferability of ownerships

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32
Q

Required provisions of Articles of Incorporation filed with state

A

(1) corporate name (Must have a magic word - inc. corp. lmtd. Company)

(2) # of authorized shares

(3) street address of the corporation’s initial registered office and the name of its initial registered agency at that office (Must be in state of incorporation)

(4) name & address of each incorporator

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33
Q

optional provisions of Articles of Incorporation filed with state

A

Business purposes
Initial directors
Forum for internal corporate claims
class & series of shares

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34
Q

Amending the articles of incorporation – 3 step process

A

(1) Board of directors recommends the amendment to the shareholders
(2) shareholders approve the amendment
(3) amendment is filed with the secretary of state

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35
Q

Sea Land Test

A

(1) Unity of ownership and interest (whether the corporation and individual are really separate), and
- fraud, undercapitalization, commingling of funds, disregard of corporate formalities

and (2) Whether justice demands piercing the veil (fraud or injustice)

36
Q

What is reverse veil piercing

A

The corporation is held liable for the shareholder’s debt

Think “this person is abusing the corporate form by hiding money and assets in the corporation”

37
Q

What is enterprise liability? + Analysis

A

A creditor claims there are several related corporations that are really part of the same corporation

  1. Are two+ separate sister corporations really operating as a single enterprise?
  2. Do they have separate accounts, books, and records?
  3. Are their assets intermingled for use toward a common business purpose
38
Q

What can the court do if the corporation wasn’t properly formed?

A

Treat it as a de jure corporation or corporation by estoppel

39
Q

When can a corporation’s articles not limit fiduciary duty liability?

A

(1) the amount of a financial benefit received by the director to which she is not entitled,
(2) an intentionally inflicted harm on the corporation or its shareholders,
(3) unlawful corporate distributions, or
(4) an intentional violation of criminal law

40
Q

2 ways duty of care by corporations can be breached & what is the defense

A

nonfeasance
misfeasance

corporation can claim BJR

41
Q

What takes away the shield of BJR?

A

Fraud

Illegal Conduct

Conflict of Interest (duty of loyalty analysis applies instead of duty of care)

Bad Faith
Egregious/Irrational Decisions (with no business justification)

Waste (decision with 0 business rationale)

Uninformed Decision

42
Q

Affirmative Defenses to Duty of Care Violations

A

Board shows:
- the transaction was beneficial to the corporation
- the transaction was fair to the corporation
- there were no damages to the corporation

43
Q

Corporation duty of loyalty analysis:

A

Is there a conflict of interest? [if no, stop]

Has the transaction been cleansed?

[if no, there’s a breach of the duty of loyalty & transaction is voidable]

[if yes, the transaction doesn’t violate the duty of loyalty & is valid]

44
Q

when is a transaction cleansed?

A

It’s approved by a vote of a majority of the fully informed, disinterested directors.

It’s ratified by the informed shareholders or

It’s shown to be “intrinsically fair” to the corporation (fairness to price & terms)

45
Q

Corporate Opportunity Doctrine def + test

A

The directors’ fiduciary duties prohibit them from diverting a business opportunity from their corporation to themselves without first giving their corporation an opportunity to act.

Corporation must have interest, expectancy, or necessity and
Must be within the line of business

46
Q

What is intrinsic fairness?

A

The default

Involves the substance of the transaction

Where the price & terms of the transaction fair to the corporation & not unfair to the minority shareholders

47
Q

What is entire fairness?

A

Whether the price, terms, process, & procedure fair to the corporation

48
Q

Exculpation Statutes & fiduciary duties of corporations

A

You can exculpate liability for duty of care
But not for duty of loyalty or good faith

49
Q

What can shareholders vote on?

A

major transactions
electing board members
shareholder resolutions

50
Q

Proxy Card Requirements

A

Auditor’s Report
Management discussion
Financial statement
Financial data

51
Q

What is a shareholder proposal?

A

Rule 14a-8 allows qualifying shareholders to submit certain proposals to their fellow shareholders for a vote by having these proposals placed on a company’s proxy statement to the shareholder and having the company bear the expenses

52
Q

when must a shareholders proposal be submitted?

A

Must be submitted to the corporation at least 120 days before the date on which the proxy materials were mailed for the previous year’s annual shareholder’s meeting

53
Q

Rule 14a-8(i)(8) now permits exclusion of proposals related to the election of directors or procedures if it:

A
  1. Would disqualify a nominee who is standing for election
  2. Would remove a director from office before his or her term expired
  3. Questions the competence, business judgment, or character of one or more nominees or directors; or
  4. Requires companies to include specific shareholder nominees or directors in proxy materials
54
Q

Types of violations for proxy litigation?

A

Fraud

Soliciting without providing proxy statement

Failing to file proxy materials with SEC

Company soliciting proxies without first providing annual report

55
Q

What is a voting trust?

A

Where 2+ holders place their shares in a “Trust”

Has a trustee who is responsible for voting the shares

Governed by a trust agreement

56
Q

How do you make a proxy irrevocable?

A

the proxy must be defined as irrevocable and coupled with an interest

57
Q

What are the typical features of a freeze out

A

Corporation doesn’t pay dividends (or pay minimal ones) so that 0 (or barely) any of the profits are paid in dividends

The only (or vast majority) of corporate funds that are paid out are paid in the form of a salary to the shareholders who are also employees

The frozen-out holder is prevented from holding a payed position

As a result, this frozen out holder don’t get any corporate funds and can’t profit in any way from their investment

58
Q

2 grounds for involuntary dissolution

A

director deadlock and
shareholder buyout

59
Q

What are the differences between direct & derivative suits

A

Only shareholders can bring derivative suits (not creditors)

Because a derivative lawsuit arises out of a “wrong” done to the corporation, any remedy or recovery goes to the corporation—not to the shareholder bringing the lawsuit.

Because a direct lawsuit arises out of a “wrong” done to the shareholder, the shareholder bringing the direct lawsuit may collect damages.

In a derivative lawsuit, the corporation is required to pay for the shareholder’s attorney fees, PROVIDED that the shareholder is successful in the suit

There are many more procedural “hurdles” to meet in a derivative suit than there are in a direct suit.

60
Q

List of established securities

A
  1. Stock
  2. Notes
  3. Bonds
  4. Debenture
  5. Options
  6. Voting Trust Certificates
61
Q

What is the Howey test

A

A contract, transaction, or scheme through which a person invests money;

In a common enterprise

With the expectation of profits (or some other financial benefits);

With the profits to come “solely” from the efforts of others.

62
Q

Are any of these securities:
GP
LP
digital assets

A

Investments that aren’t securities
Circuit split over this
But generally, they’re not

Generally, not a security because there are limited control rights

It’s not clear, could either way

63
Q

Initial Public Offering

A

First sale of a corporation’s common share to public investors

Purpose: to raise capital for the corporation

They have heavy reporting requirements

64
Q

Over the Counter Market

A

A security that’s not traded on an exchange, usually due to an inability to meet listing requirements.

For such securities, broker/dealers negotiate directly with one another over computer networks and by phone, and their activities are monitored by the NASD.

65
Q

Pink Sheets

A

Electronic system that displays bids & asks quotation prices of securities

Mainly used by stock brokers trading OTC securities

66
Q

Registration Statements have 2 parts:

A

Expert portion
Non-Expert portion

67
Q

Private Placement Test

A

Size of the offering

Number of units offered

Manner of the offering

of offerees & relationship to issuer

68
Q

Rule 10b-5

A

May be used by the SEC and private individuals in pursuing fraud claims

Creates liability for anyone who makes a misleading representation that’s connected to the purpose or sale of a security

69
Q

elements for a 10b-5 claim

A

CRUMI
Untrue statement of omission
Intent (Scienter)
Materiality
Reliance
Causation

70
Q

what is the fraud on the market theory for 10b-5

A

For affirmative misrepresentations

Rebuttable presumption that even if P didn’t hear the misstatement, P still relied on it

Presumption that P relied on the integrity of the market

71
Q

How do you measure materiality for 10b-5

A

The Basic Test:

Look at the probability that an event will happen

And the importance of the event

72
Q

damage options for 10b-5

A
  1. Out of pocked damages
  2. Restitution
  3. Recession
  4. Benefit of the bargain
  5. Punitive damages
73
Q

Sarbanes-Oxley Act

A

Effort to increase disclosure by publicly traded companies

President/CEO and CFO must sign its corporation’s financial statements, verifying that they are true

Public companies must make a code of ethics

Public companies can’t make personal loans to their officers or directors

74
Q

Insider Trading general definition

A

The prohibition of insider trading of securities involves the concept that those with access to nonpublic information shouldn’t have an advantage over those from whom they buy from or sell to

75
Q

3 main standards for state law regulating insider trading

A

Majority Rule
- Except when fraud is involved, officers & directors can trade in their corporation’s stock without disclosing material information

Special Circumstances Rule
- Officers & directors have a duty to disclose information before they trade with shareholders when there are so special circumstances

Minority (“Kansas”) Rule
- Officers & directors have a duty to disclose material information when buying from a shareholder (At least in face-to-face transactions)
-This probably only applies to an insider’s purchase from an existing shareholder

76
Q

When is a tipper liable?

A

Tips someone (discloses material, nonpublic information)

The disclosure breaches a duty of loyalty by receiving a personal benefit from tipping and

Someone trades on that information

77
Q

When is a tippee liable?

A

Receives material, nonpublic information disclosed by breach of duty by an insider at the company whose stock is being traded and

The tippee knew or should have known that the tipper was breaching a duty and

The tippee trades on that information or

They give the information to someone else (so they become a tipper)

78
Q

Misappropriation Theory

A

Prior to O’Hagan, you had to show that D breached a duty to the company whose stock D had traded

But now, under the misappropriation theory, liability includes the people who breach a duty to the source of the information

79
Q

Misappropriation Theory Analysis

A

Did the defendant have possession of nonpublic information?

If no - there is no 10b–5 insider trading claim under the misappropriation doctrine (or any other theory).

If yes - did defendant did have possession of nonpublic information, was that information “material”?

If yes - how the defendant acquired that information?

Fiduciary relationship? Or
A relationship of trust and confidence?

80
Q

What is a short-swing profit?

A

Applies to any insider (who has more than 10% of the equity securities at the time of purchase and the time of sale) at a registered company who buys or sells equity securities in that company within a 6 month period

iii. Any profit that the insider makes must be paid to the company

81
Q

2 general principles for issuing stock

A

must be for a proper form of consideration

must be for a proper amount of consideration

82
Q

de facto merger doctrine & when do you do it

A

Even though you structured your transaction as a triangular merger or assert sale, we are going to treat it as a regular 2 party merger

When a transaction “so fundamentally changes” the nature of the business as in effect to cause the shareholder to give up his shares in one company and against his will accept shares in a different business

83
Q

Freeze out merger

A

Where a majority shareholder forces the minority shareholders to sell their stocks in a merge with an entity owned by the majority shareholders

It enables the majority shareholders to acquire 100% control of the company

Often used following a tender offer to eliminate shareholders who didn’t tender their shares

84
Q

Short Form Merger

A

b. Where a majority shareholder can perform a cash out merger without shareholder approval
c. Owning 90% of the stock is standard

85
Q

Takeover

A

When an acquirer tries to acquire sufficient shares to control the Board through a tender offer

Then you replace the Board with people of the Acquirer’s choosing

86
Q

Cheffe Primary Purpose Test

A
  1. Reasonable danger to corporate policy & effectiveness
  2. Directors not acting in self interest
  3. If satisfied, BJR protects
87
Q
A