Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

BIOL 459 > Basic Concepts in Epidemiology > Flashcards

Basic Concepts in Epidemiology Flashcards

1
Q

define epidemiology

A

the study of occurrence, distribution, and determinants of health and disease in populations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what are the three types of epidemiology?

A
  • descriptive
  • analytical
  • experimental
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

describe descriptive epidemiology

A

collecting data and describing the occurrence of human disease. The number of cases implies methods to detect the disease accurately in individuals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

describe analytical epidemiology

A

analyzing a particular disease using case control method or cohort methide
- human groups with and without diseases are matched and possible relationship with causes are evaluated using statistical inferences

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

describe experimental epidemiology

A

conducting experiments to better understand diseases in human population

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

give an example of experimental epidemiology

A

test effectiveness of a new vaccine against AIDS. two groups with one receiving a placebo and the other vaccine and determining the level of infection in each group

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what are the causes of death as reported by WHO in 2004?

A
  • communicable disease 32%
  • non-communicable diseases 58%
  • injuries 9%
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what is an agent?

A

something that has the ability to affect human health

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

give examples of agents

A
  • bacteria (gonorrhea, strep throat)
  • protozoa (malaria)
  • virus
  • prions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

how can we detect agents?

A
  • PCR
  • microarray
  • Elisa
  • epi-florescence microscopy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what examples of vectors?

A

ticks, mosquitoe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is a fomite

A

when an inanimate object transmits infectious diseases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

examples of fomites

A

needles, surgical devices

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what are the two main ways to control and prevent diseases?

A
  1. host level
  2. environment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what does host level prevention include?

A
  • vaccines and toxoids to prevent
  • antibiotics and antivirals to treat/cure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what does the environment level pertain to?

A
  • control of vector
  • hygienic procedures
  • social distancing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what is molecular epidemiology?

A

use of molecular, cellular and other biological markers in the study, prevention, and control of health risks faced by human populations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

two main approaches to molecular epidemiology

A
  • detect a gene (NAAT, microarray, dot blots, southern blot, sequencing)
  • detect a protein (ELISA followed by western blot, immunoblot) on agent or host
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what plays important role in identification of TB?

A

IS6110 but not in pathology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what does molecular epidemiology provide?

A
  • more accurate comparisons among groups (agent, host, or vector)
  • further clarification of mechanisms
  • more specialized assessment of individual risks
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what is steps in traditional epidemiology?

A

exposure -> disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

steps in molecular epidemiology

A

exposure -> internal dose -> effective dose -> altered structure/function -> clinical disease -> prognostic/significance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what are biomarkers

A

a measurable substance in an organism whose presence in indicative of some phenomenon such as disease, infection, or environmental exposure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what do valid biomarkers provide?

A
  1. precise continuum of events
  2. identification of exposure to lower dose
  3. early identification of events in clinical disease
  4. reduction of misclassification of dependent and independent variables
  5. indication of mechanism relating exposure to disease
  6. better account for variability (agent and host)
  7. enhance individual and group assessment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what are dependent variables?

A

something you cannot control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

example of dependent variable

A

tree growth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what is an independent variable

A

something you can control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

example of independent variable

A

exposure of moisture for trees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what do molecular tools allow?2

A

early identification to resolve population issues -> prevention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what are 2 levels of molecular epi for population?

A
  1. behaviour
  2. environment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what are 2 levels of molecular epi for organisms?

A
  1. specific exposure
  2. systemic communication
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what are 3 levels of molecular epi for cells?

A
  1. cell to cell communication
  2. substrate molecules
  3. genetic instructions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what is the influenze virus

A

an acute and infectious disease of the respiratory system caused by a virus and characterized by fever, muscle pain, headache, and inflammation of the mucous membranes in the respiratory tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

when was the last influenza outburst?

A

1968

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what is incidence?

A

describes the rate of development of a disease in a group over a period of time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what is prevalence?

A

the number of people who have the disease at a certain point in time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what is an example which uses incidence in relation to disease?

A

the incidence of chickenpox in first grade children was 10% a day at the height of the epidemic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what is an example which used prevalence in relation to disease

A

the prevalence of electrocardiographic abnormalities at our screening examination was 5%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what scale is used when talking about prevalence and incidence rates?

A

prevalence: per 10,000
incidence: per 100,000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what is the formula for incidence?

A

(# of persons development of a disease) x (unit time)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

what is the formula for prevalence?

A

(# of people with the disease) / (total number of people in the group)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

define morbidity

A

the incidence of illness in a population. includes both fatal and nonfatal at a point in time. can refer to either prevalence or incidence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

what is an example which uses morbidity in relation to disease?

A

morbidity rate of giardiasis in canada in 2000 as 3.4%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

define mortality

A

the incidence of death in a population

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

what is the formula for mortality rate?

A

(# of people dead/total # in the group) x unit of time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

give an example which uses mortality in relation to disease

A

the mortality rate varied from 25% to 33% of europes population during plague epidemics in the middle ages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

what is meant by ‘case fatality rate’

A

the number of confirmed cases that died of a particular disease for a given period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

what is meant by a sporadic disease?

A

a disease that only occurs occasionally - only in some individuals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

what is meant by an endemic disease?

A

a disease which is constantly present in a population

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

what is meant by an epidemic disease

A

a disease which is acquired by many people in a given area in a short time
-> cannot be controlled -> starts outbreak

51
Q

what is meant by a pandemic disease

A

a worldwide epidemic

52
Q

case definition

A

A set of standard criteria for deciding whether a person has a particular disease or health-related condition, by specifying clinical criteria and limitations on time, place, and person.

53
Q

define acute disease

A

a disease in which symptoms develop rapidly but the disease lasts only a short time

54
Q

what is meant by chronic disease

A

a disease in which symptoms develop slowly

55
Q

what is meant be a subacute disease

A

a disease in which the severity is intermediate between acute and chronic

56
Q

what is meant by a latent disease

A

a disease in which the causative agent is inactive for a time but then activates and produces symptoms

57
Q

what is meany by herd immunity

A

immunity in most of the population can prevent those without immunity by limiting transmission of a disease

58
Q

what is meant by a local infection

A

an infection in which the pathogen is limited to a small area of the body

59
Q

what is meant by a systemic or generalized infeciton

A

an infection in which the pathogen has spread to the entire body

60
Q

what is meant by a focal infection

A

a systemic infection which began as a local infection

61
Q

define sepsis

A

a toxic inflammatory condition arising from the spread of microbes, especially bacteria or their toxins, from a focus of infection

62
Q

define bacteremia

A

bacteria in the blood

63
Q

define septicemia

A

aka blood poisoning, the growth of bacteria in the blood

64
Q

define toxemia

A

toxins in the blood

65
Q

define viremia

A

viruses in the blood

66
Q

define primary infection

A

an acute infection which causes the initial illness

67
Q

define a secondary infection

A

an opportunistic infection which follows a primary infection

68
Q

define a subclinical disease

A

an infection which produces no noticeable signs or symptoms

69
Q

list some predisposing factors which can make the body more susceptible to disease

A
  • gender
  • inherited traits
  • climate and weather
    -fatigue
    -age
    -lifestyle
    -nutrition
  • chemotherapy
70
Q

describe incubation period of a disease

A

the interval between the initial infection and the first signs and symptoms

71
Q

describe the prodromal period of a disease

A

the short period after incubation in which the patient presents with early mild symptoms

72
Q

describe the period of illness of a disease

A

the period during a disease progression in which the symptoms are most severe

73
Q

describe the period of decline of a disease

A

the period after max severity in which signs and symptoms subside

74
Q

describe period of convalescence of a disease

A

the period at the very end of disease progression in which the body returns to its prediseased state

75
Q

what are the 3 main continual sources of infectoin

A
  1. human reservoirs (carriers)
  2. animal reservoirs (zoonoses -> diseases transmitted from animals to humans)
  3. nonliving reservoirs (soil and water, food)
76
Q

direct contact transmission

A

requires close association between the infected and a susceptible host

77
Q

indirect contact transmission

A

spreads to a host by a nonliving object called a fomite

78
Q

droplet transmission

A

transmission via airborne droplets less than 1 meter (sneezing, coughing)

79
Q

in what 3 ways can disease be transmitted via an inanimate reservoir?

A
  1. waterborne
  2. foodborne
  3. airborne
80
Q

what are the two transmission types?

A
  1. mechanical transmission
  2. biological transmission
81
Q

what are common vectors of disease?

A

arthropods such as fleas, ticks, and mosquitos

82
Q

what differentiates mechanical transmission from biological transmission?

A

Mechanical: vector carries pathogen on its feet
Biological: pathogen reproduces in the vector and is transmitted via bites or feces

83
Q

epidemics can be classified as…

A
  • a common source epidemic
  • host to host epidemic
84
Q

what is a common source of epidemic

A

usually arises from contamination of water or food
- ie cholera

85
Q

what is host to host epidemics

A

the disease shows a slow progressive rise and a gradual decline
- ie influenza

86
Q

what is direct host-to-host transmission

A

infected individual transmits a disease directly to a susceptible host without the assistance of an intermediary

87
Q

what is an example of a direct host-to-host transmissted illness

A

flu, common cold, STD

88
Q

what is indirect host to host transmission

A

occurs when transmission is facilitated by a living or nonliving agent
- living agents = vectors
- nonliving = fomites

89
Q

what do controls directed against the reservoir refer to?

A
  • if reservoir is animal, it can be immunized or destroyed
  • when humans are the reservoir, eradication can be difficult
90
Q

what do controls directed against transmission of the pathogen refer to?

A
  • immunization
  • quaratine
  • surveillance
  • pathogen eradication
91
Q

what is an emerging infectious disease

A

a disease which is new and either increasing in incidence or showing the potential to increase in incidence soon

92
Q

what is a reemerging disease

A

those that have become prevalent after having been under control

93
Q

What 8 main factors contribute to the emergence of new infectious diseases.

A
  • Genetic recombination
  • Evolution of new strains
  • Antibiotic/pesticide use
  • Changing weather patterns
  • Modern transportation
  • Ecological disaster/war/human expansion
  • Animal control measures
  • Public health failure
94
Q

what are the common characteristics of emerging infectious diseases?

A

most are:
- zoonotic
- viral in origin
- vector borne

95
Q

What is an example of a virus whose spread is affected by changing weather patterns? How?

A

Hantavirus is spread by deer mice, which are expanding their range because of climate change.

96
Q

What was epidemiologist John Snow known for doing in 1848-1849?

A

He mapped the occurrence of cholera in London.

97
Q

What was epidemiologist Ignaz Semmelweis known for doing in 1846-1848?

A

Showed that handwashing decreased the incidence of pleural sepsis.

98
Q

What was epidemiologist Florence Nightingale known for doing in 1858?

A

Showed that improved sanitation decreased the incidence of epidemic typhus.

99
Q

healthcare-associated infections

A

acquired while receiving treatment in a health care facility
- also known as nosocimal infections
- affect 1 in 25 hospital patients, 2 m per year infected, 20,000 deaths

100
Q

what do HAI’s result from?

A
  • Microorganisms in the hospital environment
  • Weakened status of the host
  • Chain of transmission in a hospital (e.g. via contaminated medical instruments)
101
Q

What does Staph aureus most commonly cause in terms of HAI’s?

A

Infected surgical wounds

Accounts for 16% of total HA Infections

is coagulase POSITIVE - interacts w/ fibrinogen (involved in blood clotting).

Concerns w/ MRSA (Abx resistant strains), especially the spread amongst homeless population

Often to do with the community.

102
Q

What are the two means by which to Control Healthcare-Associated Infections?

A

A) Reduce number of pathogens…
- handwashing
- disinfecting tubs used to bathe patients
- cleaning instruments scrupulously (sterilization/autoclaving)
- Using disposable bandages & intubation

B) Infection control committees

103
Q

What type of media selects for Coagulase-positive, Gram-positive cocci? And what is this microbe?

A

Mannitol-salt agar

Selects for Methicillin-resistant Staph aureus

104
Q

Flow Chart of methods used for isolation & ID of infectious pathogens

A

Outlines clinical and diagnostic methods

Epidemiology always starts with a clinical diagnostic

105
Q

What 4 basic strain-typing techniques are used in molecular biology?

A

PCR
Hybridization
Cloning
Sequencing

106
Q

what is PCR

A
  • polymerase chain reaction

A technique for amplifying DNA in vitro by incubating with special primers, DNA polymerase molecules, and nucleotides.

107
Q

what main components required for PCR?

A
  1. primers
  2. target DNA
  3. taq polymerase
  4. dNTP
  5. pH buffer and thermocycler
  6. MgCl
108
Q

what are primers

A

short segments of DNA (~20 nt oligonucleotides) that target a specific sequence in the DNA and guide DNA polymerase to copy.

Usually single-stranded

Need both forward (5’ to 3’) and reverse (3’ to 5’)

But: There can be some mismatches –> affect the stability of the primer w/ the target DNA

109
Q

What is the challenge w/ the Target DNA involved in PCR?

A

Contamination by molecular material from other organisms/compounds present, etc.

Therefore, requires a sophisticated extraction method.

110
Q

taq polymerase

A

A heat-stable form of DNA polymerase extracted from bacteria that live in hot environments, such as hot springs, that is used during PCR technique

Use pfu Polymerase is used for high-fidelity sequencing

111
Q

steps of PCR

A
  1. Denaturation - >90 degrees C
  2. Annealing - 49-65 C (depends on optimal temp. e.g. G-C’s more stable than A-T’s)
  3. Extension/Elongation ~72 C
112
Q

What can PCR target?

A

A coding region (gene) or a non-coding region (repetitive element).

113
Q

what is the process in hybridization?

A

a) Cells from specimen are affixed to filter

b) Lyse & denature (NaOH) & generate single-stranded target DNA

c) Add reporter-labelled probe; allow for reannealing to target

d) Measure hybridization directly if reporter is radioactive or fluorescent. Add enzyme substrate if reporter is an enzyme (i.e. detection via radioactive detector, fluorimeter, colorimeter/visual inspection)

114
Q

what is hybridization

A

Is a technique that measures the degree of genetic similarity between pools of DNA sequences
- is typically used to determine the genetic differences between 2 organisms

115
Q

what are the 5 phases of hybriziation

A
  1. Cells from the specimen affixed to filter
  2. Lyse cells and generate single stranded target DNA
  3. Add reporter labeled probe; allowing for re-annealing to target
  4. Measure hybridization directly if reporter is radioactive or fluorescent
    - add enzyme to substrate if reporter is an enzyme
    - whatever is bound to the membrane is what will be read
  5. Detection
    - radioactivity detector
    - fluorimeter
    - colorimeter/ visual inspection
116
Q

what is cloning

A

Is a technique that the lab processes used to produce offspring that are genetically identical to the donor parent
- uses a vector insertion

117
Q

what are the 3 different types of cloning

A
  1. gene cloning
  2. reproductive cloning
  3. therapeutic cloning
118
Q

why do we clone?

A

to be able to understand more about the function of particular genes

119
Q

what does cloning require

A

a vector

120
Q

what is DNA sequencing

A

Is a process of determining the precise order of nucleotides within a DNA molecule
- you have multiple sequences to allow for less error

121
Q

what do you need in DNA sequencing

A
  • a radioactive primer
  • typically uses radioactive P32
122
Q

What happens to the reaction products in DNA sequencing?

A

They are separated by electrophoresis on polyacrylamide gel and identified by autoradiography
- it generates fragments of different size

123
Q

What are 6 Epidemiological problems addressed by molecular strain-typing?

A
  • Dynamics of disease transmission

-Risk determination in sporadic occurrence of dz

  • Stratifying data & refining study designs
  • Distinguishing pathovars and nonpathovars
  • Addressing nosocomial infections
  • Identifying genetic determinants of disease transmission
124
Q
A

BIOL 459 (9 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions