Basic Instrument DQs Flashcards

1
Q

Rotary Wing Instrument Flight Maneuvers: An aircraft is flown in instrument flight by controlling ___ and ___, as necessary to produce desired performance.

A

Attitude and Power

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2
Q

“Primary and Supporting Methods” and “Aircraft Control”: What are the four elements of control?

A

Bank, Pitch, Power, Trim

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3
Q

Which instrument should always be used if available because it instantly portrays the actual bank and pitch of the aircraft and is the central focus of a good cross-check?

A

Attitude Indicator

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4
Q

Cross-check: In general, the most important instruments to watch during any particular maneuver associated with Tasks 1166.01 through 1166.06 are those ___.

A

That are to be held constant

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5
Q

Concerning straight and level:In calm air, the aircraft will ___ heading and altitude with ___ input from pilot, if the attitude and power are set properly.Deviations in altitude (< ___ ft) should be corrected by adjusting pitch attitude with the cyclic beep trim switch if airspeed can be maintained within +/- ___ KIAS. In all other cases, a power change should be made.

A

maintain, no100 ft, 5 KIAS

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6
Q

Concerning climbs and descents:A change of approx. 1 FLI will result in a ___ FPM climb or descent. This equates to a ___ % change in TQ from cruise flight.Level off should be accomplished by adjusting power to cruise TQ beginning ___ ft (___% of the rate of climb or descent) prior to the desired altitude.

A

500 FPM, 10%50 ft, 10%

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7
Q

Concerning a standard rate turn:
– The turn is initiated with reference to what instrument?
– The desired angle of bank is how many degrees and why?
– In a standard rate turn, how many degrees does the aircraft heading change per second / 10 seconds / in one minute?

A

– Airspeed Indicator
– 15% of TAS. It achieves a standard rate turn of 3 deg/sec
– 3 deg/sec, 30 deg/10 sec, 180 deg/min

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8
Q

– What is the maximum bank angle recommended under instrument conditions?
– When making turns to a predetermined heading, “the bank angle should never exceed,” what?

A

– 30 degrees
– The number of degrees to be turned

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9
Q

Roll beep trim banks the aircraft at about ___ deg/sec. The trim switch must be held for a little over ___ seconds to establish a standard rate turn at 90 kts. the aircraft continues to roll for several degrees after the switch is released so desired roll attitudes must be led by releasing the switch several degrees ___. Begin rolling out of a turn by any amount equal to ___ the angle of bank (approximately ___ degrees for a standard rate turn at 90 kts).

A

– 4 deg/sec
– 3 sec.
– early
– half (1/2)
– 7 deg.

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10
Q

What is the treatment for spatial disorientation?

A

Reference instruments with a good cross check and attempt to ignore conflicting sensory inputs. In a two-pilot aircraft, announce SD and transfer the controls

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11
Q

To recover from an unusual attitude, the proper sequence of flight control adjustments is?

A

Correct the pitch and roll attitude, adjust power, and trim the aircraft as desired for return to level flight.
– Attitude
– Heading
– Torque
– Trim
– Airspeed
– Altitude

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12
Q

Concerning climbing and descending turns:
The maneuver will be conducted as a 60 second exercise during which the altitude is changed ___ ft and the heading is changed ___ degrees while maintaining the airspeed at ___ KIAS. When performed correctly, there will be a ___ degree heading change and a ___ ft altitude change every 15 seconds. So, halfway through the maneuver, there should be a ___ degree heading change and a ___ ft altitude change.

A

– 500 ft
– 180 deg
– 90 KIAS
– 45 deg
– 125 ft
– 90 deg
– 250 ft

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13
Q

Concerning acceleration/deceleration:
This maneuver will consist of an acceleration to a stabilized ___ kts, followed by a deceleration to a stabilized ___ kts, and conclude with a re-acceleration to the starting airspeed of ___ kts.

A

–100 kts
– 65 kts
– 90 kts

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14
Q

Define the following and explain its relevance to you as an Army Aviator:
– Indicated altitude - ___
– Pressure altitude - ___
– Density altitude - ___

A

– Indicated - altitude read on the dial with current altimeter setting set in the Kollsman window (our current MSL)
– Pressure - Height measure above the standard datum plane (29.92 in/HG) (used in performance planning
– Density - Altitude for which a given air density exists in the standard atmosphere (used in performance planning/how the aircraft will be performing)

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15
Q

Define and explain MIA.

A

Minimum IFR Altitude - minimum altitude for IFR operations as prescribed in Code of Federal Regulations part 91.

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16
Q

Define and explain MEA.

A

Minimum Enroute IFR Altitude - lowest published altitude between radio fixes which assures acceptable navigational signal coverage and meets obstacle clearance requirements between those fixes.

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17
Q

Define and explain MOCA.

A

Minimum Obstruction Clearance Altitude - lowest published altitude in effect between radio fixes on VOR airways, off-airway routes, or route segments which meets obstacle clearance requirements for the entire route segment and which assures acceptable navigational signal coverage only within 22 NM of a VOR.

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18
Q

Define and explain OROCA.

A

Off-Route Obstruction Clearance Altitude - An off-route which provides obstruction clearance within each bounded lat./long. quadrant as shown on FAA IFR charts (1000 feet in non-mountainous areas and 2000 ft in mountainous areas)

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19
Q

Define and explain MRA.

A

Minimum Reception Altitude - The lowest altitude at which an intersection can be determined.

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20
Q

Define and explain MCA.

A

Minimum Crossing Altitude - The lowest altitude at certain fixes at which an aircraft must cross when proceeding in the direction of a higher MEA.

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21
Q

Define and explain MVA.

A

Minimum Vectoring Altitude - The lowest MSL altitude at which an IFR aircraft will be vectored by a radar controller, except as otherwise authorized for radar approaches, departures, and missed approaches.

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22
Q

Is an aircraft navigating by IFR-approved GPS considered to be a performance-based navigation (PBN) aircraft?

A

Yes, pg. 1-1-23, para (5), in the AIM

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23
Q

What is the Primary Route Width (NM) for the following GPS modes:
– En Route - ___
– Terminal - ___
– Approach - ___

A

– 2.0 NM
– 1.0 NM
– 0.3 - 1.0 NM

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24
Q

– What is a “Fly-by waypoint”?
– What is a “Fly-over waypoint”?

A

– A Fly-by waypoint requires the use of turn anticipation to avoid overshoot of the next flight segment
– A Fly-over waypoint is overflown and is followed by an intercept maneuver of the next flight segment

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25
Q

Are slight differences between GPS and the charted magnetic course data considered acceptable? Why?

A

Yes, they result from the RNAV algorithm. Actual Ground Track will be comparable to the charts

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26
Q

Explain the difference between “homing” and “tracking” inbound to a station. Which procedure should be used on IFR flights when cleared “direct.”

A

“Homing” does not incorporate wind-drift correction and can be used when you don’t have to maintain a course (curved course). “Tracking” maintains a constant magnetic bearing (used when cleared “direct”)

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27
Q

What are the general dimensions of a victor airway depicted on an IFR en-route low altitude chart (ELA)?

A

Includes airspace extending from 1200 feet AGL to, but not including, 18000 feet MSL and 4 NM to each side of the centerline.

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28
Q

If a course change is required at an intersection, when should that change be started?

A

The FAA expects pilots to lead turns and take other actions they consider necessary during course changes to adhere as closely as possible to the airway or route being flown (staying center to center).

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29
Q

When navigating between two ground based navigation facilities, when should the pilot change over from one NAVAID to the next?

A

– A VOR changeover point
– Midway between facilities
– Milage breakdown(dogleg?)

30
Q

Concerning the IFR Crew Mission Brief:
Describe the “Two Challenge Rule” and give a specific example of how it could be used during an IFR flight.

A

Allows one crewmember to automatically assume the duties of another crewmember who fails to respond to 2 consecutive challenges.
– If P* experiences unrecognized SD.

31
Q

Define the term “MDA”.

A

Lowest altitude (expressed in MSL) to which descent is authorized on final approach or during circle to land maneuver in execution of a standard instrument approach procedure where no electronic glide slope is provided.

32
Q

What are instrument Departure Procedures (DPs) and why are they necessary?

A

They are pre-planned IFR procedures which provide obstruction clearance from the terminal area to the appropriate en route structure. Necessary because they provide obstacle clearance protection, reduce communications, and reduce departure delays.

33
Q

How does a pilot ensure obstacle clearance is provided when flying a SID?

A

By doing a diverse departure (at least 35 feet above departure end of runway, climbing to 400 ft AGL [above airport elevation] before making any turns, and maintaining a 200 FPNM climb)

34
Q

When would you chose to do a diverse departure and how would you perform it?

A

When there are no IFR Departure Procedures. Fly runway heading until 400 ft AGL before executing any turns, maintain a 200 FPNM climb, and be at least 35 ft above the departure end of the runway

35
Q

Where are non-standard IFR takeoff minimums found? Do they apply to Army helicopter pilots?

A

– Terminal charts, in the section with the “negative” T
– Yes, they do apply, according to AR 95-1

36
Q

What is the absolute lowest weather that would permit an Army aviator with less than 50 hours of actual weather experience as pilot in command to depart an airport?

A

100’ and 1/4 vis

37
Q

When should a pilot descend below the MDA or continue an approach below the DA/DH?

A

– The approach threshold of the RWY, or the approach lights or other markings, are identifiable with the approach end of the runway or landing area, must be visible to the pilot
– The aircraft must be in a position from which a safe approach to the runway or landing area can be made.

38
Q

What is considered “established on course” for:
– Non-Precision Approach Single/Double Bar pointers and ND - ___
– LOC Course - ___

A

– Intercept and maintain published course line within 5 degrees of centerline (first dot on the course deviation scale)
– Intercept and maintain LOC course within 2.5 degrees (full scale deflection on the course deviation scale) of course centerline

39
Q

What should the pilot do to verify the validity of retrieved GPS database information:
– During pre-flight - ___
– Inflight - ___

A

– Verify that date/time use is before expiration
– Verify the database provider has not published a notice limiting the use of a specific waypoint or procedure
– Determine waypoints and transition names coincide with names found on procedure chart
– Determine waypoints are logical in location and correct order (proper orientation)

– If logic or waypoint location indicates potential error, do not use until they indicate full conformity with published data.

40
Q

Concerning Basic T / TAA procedures:
– Does an RNAV IAP with a TAA have an MSA?
– Which fix should be used to determine which area of the TAA the aircraft is entering and why could this be critical?

A

– No, MSAs are not depicted on TAA approach charts (altitudes published within the TAA replace the MSA)
– The IF/IAF, this will allow the pilot to comply with the minimum altitude requirements

41
Q

Explain when to start the outbound timing of a holding pattern at a NAVAID, intersection, and waypoint that requires timing:
– NAVAID / WPT - ___
– Intersection - ___

A

– Outbound timing starts when the TO/FROM indicator reverses (over or abeam the fix)
– Outbound timing starts at completion of outbound turn (because the abeam position cannot be determined)

42
Q

Are holding entry procedures determined from ground track or aircraft heading and what tolerance in degrees is considered to be within good operating limits for determining the appropriate holding entry procedure?

A

Based on Aircraft Heading, tolerance is +/- 5 degrees

43
Q

While in a holding pattern that requires timing, you fly a 60 second outbound leg after which you turn inbound and cross the holding fix at 41 seconds. How long will you fly on your next outbound leg?

A

88 seconds: using E6b, outside scale is the outbound time, inner scale is the inbound time, speed index will indicate next outbound time

44
Q

You are holding at an intersection and determine the inbound drift correction is 8 degrees east. What amount of correction and in what direction will you apply on the outbound leg?

A

24 degrees west

45
Q

Concerning VORs, what is the only positive method of identification and what is the course accuracy?

A

Using the Morse Code Identifier, generally +/-1 degree

46
Q

What is the normal range of a L and H/HA class VORs at 1000ft. AGL?

A

40 NM

47
Q

If you wanted to file a direct flight between two VORs (without using a GPS) where would you find exceptions to distance?

A

IFR supplement

48
Q

Can an IFR GPS approach be flown by manually entering the waypoint information?

A

No, manual entry or update of the navigation database other than storing user defined data is not authorized (except for approved emergency GPS procedures)

49
Q

Define a step-down fix and explain how one is used?

A

– Identified by a NAVAID, NAVAID fix, or waypoint, they authorize a lower MDA after passing an obstruction
– Once you pass a certain intersection, you can descend to your next altitude

50
Q

How long should the aircraft be flown outbound before beginning a standard 45 degree or 80/260 procedure turn?

A

– 1 to 3 minutes
– Saying this, plan the outbound leg to allow enough time to configuration, descent, and to stay within the “remain within distance.”

51
Q

Give at least 5 situations where a procedure turn would not be flown.

A

– RADAR VECTOR to the final approach course is provided
– Conducting a timed approach from a holding fix
– Cleared for a straight-in approach
– Cleared to an IAF/IF via a no PT route
– Absence of a Procedure Turn barb in plan view

52
Q

Explain the term “DA/DH.”

A

The height at which a decision must be made during a precision approach to continue the approach or execute a missed approach

53
Q

Define a Visual Descent Point (VDP) and state if its use is ever a mandatory requirement.

A

– A defined point on the final approach course of a non-precision straight-in approach procedure from which a normal descent from the MDA to the runway touchdown point may be commenced. It is never mandatory
– Mostly pertaining to fixed wing approaches

54
Q

Where is the MAP for:
– ASR approach - ___
– PAR approach - ___

A

– The MAP is where the controller informs the aviator that they are at the MAP
– The controller advises the aviator of the DA/DH. The MAP is whenever the pilot recognizes they have reached the DA/DH or when the controller lets them know; whichever comes first.

55
Q

Can an ASR or PAR approach be affected by rain?

A

Yes, heavy rain (along with the clouds that come with it) can interfere with the radar being able to accurately locate your aircraft

56
Q

What actions should be taken on final during a GCA approach if communications are lost?

A

Try to return back to the runway and intercept runway heading. Then, begin lost commo procedures

57
Q

Define the term MSA (two types).

A

– Minimum Safe Altitude - Altitudes depicted on approach charts which provide at least 1000’ of obstacle clearance for emergency use within a specified distance from the navigational facility upon which a procedure is predicated
– Minimum Sector Altitude
– Emergency Safe Altitude

58
Q

Define HAT.

A

The height of the DA or MDA above the highest runway elevation in the touchdown zone (first 3000 feet of the runway)

59
Q

Define HAA.

A

The height of the MDA above the published airport elevation. This is published in conjunction with circling minimums.

60
Q

Define HAL.

A

The height above a designated helicopter landing area used for helicopter instrument approach procedures.

61
Q

– What is the purpose of an IFR flight plan?
– What is the purpose of a VFR flight plan?

A

– To communicate the pilot’s desires to ATC
– Enables search and rescue agencies to identify an overdue aircraft and know where to look for it.

62
Q

For fuel and arrival time planning, explain how to compute the ETE to an alternate airfield.

A

The ETE to the alternate airfield should include time from the:
– MAP to the missed approach holding point to include 1 circuit in the holding pattern
– Missed approach holding point to the alternate including approach and landing time

63
Q

What is the purpose of Temporary Flight Restrictions (TFRs) and how des a pilot know a TFR is in effect?

A

Protect persons and property in the air or on the surface from an existing or imminent hazard associated with an incident on the surface when the presence or low fling aircraft would magnify, alter, spread, or compound that hazard.
– CHECK NOTAMS

64
Q

Who is responsible and what are the procedures for closing IFR flight plans according to:
– AR 95-1 - ___
– GP - ___
– AIM - ___

A

– When the flight terminates, the PC will ensure the flight plan is closed
– Should be closed by tower, but pilot’s responsibility (call FSS)
– The pilot - contacting either ATC or a FSS

65
Q

Concerning adherence to Air Traffic Clearance, what is the most important and guiding principle to remember?

A

The last ATC clearance has precedence over the previous ATC clearance.

66
Q

Which parts of an Air Traffic Control clearance should pilots of airborne aircraft read back?

A

Those parts of ATC clearances which contain altitude assignments/restrictions or Radar vectors, as a means of mutual verification.

67
Q

When military pilots are cleared for an approach, must they report the newly assigned or designated altitude when they acknowledge an approach clearance, or can they simply state they are leaving their current altitude for the approach?

A

All military pilots will report the newly assigned/designated altitude when they report vacating the previously assigned altitude/Flight level or when they acknowledge an approach clearance.

68
Q

When planning to depart Class-D airspace SVFR, what would go in Item 8 on a DD FORM 1801?

A

“V”, special VFR is still VFR

69
Q

Who would you contact to request a SVFR clearance to depart or enter Class B, C, or D airspace?

A

If there is a tower, request for clearance should be through them

70
Q

On a VFR flight, must communicate with anyone to depart from or land to an airfield bordered by a magenta segmented line when the weather is 1000 and 2 miles?

A

Yes, an ATC clearance must be obtained prior to operation in Class B, C, D, or E surface area when the weather is less than that required for a VFR flight.

71
Q

Explain IFR flight through a Restricted Area and a MOA.

A

– Restricted Area not Active / Released to FAA - ATC facility will allow aircraft to operate in the restricted airspace without issuing specific clearance to do so
– Restricted Area Active / Not Released to FAA - ATC facility will issue a clearance that will ensure that the aircraft avoids the restricted airspace
– MOA - whenever a MOA is being used, nonparticipating IFR traffic may be cleared through if IFR separation can be provided by ATC. Otherwise, ATC will reroute or restrict nonparticipating IFR traffic

72
Q

What are the 5 levels of AFCS?

A

– Level 1 - Unstabilized - All AFCS functions are off
– Level 2 - Back-up SAS - Back-up and Yaw SAS are operating
– Level 3 - Digital SAS - Automatic Trim cyclic and Yaw are off
– Level 4 - Attitude Hold - Autopilot 1 and 2 are on
– Level 5 - Upper Modes - Vertical and horizontal steering provided