Biochemistry Flashcards

1
Q

Campothecin

A

targets Topo I

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

m-AMSA

A

targets Topo II (like Doxorubin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Doxorubin

A

targets Topo II (like m-AMSA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

DNA methylation

A

Adds methyl onto A or C.

Represses transcription.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

histone acetylation

A

Adds acetyl onto Lys residue.
Neutralizes Lys.
Opens DNA for transcription

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

helicase

A

uses ATP to break H bonds of bases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

DNA ligase

A

seals DNA nicks with ATP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Bloom’s Syndrome

A

Deficient DNA helicase.

Causes malignancies.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Werner’s Syndrome

A
Associated with a mutation in the gene that encodes helicase.
Premature ageing (cataracts, balding, dwarfism).
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

DNA Pol a (alpha) primase

A

forms RNA/DNA primer

equivalent to Pol I in prokaryotes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

DNA Pol d (delta)

A

Synthesizes lagging strand of DNA.
High processivity.
Needs PCNA clamp.
Equivalent to Pol III in prokaryotes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

DNA Pol e (epsilon)

A

Synthesizes leading strand of DNA.
High processivity.
Needs PCNA clamp.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

DNA Pol y (gamma)

A

mtDNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

DNA Pol B (beta)

A

repairs DNA synthesis mutations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Zidovudine (AZT)

A

Nucleotide analogue.Inhibits reverse transcriptase in HIV.
Limitations: 1) high toxicity (inhibits Pol Y, mtDNA)
2) mutant forms arise with low affinity for AZT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Acyclovir

A

Nucleotide analogue.

Inhibits Herpes DNA polymerase.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Li-Fraumeni Syndrome

A

Mutated p53.
Tumors at multiple sites.
All cells carry the mutation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

mismatch repair in proks

A

Mut S recognizes mismatch.
Mut H recognizes methylation and makes incision.
Mut L links Mut S and Mut H

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

mismatch repair in euks

A

Human Mut S/L homologues (hMSH, hMLH) have been isolated.
Mut H homologue has not.
Defects associated with HNPCC.
Defects usually due to a Trinucleotide Repeat Expansion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Hereditary Non-Polypsis Colon Cancer (HNPCC)

A

Caused by defects in hMSH and hMLH.

Usually due to Nucleotide Repeat Expansion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

excision repair

A

For bulkier DNA adducts.
uvrABC complex recognizes thymine dimers, then cuts on both sides of damage.
Faulty DNA excises, filled, sealed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Xeroderma Pigmentosum

A

skin cancer associated with faulty excision repair.

specifically, the nuclease is faulty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

uracil removal

A

Uracil-DNA glycosidase recognizes uracil and hydrolyzes the glycosidic bond.
Creates an AP site.
Endonuclease cuts backbone.
Excise, fill, seal.
Cytosine spontaneously deaminates to uracil.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

nitrous oxide (HNO2)

A

Causes deamination.
C to U.
A to Hypoxanthine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

adenylation of guanine

A

N-7 methylation causes alkaline amine.
Breaks glycosidic bond.

carcinogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

intercalators

A

Polycyclic hydrocarbons.
Cause insertions/deletions.
Ethidium bromide, proflavin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

radiation

A

alters DNA structure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

pulsed field gel electrophoresis

A

can separate whole chromosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Southern Blot

A

Detects DNA of interest.

1) cut DNA with restriction endonuclease
2) run on a gel to separate fragments
3) expose to NaOH to make ssDNA
4) transfer to nitrocellulose membrane
5) expose to a labeled probe.

Can detect large deletions/additions and trinucleotide repeat expansions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

DNA fingerprinting

A

Humans have different restriction sites.

Treating with restriction endonuclease results in a barcode-like result that is fairly unique

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism (RFLP)

A

Restriction enzyme sites are highly polymorphic.
Can detect the presence of a mutation if RE sites is altered (compares RE sites from different cells of same individual).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Fluorescence in Situ Hybridization (FISH)

A

Determines presence, absence, or copy of a chromosome.

ex: monosomy, trisomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Northern Blot

A

RNA detection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Western Blot

A

Protein detection.
SDS page eliminates charge differences so it separates by size.
Labeled antibody probe.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

DNA band shift

A

Electrophoretic mobile shift assay.

If there is an interaction between DNA and protein, it will move slower, creating a band shift.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

RT-PCR

A

Used to determine cancer reoccurrence.

Measures expression of cancer genes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Single Strand Conformation Polymorphism (SSCP)

A

PCR products are run/separated on gel.

If mutated, the band pattern will differ from normal PCR product.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

RNA Polymerase I

A
Transcribes rRNA.
RESISTANT to a-amanitin.
Nucleolus.
***FACTOR B and S help it bind to promoter.***
Upstream promoter.18S, 5.8S, 28S rRNA
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

RNA Polymerase II

A

Transcribes mRNA.
SENSITIVE to a-amanitin.
Upstream promoter.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

RNA Polymerase III

A

Transcribes 5S rRNA, tRNA, miRNA (small RNA).
Promoter is WITHIN the gene.

TFIIIA and TFIIIC facilitate binding of TFIIIB, which recruits RNAPIII to initiate transcription.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Transcription initiation

A

TFIID binds to TATA box, recruits TFIIB.
TFIIB recruits other TFs.
TFIIB binds RNAP II and directs it to the promoter.
TFIIF/E/H bind.
TFIIH phosphorylates RNAP II to initiate transcription.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

prokaryotic promoter features

A

Pribnow box.

35 bp TTGACA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

poly-A tail is added ______

A

where the internal signal occurs (not at very end of transcript)

CPSF binds to signal, recruits poly A polymerase (PAP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

splicing mechanism

A

u1 snRNP recognizes 5’ GU of intron.
u2 snRNP recognizes 3’ AG of intron.
u1 and u2 recruit other snRNPs for the spliceosome (u4, u5, u6).
5’ intron/exon junction is cleaved, lariat forms.3’ junction is cleaved, exon ligated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

thalassemias

A

Hereditary abnormalities of hemoglobin production.
Lack of either alpha or beta chains.
Due to faulty splicing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

actinomycin D

A

Binds to DNA and distorts it so it cannot be used as a template.
Inhibits transcription.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

rifampicin

A

blocks initiation of RNA synthesis in bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

in DNA, deoxyribonucleotides are linked via:

A

3’ to 5’ phosphodiester linkages

49
Q

Alu repeat

A
  • SINE
  • 280 bp long
  • occurs every 5,000 bp
50
Q

LI

A
  • LINE

* >500 kb long

51
Q

Simple sequence repeats constitute about __% of the human genome

A

3%

52
Q

microsatellite

A

2-5 bp repeats.
Array size of ~10.
Highly polymorphic.

53
Q

telomeres

A

Example of satellite sequence.
TTAGGG repeats.
Shorten with age.
Cancer cells turn then on.

54
Q

Simian Virus 40

A

Initially used to study human DNA replication.

Only requires 1 viral protein, T-ag (all others are supplied by host cell).

55
Q

T-ag

A

From SV40.
Multifunctional protein.
Binds origin of replication and acts as DNA helicase.

56
Q

restriction endomucleases

A

Cleave at palindromic sites.
Protection against foreign pathogenic bacteriophage.
Bacterial DNA protected by methylation.

57
Q

sickle cell anemia (method of diagnosis)

A

Southern Blot.

Restriction endonuclease site is altered, leading to a longer restriction fragment.

58
Q

large ribosomal subunit is composed of…

A

5 s, 5.8 s, 28 s rRNA (and proteins)

59
Q

small ribosomal subunit is composed of…

A

18 s rRNA (and proteins)

60
Q

B and S factors

A

help with initiation of RNAP I

61
Q

TFIIH

A

Has protein kinase activity.

Phosphorylates RNAP II –> initiates transcription.

62
Q

5’ cap (what is added, what type of linkage)

A

7-methylguanosine.

5’-5’ triphosphate linkage.

63
Q

Examples of alternative splicing

A

Antibodies.

a-tropomyosin.

64
Q

locus control regions

A

regulate chromatin regulation over chromosomal domains (ex: all globin genes)

65
Q

SWI-SNF protein complex

A

Alter chromatin structure

66
Q

CpG methylation

A

associated with repression/X-inactivation

67
Q

CpG dinucleotides are hotspots for mutations because…

A

deamination of 5-methyl cytosine forms thymine

68
Q

CpG islands

A

Long CpG rich regions in promoter regions.
Almost always lack methylation.
Usually near genes that are always turned on.

69
Q

PDX1 protein

A

Regulates the insulin made in the pancreas.

Triggered by glucose.

70
Q

DNA microarrays

A

Determine differences in mRNA population of two cell types.
mRNA is isolated.
Glass slides with ssDNA of interest are prepared.
mRNA is converted to cDNA and labeled with a fluorescent probe.
cDNA is hybridized to DNA on microarrays.
If relatively same amount of mRNA from each cell is present, then it will be a blend of two colors.
If one cell has much more expression of mRNA then it will be a primary color.

71
Q

RNA-seq

A

Alternative to microarrays.
NExt gen sequencing determines composition and quantity of RNA in cell.
The more sequence that appears, the more RNA that is present.

72
Q

siRNA

A

Double stranded.
Forms a ribonucleotide complex (RISC) that binds to target mRNA via complementary base pairing.
Destroys the bound mRNA.
“Knocks down” the expression (not completely gone)

73
Q

CRISPR-Cas

A

Used to “knock out” specific genes.

Cas9 is a programmable nuclease that can be guided to certain sites.

74
Q

tRNA structure

A

Clover leaf.
Anti-codon loop.
CCA terminus (AA binds here).
Modifications/unusual bases.

75
Q

addition of AA onto tRNA

A

Carboxy end of AA to 3’ end of tRNA.
“Activates” the AA by creating a high energy covalent bond.
Different synthetase for each AA.

AA + ATP –> aminoacyl-AMP —binds with tRNA—> aminoacyl tRNA (AMP leaves)

76
Q

initiation of protein synthesis

A
Small subunit, eIF4, and eIF2-GTP-Met-tRNA bind to 5' cap.
eIF4 positions mRNA on small subunit.
Scans for AUG start codon.
eIF2-GDP and other eIFs leave.
Large subunit joins.
77
Q

eEF1

A

Catalyzes the GTP-dependent binding of new aminoacyl-tRNAs in the A site.
Regulates fidelity and rate of polypeptide elongation.

78
Q

peptidyl transferase

A

Part of 28S subunit.

Forms peptide bond.

79
Q

eEF2

A

Needed for translocation.

80
Q

elongation of peptide chain

A

eEF1 catalyzes GTP-dependent binding of tRNA in A site.
Peptidyl transferase forms peptide bond.
eEF2 is required for translocation of tRNA

81
Q

phosphorylation of eIF2

A

Inactivates eIF2.
Represses translation and conserves energy.
Usually in times of stress.

82
Q

polyribosome

A

multiple ribosomes moving along the same mRNA, functioning independently of each other.

83
Q

missense mutation

A

single base substitution leads to a different amino acid

84
Q

nonsense mutation

A

single base substitution leads to a premature stop codon

85
Q

IRES

A

Internal Ribosome Entry Sites.
Specialized sequences used by viruses.
Recruits pre-initiation complex without involving the cap or scanning process.
Allows virus to take over protein synthesis machinery.

86
Q

miRNA

A

Endogenous.
Recruit RISC complex.
If it is completely homologous to the target mRNA, then RISC degrades the mRNA.
If it is not 100% homologous to the target mRNA, then it stalls the machinery, blocking translation (but does not degrade it)

87
Q

glioblastoma

A

Tumor of the brain or spine.
Difficult to surgically remove.
Gene sequencing can be used instead to guide treatment.

88
Q

bisulfite sequencing

A

Used to determine if DNA is methylated (repressed).
Methylation of MGMT is used as a guide for chemotherapy.
Can only use chemo if MGMT is silenced by methylation.

89
Q

proline

A

fits poorly into a-helices

90
Q

amino acids that absorb UV light

A

tyrosine, tryptophan

91
Q

glycine

A

small amino acid that allows close approaches

92
Q

CFTR

A

Transmembrane protein.
Transports CL- out of the cell.
To transport, the R domain must be phosphorylated, and ATP must be bound/hydrolyzed.

93
Q

Elastin

A

Fibrous, unstructured protein.
Desmosine: lysine linkages.
In elastic tissues (lungs).

94
Q

Keratin

A

Fibrous protein with tight a-helices.

In hair, nails, skin.

95
Q

maximum buffering occurs when…

A

[base] = [acid]

at the pKa

96
Q

bicarbonate buffer

A

In the blood.
pKa slightly lower than neutral.
Exhalation increases pH.
CO2 + H20 H2CO3 H+ + HCO3-

97
Q

phosphate buffer

A

Inside cells.

Neutral.

98
Q

protein buffer

A

Side chains help buffer.

In blood/cells.

99
Q

Myoglobin (structure, function, Hill Coeff.)

A

Monomeric, helical protein.
Heme prosthetic group.
Transports oxygen in muscle.
Hill coefficient = 1 (no cooperativity).

100
Q

oxygenated heme // oxidized heme // deoxygenated heme

A

OXYGENATED:
Bright red. (+2)

OXIDIZED:
Brownish. (+3), still bound to O2.

DEOXYGENATED:
Blue/purple. No O2.

101
Q

functions of histidines in myoglobin and hemoglobin.\

A

1) form a ligand with the iron that moves upon oxygenation.

2) provide a steric hindrance to reduce CO binding

102
Q

hemoglobin structure, Hill coeff.

A

2 alpha subunits.
2 beta subunits.
1 heme per subunit (4 total).

Hill coefficient > 1 (cooperative binding)

103
Q

conformations of hemoglobin

A

T form - TAUT
Binds oxygen poorly.

R form - RELAXED
Binds oxygen with higher affinity.

104
Q

negative allosteric inhibitors of hemoglobin

A

CO2, H+, BPG

actively metabolizing tissue releases CO2 and H+, causing O2 to be released from hemoglobin and delivered to tissues.

105
Q

where does BPG bind?

A

in the pocket formed between the two B subunits

106
Q

fetal hemoglobin (subunits, affinity)

A

2 alpha subunits, 2 gamma subunits.
BPG binds less well.
Higher affinity for oxygen.

107
Q

HbS (sickle)

A

Substitution in Beta subunit.
Sickles under low oxygen conditions.
Substitution adds a hydrophobic surface knob, which fits into the hydrophobic pocket that forms under low oxygen conditions.

Few symptoms under highly oxygenated conditions (no hydrophobic pocket).

108
Q

Methemoglobin

A

Carries Fe3+ (cannot carry O2)
Due to mutation, or ingestion of oxidizing agents (fertilizer).
Vitamin C can reduce iron to active Fe2+ state for carrying O2.

109
Q

treatment of sickle cell anemia

A

1) Hydroxyurea: produces small amount of HbF.
2) Antibiotics to treat secondary infections.
3) Bone marrow transplant: replaces HbS with HbA.
4) Gene therapy.

110
Q

cysteine forms disulfide bonds in a(n) ___________ environment

A

oxidizing environment (in ER, outside cell)

111
Q

maturation of insulin

A

PREPROINSULIN
Inside the cell, reduced.

PROINSULIN
In ER, oxidized.
Disulfide bonds form.
N-terminal peptide sequence removed.

INSULIN
Secreted, oxidized.
Internal peptide removed.

112
Q

type 1 collagen

A

bone, skin, tendons

113
Q

type III collagen

A

reticulin (skin repair)

114
Q

Collagen Biosynthesis

A

1) Polypeptide chain synthesis (repeats of Gly, Pro, Hydroxy Pro)
2) Hydroxylation of Pro and Lys (requires prolyl/lysyl hydroxylase, with Vitamin C cofactor).
3) Glycosylation
4) Disulfide bond formation at C-terminus
5) Triple helix formation (from C-terminal to N terminal)
6) Secretion.
7) Hydrolysis of peptides (cleaved by precollagen peptidases), forms alpha-collagen chains.
8) Assembly into fibril.
9) Formation of crosslinks (lysyl oxidase forms allysine from lysine.

115
Q

Osteogenesis Imperfecta

A

Mutation in collagen type I.

Changes Glycine to Cysteine, messing up helical structure.

116
Q

Ehlers-Danlos syndromes (when dominant/recessive)

A

Mutation in collagen type I or III.
Stretchy skin, hyperextensive joints.
Dominant if a structural protein.
Recessive if a processing enzyme.

117
Q

Prion diseases

A

Protein “gone bad.”

Less of the helical form, more of the aggregated form.

118
Q

how prion diseases are acquired

A

1) missense mutation (acquired or inherited) [classical]

2) contact with “bad form” [new]