Biochemistry (Green) Flashcards
(260 cards)
1
Q
The inhibition in noncompetitive reaction __________
a. Competes with the active site of the enzyme
b. Binds simultaneously with substrate other than the active site
c. Increases the rate of reaction
d. Both b and c
A
b. Binds simultaneously with substrate other than the active site
2
Q
The order and sequence of amino acid in a polypeptide determines what protein structure
a. Primary
b. Secondary
c. Tertiary
d. Quaternary
A
a. Primary
3
Q
Amino acids that cannot be synthesized in the organism are called ___________
a. Non-essential amino acids
b. Essential amino acids
c. Standard amino acids
d. Alpha amino acids
A
b. Essential amino acids
4
Q
Which hormones regulate the level of blood sodium?
a. Aldosterone
b. Sterol
c. Corticosteroid
d. Cortisone
A
a. Aldosterone
5
Q
It is a precursor of vitamin A
a. β-carotene
b. Retinol
c. Retinal
d. Opium
A
a. β-carotene
6
Q
Which of the following is a precursor of vitamin D?
a. Prostaglandin
b. Linoleic acid
c. Cholesterol
d. Aldosterone
A
c. Cholesterol
7
Q
Which of these class of enzymes introduces double-bond by the removal of hydrogen?
a. Dehydrogenase
b. Dehydrolase
c. Decarboxylase
d. Lipase
A
d. Lipase
8
Q
The ionic property of amino acid is exhibited by its:
a. Zwitterions form
b. NH2 group
c. COO group
d. Positively charged groups
A
a. Zwitterions form
9
Q
All of the following are simple proteins except:
a. Glutelins
b. Globulins
c. Albumins
d. Glycoproteins
A
d. Glycoproteins
10
Q
The simplest monosaccharide is __________
A
a. Erythrose
b. Starch
c. Glyceraldehydes
d. Arabinose
11
Q
Denaturation of protein is a result of:
a. Cleavage of the peptide bond
b. Formation of H-bond
c. Breaking of H-bond
d. None of these
A
c. Breaking of H-bond
12
Q
Competitive inhibition is a __________ reaction
a. Reversible
b. Irreversible
c. pH and temperature dependent
d. None of these
A
a. Reversible
13
Q
In the Seliwanoff’s test, the reaction of resorcinol and acid on the sugar forms __________
a. Hydroxymethyl furfural
b. Pyranose
c. Hydraxine
d. Purine
A
a. Hydroxymethyl furfural
14
Q
High concentration of neutral salts causes the precipitation of proteins. This is called __________
a. Salting out
b. Salting in
c. Coagulation
d. Both b & c
A
a. Salting out
15
Q
It is the type of enzyme inhibition reaction whereby the inhibition competes with the substrate active site
a. Competitive inhibition
b. Noncompetitive
c. Reversible inhibition
d. Incomplete inhibition
A
a. Competitive inhibition
16
Q
The following are waxes except:
a. Beeswax
b. Sperm oil
c. Bile acids
d. Lanolin
A
a. Beeswax
17
Q
The inactive form of enzymes are called __________
a. Zymogens
b. Apoenzymes
c. Cofactor
d. Both b & c
A
a. Zymogens
18
Q
Which of the following amino acids has no alpha amino group?
a. Proline
b. Hydroxyproline
c. Glycine
d. Both a & b
A
d. Both a & b
19
Q
An enzyme is a substance which
a. Converts heat to energy
b. Acts as a catalyst
c. Change chemically in a reaction
d. Is not specific in reaction
A
b. Acts as a catalyst
20
Q
Milk curdling enzyme present in gastric juice of infants
a. Pepsin
b. Rennin
c. Trypsin
d. Maltase
A
b. Rennin
21
Q
Carbohydrates are
a. Polyhydroxyaldehydes/Polyhydroxyketones
b. Polyhydroxyacids
c. Hemiacetals
d. Polymers of amino acids
A
a. Polyhydroxyaldehydes/Polyhydroxyketones
22
Q
Insulin is usually classified as:
a. Protein
b. Enzyme
c. Hormone
d. Carbohydrate
A
c. Hormones
23
Q
What amount of glucose is present in the human blood?
a. 60 to 90 mg in 100 mL of blood
b. 5 to 6 g in 100 mL of blood
c. 2% of the total human body weight
d. None of these
A
a. 60 to 90 mg in 100 mL of blood
24
Q
It is the organelle which serves as the site of the electron transport chain
a. Mitochondria
b. Ribosome
c. Nucleus
d. Lysosome
A
a. Mitochondria
25
The end product of the hydrolysis of glycogen is:
a. Galactose
b. Fructose
c. Glucose
d. Arabinose
c. Glucose
26
Iodine test is a reaction which may be used to identify carbohydrates. The reaction is due to:
a. Presence of the free aldehyde group
b. Presence of alcohol group
c. Presence of amylose portion
d. Presence of glucose
c. Presence of amylose portion
27
Benedict's reagent yield positive result to:
a. Monosaccharide only
b. Reducing sugars
c. Sucrose
d. Polysaccharides
b. Reducing sugars
28
Hypertonic solutions will cause the cell to:
a. Swell
b. Shrink
c. Burst
d. Undergo hemolysis
b. Shrink
29
Rancidity of fats may be due to:
a. Oxidation
b. Hydrogenation
c. Saponification
d. Condensation
a. Oxidation
30
The deficiency of this hormone causes diabetes mellitus:
a. Progesterone
b. Testosterone
c. Insulin
d. Glucagons
c. Insulin
31
The active proteolytic enzyme in gastric juice is:
a. Pepsin
b. Trypsin
c. Maltase
d. Catalase
a. Pepsin
32
The site of oxidation reaction in electron transport chain is in the:
a. Nucleus
b. Mitochondrion
c. Ribosome
d. Golgi bodies
b. Mitochondrion
33
Protein digestion starts in the:
a. Mouth
b. Stomach
c. Intestine
d. Pancreas
B. Stomach
34
The conversion of an amino acid to sugar is:
a. Gluconeogenesis
b. Glycolysis
c. Glycogenesis
d. Glycogenolysis
a. Gluconeogenesis
35
Which of the following is not an amino acid?
a. Leucine
b. Choline
c. Valine
d. Glycine
b. Choline
36
When trypsinogen is converted into trypsin, the enzyme is called:
a. Pepsin
b. Zymogen
c. Enterokinase
d. Amylase
c. Enterokinase
37
The protein part of the enzyme molecule is the:
a. Apoenzyme
b. Coenzyme
c. Cofactor
d. Holoenzyme
a. Apoenzyme
38
Optimum temperature for enzyme activity in the body
a. 40°C
b. 60°C
c. 37°C
d. 10°C
c. 37°C
39
Glucose is stored in the liver, as:
a. Galactose
b. Glycogen
c. Lactose
d. Fructose
b. Glycogen
40
The enzyme confirmation adapts to the incoming substrate in:
a. Lock and key theory
b. Glycogenesis
c. Competitive inhibition
d. Glycogenolysis
b. Glycogenesis
41
The process of converting glucose into glycogen is called:
a. Gluconeogenesis
b. Glycogenesis
c. Glycolysis
d. Glycogenolysis
b. Glycogenesis
42
All are pyrimidine bases except:
a. Guanine
b. Cytosine
c. Uracil
d. Thymine
a. Guanine
43
Glucose, amino acid, and fatty acid enter the citric acid cycle by their conversion into:
a. Pyruvate
b. Acetyl CoA
c. Acetoacetyl CoA
d. Palmitic acid
b. Acetyl CoA
44
A hormone which stimulates glycogenesis
a. Insulin
b. Glucagon
c. Epinephrine
d. Vasopressin
a. Insulin
45
These are chemicals that are extracted from organism such as bacteria and can inhibit growth or destroy other microorganisms
a. Antibiotic
b. Enzyme
c. Hormone
d. Vitamins
a. Antibiotic
46
The gland or tissue that regulates the blood glucose level
a. Parathyroid
b. Thyroid
c. Pancreas
d. Adrenal
c. Pancreas
47
Which vitamin is formed in the body by exposure to ultraviolet irradiation or sunlight
a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin B
c. Vitamin C
d. Vitamin D
d. Vitamin D
48
Excess vitamin A and D is stored in the body, but excess vitamin C and D is readily excreted. What property shows this?
a. Vitamin C & D are water soluble
b. Vitamin A & D are fat soluble
c. Both A & B
d. None of these
c. Both A & B
49
It is the entire genetic makeup of an organism
a. Gene
b. Anticodon
c. Codon
d. Mutation
a. Gene
50
The vitamin which is used in the prevention of degenerative changes in the central nervous system
a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin B complex
c. Vitamin C
d. Vitamin D
b. Vitamin B complex
51
It is a model which best explains the enzyme-substrate action
a. Lock & key
b. Molecular
c. VSEPR
d. Kreb
a. Lock & Key
52
The activation of pepsinogen requires:
a. Pepsin
b. NaOH
c. Enterokinase
d. HCl
d. HCl
53
DNA is primarily found in the:
a. Cytosol
b. Nucleus/mitochondria
c. Cell wall
d. Endoplasmic reticulum
b. Nucleus/mitochondria
54
It is the enzyme which hydrolyzes starch to dextrin and maltose
a. Catalase
b. Amylase
c. Pepsin
d. Lactase
b. Amylase
55
A synthetic DNA is called
a. Replicated DNA
b. Plasmid
c. Gene
d. Recombinant DNA
d. Recombinant DNA
56
Hydrolysis of ATP is an:
a. Energy requiring reaction
b. Energy producing reaction
c. No energy is involved
d. Energy is absorbed
b. Energy producing reaction
57
Which of the following is a characteristic of lipid?
a. Zwitterions
b. Amphiphilic
c. Hydrophobic
d. Hydrophilic
c. Hydrophobic
58
It is a condition that results when sugar level is below normal
a. Hypoglycemia
b. Hyperglycemia
c. Ketonuria
d. Uremia
a. Hypoglycemia
59
An example of globular protein
a. Albumin
b. Collagen
c. Fibrin
d. Silk
a. Albumin
60
Complementary base pairs in the DNA double helix are bonded by:
a. H-bond
b. Ester bond
c. Van der Waals
d. Dipole-dipole
a. H-bond
61
Which nitrogen base is not found in DNA?
a. Thymine
b. Cytosine
c. Uracil
d. Guanine
c. Uracil
62
An organic cofactor in an enzyme
a. Vitamins
b. Coenzymes
c. A & B
d. None of these
c. A & B
63
At which stage of glucose oxidation is most of the energy produced?
a. Glycolysis
b. Aerobic stage
c. Glycogenesis
d. Glycogenolysis
b. Aerobic stage
64
The best known building blocks of RNA and DNA are:
a. Purines
b. Pyrimidines
c. Fatty acids
d. A and B
d. A and B
65
It is responsible for the storage and transmission of genetic information
a. Adenine
b. RNA
c. DNA
d. Nucleic acid
c. DNA
66
Buildup of urea in the kidney is called:
a. Ketonuria
b. Glycemia
c. Uremia
d. All of these
c. Uremia
67
The transfer of genetic information from DNA by the formation of mRNA
a. Transcription
b. Translation
c. Transamination
d. Replication
a. Transcription
68
What is the end product of electron transport chain?
a. Oxygen
b. Hydrogen
c. Carbon dioxide
d. Water
d. Water
69
The energy producing reaction
a. Metabolic
b. Catabolic
c. Anabolic
d. All of these
b. Catabolic
70
It is the molecule that directs the activity of the cells
a. DNA
b. RNA
c. Nucleoproteins
d. Hormones
d. Hormones
71
The sugar involved in DNA
a. Ribose
b. Pentose
c. Deoxyribose
d. Xylose
c. Deoxyribose
72
The common metabolic pathway
a. Glycolysis
b. Beta oxidation
c. Kreb's cycle
d. Glucogenesis
c. Kreb's cycle
73
Rosenheim's test is used to detect the presence of:
a. Ethanolamine
b. Choline
c. Cholesterol
d. Glycone moiety
b. Choline
74
Detects the presence of alpha amino acids:
a. Biuret
b. Molisch
c. Ninhydrin
d. Hopkins-cole
c. Ninhydrin
75
The process of producing fats from acetyl CoA is called:
a. Glycolysis
b. Lipogenesis
c. Glycogenolysis
d. Glucogenesis
b. Lipogenesis
76
The following test reagents are used to detect the presence of amino acids, except:
a. Grignard's
b. Xanthoproteic
c. Millon-Nasse
d. Sakaguchi
a. Grignard's
77
The condition that lowers the pH of the blood due to starvation is called:
a. Acidosis
b. Alkalosis
c. Hyperglycemia
d. Glycosuria
a. Acidosis
78
The substance responsible for the emulsion of fats is:
a. HCl
b. Bile acids
c. Pepsin
d. Trypsin
b. Bile acids
79
Hubl's solution is used to ascertain degree of:
a. Saturation
b. Unsaturation
c. Peroxidation
d. Acidity
b. Unsaturation
80
IUPAC name of acrolyn
a. Pentenal
b. Propenal
c. Hexanal
d. Acetone
b. Propenal
81
The positive indication for the presence of glycerol in acrolein test:
a. Yellow colored solution
b. Black markings on filter
c. Silver mirror formed in the test tube
d. Play of colors, from blue to shades of red
b. Black markings on filter
82
Cerebrosides are positive in the following tests, except:
a. Molisch
b. Biuret
c. Lassaigne's
d. None of the above
b. Biuret
83
Osmic test is used to detect the presence of __________ in lipids:
a. Metals
b. Phosphate group
c. Unsaturated group
d. Glycerol
b. Phosphate group
84
The most sensitive chemical test to detect the presence of glycerol in acrolein test
a. Liebermann-Burchard test
b. Salkowski reaction
c. Formaldehyde-sulfuric acid
d. Colorimetric spectrophotometry
a. Liebermann-Burchard test
85
The following are phospholipids, except:
a. Plasmalogen
b. Lecithin
c. Cephalin
d. Choline
d. Choline
86
A mixed triglyceride contains:
a. Three similar fatty acids esterified with glycerol
b. Two similar fatty acids esterified with glycerol
c. Three different fatty acids esterified with glycerol
d. All of the above
c. Three different fatty acids esterified with glycerol
87
The central compound found in the structure of sphingolipids:
a. Glycerol
b. Sphingosine
c. Ceramide
d. Phosphocholine
c. Ceramide
88
Lipid whose specific test is the Furter-Meyer test
a. Tocopherol
b. Retinol
c. Sphingomyelin
d. Cerebroside
a. Tocopherol
89
Precipitate of __________ indicates the presence of phospholipids in the lipid sample
a. Ammonium phosphomolybdate
b. Phosphorus periodate
c. Phosphorus triiodide
d. Phospho-ammonium sulfate complex
a. Ammonium phosphomolybdate
90
The following are glycolipids except:
a. Globosides
b. Phosphatides
c. Gangliosides
d. Cerebrosides
b. Phosphatides
91
The parent compound of phospholipids
a. Glycerols
b. Phospatidic acid
c. Ethanolamine
d. None of the above
b. Phosphatidic acid
92
A non-pentose sugar which is also positive for Tollen's sphloroglucinol test
a. Galactose
b. Glucose
c. Fructose
d. Cellobiose
d. Cellobiose
93
The reagent present in Molisch test which is responsible for the dehydration reaction
a. Sodium carbonate
b. Magnesium stearate
c. Sulfuric acid
d. NaOH
c. Sulfuric acid
94
ID test to detect the presence of glycogen
a. Phloroglucinol
b. Molisch
c. Iodine
d. Seliwanoff
c. Iodine
95
The only sugar that readily forms insoluble osazone crystals
a. Lactose
b. Sucrose
c. Mannose
d. Sucrose
c. Mannose
96
Important structural material found in the exoskeletons of many lower animals
a. Chondroitin
b. Heparin
c. Hyaluronic acid
d. Chitin
d. Chitin
97
Hydrolysis of osazones produce:
a. Phenylhydrazones
b. Ozones
c. Sugars
d. None of the above
b. Ozones
98
General term for a group of polysaccharides present in the primary cell wall
a. Xanthan
b. Mucilage
c. Pectin
d. Carageenan
c. Pectin
99
Specific test for galactose, due to the formation of highly insoluble crystals
a. Phenylhydrazine test
b. Fermentation
c. Mucic acid
d. Molisch
c. Mucic acid
100
Type of RNA which serves as a template for the amino acid sequence being synthesized
a. mRNA
b. tRNA
c. rRNA
d. None of the above
a. mRNA
101
Positive indication for Anthrone test
a. Purple ring
b. Blue-green color
c. Effervescence
d. Yellow ppt
b. Blue-green color
102
Differentiating test between helical and linear polysaccharides
a. Molisch
b. Iodine
c. Schweitzer
d. Fermentation
b. Iodine
103
The difference between Benedict's and Barfoed's test reagent lies in:
a. Sequestering agent used
b. Active component used
c. pH of the solution
d. Alkali used
c. pH of the solution
104
Hydrolytic product of chitin
a. Iduronate
b. Acetylgalactosamine
c. Acetylglucosamine
d. Glucuronic acid
c. Acetylglucosamine
105
Glucose and fructose are:
a. Anomers
b. Epimers
c. Geometric isomers
d. Allosteres
c. Geometric isomers
106
The complementary strand of CGACCTTGATCGACGTCGA:
a. TCGTTCCAGCTAGTACTAG
b. GCTGGAACTAGCTGCEGCT
c. AGCAAGGTCGATCATGATC
d. ATCAAGGTCGATCATGATC
b. GCTGGAACTAGCTGCEGCT
107
Alkaline bismuth reagent is used to detect the presence of:
a. Polysaccharides
b. Dissacharides
c. Reducing sugars
d. Glycitols
c. Reducing sugars
108
108
The following are the components of DNA nucleosides, except:
a. Phosphoric acid
b. Sugar
c. Adenine
d. Cytosine
a. Phosphoric acid
109
Central dogma concept wherein the RNA molecule is used as template
for the synthesis of DNA molecule:
a. Transcription
b. Translation
c. Mutation
d. None of the above
d. None of the above
110
The following proteins are present in egg white, except:
a. Ovomucin
b. Ovoglobulin
c. Albumin
d. Osseomucoid
d. Osseomucoid
111
Anaerobic glycolysis occurs in the:
a. Nucleus
b. Mitochondria
c. Cytoplasm
d. Lysosomes
c. Cytoplasm
112
Ketogenic amino acids:
a. Leucine
b. Tyrosine
c. Phenylalanine
d. All of the above
d. All of the above
113
Osazone test is also known as:
a. Nylander's
b. Kowarsky test
c. Trommer's
d. Folin's test
b. Kowarsky test
114
Genetic defect characterized by mental retardation and cataract, since the unmetabolized sugar is toxic to the lens of the eyes:
a. Galactosemia
b. Fructosemia
c. Pentosuria
d. Fructosuria
a. Galactosemia
115
Body functions of lipids:
a. Transformation into proteins and carbohydrates
b. Catabolism to provide body with heat and energy
c. Insulation and paddings for organs
d. All of the above
d. All of the above
116
Pyridoxine is a component of this enzyme:
a. Enolase
b. Decarboxylase
c. Hydrogenase
d. Isomerase
b. Decarboxylase
117
The following are neutral amino acids, except:
a. Methionine
b. Lysine
c. Threonine
d. Leucine
b. Lysine
118
In man, the principal end product of protein metabolism is:
a. Uric acid
b. Lactic acid
c. Pyruvic acid
d. Urea
d. Urea
119
Condition wherein acetone accumulates in the blood:
a. Ketosuria
b. Ketonemia
c. Ketosis
d. Ketonuria
b. Ketonemia
120
Glutamine is a _____________amino acid:
a. Neutral
b. Basic
c. Acidic
d. Racemin
a. Neutral
121
Oxidation product of ketone bodies:
a. Reduced sugars
b. Carbon dioxide
c. Alcohols
d. Aldehydes
b. Carbon dioxide
122
Phospoprotein found in egg yolk:
a. Ovocasein
b. Tendomucoid
c. Vitelin
d. Avidin
c. Vitelin
123
Amino acids positive for Sakaguchi reaction:
a. Gelatin
b. Alanine
c. Arginine
d. Tyrosine
c. Arginine
124
Histidine is negative for:
a. Pauly reaction
b. Sodium nitroprusside
c. Ninhydrin
d. Xanthoproteic
b. Sodium nitroprusside
125
An official simple protein obtained from corn:
a. Glutelin
b. Gliadin
c. Zein
d. Maize
c. Zein
126
Principle involved in the isolation of casein milk:
a. Salting in
b. Salting out
c. Isoelectric precipitation
d. None of the above
c. Isoelectric precipitation
127
Process of converting liver glycogen into blood glucose:
a. Glycogenolysis
b. Gluconeogenesis
c. Glycolysis
d. Glycogenesis
a. Glycogenolysis
128
Genetic information is stored and carried in all cells by:
a. Single-stranded DNA
b. Double-stranded DNA
c. Double-stranded RNA
d. Single stranded circular DNA
b. Double-stranded DNA
129
Principal site for the synthesis of urea
a. Kidney
b. Liver
c. Spleen
d. Intestinal mucosa
b. Liver
130
Pentose present in gum arabic:
a. Xylose
b. Ribose
c. Arabinose
d. Threose
c. Arabinose
131
Which of the following is responsible for the transfer of genetic information?
a. ATP
b. GTP
c. DNA
d. RNA
c. DNA
132
Only form of inorganic nitrogen which can be utilized by living cells:
a. Urea
b. Ornithine
c. Ammonia
d. Nitrogen gas
c. Ammonia
133
The following are essential amino acids, except:
a. Tyrosine
b. Lysine
c. Methionine
d. Arginine
a. Tyrosine
134
The chief end product of purine metabolism in man
a. CO
b. Urea
c. Uric acid
d. Ammonia
c. Uric acid
135
The principal end product of protein metabolism:
a. Carbon dioxide
b. Ammonia
c. Hippuric acid
d. Urea
d. Urea
136
Presence of glucose in appreciable amounts in the urine
a. Hematuria
b. Glycosuria
c. Glycosemia
d. Akbuminaria
b. Glycosuria
137
The following are the tests for kidney efficiency, except:
a. Phenolsulfophthalein test
b. Urea clearance test
c. Water output test
d. Crystallization method
d. Crystallization method
138
Growth hormone is also known as:
a. Thyrotropic hormone
b. Somatotropin
c. Gonadotropin
d. Interstitial stimulating hormone
b. Somatotropin
139
What is the anticodon in tRNA that corresponds to the codon ACG in mRNA?
a. UGC
b. TGC
c. GCA
d. CGU
a. UGC
140
Condition wherein bile pigment is present in excess in the blood:
a. Jaundice
b. Hepatitis
c. Cirrhosis
d. Cystic fibrosis
a. Jaundice
141
The following are non-essential amino acids, except:
a. Glycine
b. Leucine
c. Cysteine
d. Glutamine
b. Leucine
142
Principal digestive constituent of the gastric juice:
a. Trypsin
b. Pepsin
c. Gastrin
d. Enterokinase
b. Pepsin
143
Condition wherein the concentration of uric acid accumulates in blood reaches as high as 1mg percent:
a. Leukemia
b. Gout
c. Murexia
d. Any of the above
b. Gout
144
The study of the composition and the chemical processes occurring in the living matter is:
a. Qualitative chemistry
b. Organic chemistry
c. Biochemistry
d. Quantitative chemistry
e. Inorganic chemistry
c. Biochemistry
145
What is a wobble?
a. The ability of certain anticodons to pair with codons that differ at the third base
b. An error in translation induced by streptomycin
c. A mechanism that allows for a peptide extension in the 50S submit of the ribosome
d. Thermal motions leading to local denaturation of the DNA double helix
a. The ability of certain anticodons to pair with codons that differ at the third base
146
The most important function of HCl in the stomach is:
a. Hydrolysis of protein
b. Neutralization of chime
c. Activation of pepsinogen secretion
d. Destruction of bacteria
e. Stimulation of pancreatic
c. Activation of pepsinogen secretion
147
Transmission is:
a. Conversion of amino acid to hydroxyl acid
b. Loss of ammonia from amino acids
c. Conversion of amino acids to keto acids
d. Formation of ammonium salt from ammonia
keto acids
148
The lipid that is converted to Vitamin D2 upon irradiation
a. Ergosterol
b. Glycerol
c. Cholesterol
d. All of the above
a. Ergosterol
149
The metabolic degradation of hemoglobin takes place principally in:
a. The reticuloendothelial system
b. The red blood cells
c. The white blood cells
d. The liver cell
a. The reticuloendothelial system
150
The amino acid that is an important precursor of hemoglobin is:
a. Alanine
b. Proline
c. Glycine
d. Cysteine
c.Glycine
151
Serine is converted to ethanolamine by the removal of:
a. Oxygen
b. Ammonia
c. Carbon dioxide
d. Carboxyl group
c. Carbon dioxide
152
Ninhydrin give a blue coloration with:
a. Proteins
b. Carbohydrates
c. Amino acids
d. Simple sugars
c. Amino acids
153
Which is the monomer unit of proteins?
a. Amino acid
b. Monosaccharide
c. Fatty acid
d. Purine
a. Amino acid
154
The proteinase that is found mostly in gastric juice of young animals
a. Rennin
b. Pepsin
c. Steapsin
d. Ptyalin
e. None of the above
a. Rennin
155
Conjugated proteins which are a combination of amino acids and carbohydrates
a. Nucleoproteins
b. Glycoproteins
c. Phosphoproteins
d. Chromoproteins
b. Glycoproteins
156
Gamma decarboxylation of aspartic acid produces:
a. Alanine
b. Asparagines
c. Glutamic acid
d. Glycine
a. Alanine
157
Rotation of polarized light is caused by solutions of all of the following amino acids, except:
a. Alanine
b. Glycine
c. Leucine
d. Valine
b. Glycine
158
It is a disease due to protein deficiency
a. Kwashiorkor
b. Diabetes
c. Albuminuria
d. Jaundice
a. Kwashiorkor
159
Which of the following amino acids is not essential in mammals?
a. Phenylalanine
b. Lysine
c. Tyrosine
d. Methionine
c. Tyrosine
160
The following are examples of chromoprotein except:
a. Chlorophyll
b. Hemoglobin
c. Cytochromes
d. Heparin
d. Heparin
161
For the amino acid cysteine, choose the appropriate description of its side chain.
a. Acidic
b. Basic
c. Aromatic
d. Sulfur-containing
d. Sulfur-containing
162
Which of the following amino acids has a net positive charge at physiologic pH?
a. Cysteine
b. Glutamic acid
c. Lysine
d. Valine
c. Lysine
163
Sickle cell anemia is the clinical manifestation of homozygous genes for an abnormal hemoglobin molecule. The mutation event responsible for the mutation in the beta chain is:
a. Crossing over
b. Insertion
c. Deletion
d. Point mutation
d. Point mutation
164
When starches are heated, they produce:
a. Sugars
b. Glycogen
c. Dextrins
d. Disaccharides
165
Check the incorrect statement:
a. Ribose is an aldopentose
b. Maltose is a ketohexose
c. Galactose is an aldohexose
d. Glucose is an aldohexose
b. Maltose is a ketohexose
166
The reducing property of sugars is due to this group:
a. Aldehyde
b. Nitro
c. Carboxyl
d. Methyl
a. Aldehyde
167
The monosaccharide most rapidly absorbed from the small intestine is:
a. Glucose
b. Fructose
c. Mannose
d. Galactose
d. Galactose
168
A condition known as atherosclerosis results as an accumulation in the blood vessels
a. Calcium
b. Pathogens
c. Cholesterol
d. Ketones
c. Cholesterol
169
Ketoses can be differentiated from aldoses by this test:
a. Molisch's test
b. Benedict's test
c. Seliwanoff's test
d. Tollen's test
c. Seliwanoff's test
170
The clinical test for the determination of cholesterol
a. Liebermann-Burchard
b. Salkowski
c. Both a & b
d. None of the above
c. Both a & b
171
Concentrated dehydrating acids change monosaccharides to:
a. Simple sugars
b. Saccharic acids
c. Furfurals
d. Uronic acids
e. Aldric acids
c. Furfurals
172
A mucopolysaccharide which possesses an anticoagulant property
A. Pectin
b. Hyaluronic acid
c. Heparin
d. Chitin
e. Chondroitin sulfate
c. Heparin
173
Which of the following is the test for reducing sugars for urine?
a. Benedict's test
b. Acrolein test
c. Biuret test
d. Brown ring test
a. Benedict's test
174
Lactose can be differentiated from fructose by:
a. Mucic acid test
b. Barfoed's test
c. Fehling's test
d. Iodine test
e. Tollen's test
b. Barfoed's test
175
Polymers that are responsible for the metabolic capabilities and morphology of organisms are:
a. Carbohydrates
b. Proteins
c. Polysaccharides
d. Nucleic acids
b. Proteins
176
The product obtained from the partial hydrolysis of collagen
a. Myosin
b. Gelatin
c. Actin
d. Fibrinogen
e. Thrombin
b. Gelatin
177
The main carbohydrate of the blood is:
a. D-fructose
b. D-glucose
c. Mannitol
d. Sorbitol
b. D-glucose
178
A normal value of glucose in the blood
a. 100 to 200 mg%
b. 80 to 120 mg%
c. 50 to 75 mg%
d. 200 to 300mg%
b. 80 to 120 mg%
179
Butter becomes rancid upon exposure to air due to formation of:
a. Acetic acid
b. Butyric acid
c. Formic acid
d. Propionic acid
b. Butyric acid
180
The cholesterol molecule is:
a. An aromatic ring
b. A straight chain acid
c. A steroid
d. Tocopherol
c. A steroid
181
Which of the following is a phospholipids:
a. Glycogen
b. Prostaglandin
c. Sphingomyelin
d. Oleic acid
c. Sphingomyelin
182
The passage of the end products of digestion from the small intestine into the blood stream
a. Metabolism
b. Digestion
c. Absorption
d. Oxidation
e. Reduction
c. Absorption
183
Endocrine gland that is a small oval body situated at the base of the brain
a. Hypophysis
b. Pancreas
c. Adrenal
d. None of the above
a. Hypophysis
184
Cellular elements of the blood devoid of nucleus
a. RBC
b. WBC
c. Thrombocytes
d. All of the above
a. RBC
185
Is the sum total of all activities directed towards the maintenance of life
a. Catabolism
b. Anabolism
c. Metabolism
d. Photosynthesis
e. Fermentation
c. Metabolism
186
This substance accumulates in the muscles as a result of vigorous exercise
a. Muscle glycogen
b. Amino acids
c. Lactic acid
d. Glucose
c. Lactic acid
187
A common intermediate of metabolism of carbohydrates, fatty acids, and amino acids is:
a. Glycerol
b. Acetyl CoA
c. Acetoacetate
d. Oxaloacetate
e. Acetylcholine
b. Acetyl CoA
188
The principal site of glucose production in the human body is the:
a. Blood
b. Liver
c. Pituitary gland
d. Small intestine
b. Liver
189
The major buffer of the extracellular fluid:
a. Bicarbonate-carbon dioxide
b. Amino acids
c. Phosphate
d. None of the above
a. Bicarbonate-carbon dioxide
190
Separates from cells when blood is coagulated
a. Fibrinogen
b. Plasma
c. Serum
d. Thrombin
e. None of the above
c. Serum
191
These are the glycolipids found in high concentration in the brain and nerve cells especially in the myelin sheath
a. Lecithin
b. Cephalins
c. Cerebrosides
d. Sphingolipids
c. Cerebrosides
192
Alcohol in the body is:
a. Oxidized to CO2 and HOH
b. Excreted mainly in the lungs
c. Excreted by the kidneys
d. Excreted by the large intestine
a. Oxidized to CO2 and HOH
193
Which of the following tissues contains the enzyme glucose-6-phosphatase and is able to supply glucose to the blood?
a. Heart
b. Brain
c. Liver
d. None of the above
c. Liver
194
Complete digestion of all foodstuffs occurs in the:
a. Large intestine
b. Stomach
c. Mouth
d. Small intestine
e. Pancreas
d. Small intestine
195
This compound is not a normal constituent of urine:
a. Sodium chloride
b. Albumin
c. Urea
d. Uric acid
b. Albumin
196
Decomposition of carbohydrates brought about by the action of enzymes liberating ethyl alcohol and carbon dioxide
a. Fermentation
b. Adsorption
c. Detoxification
d. Hydrolysis
e. Saponification
a. Fermentation
197
Blood clotting can be prevented by:
a. Sodium chloride
b. Potassium chloride
c. Sodium citrate
c. Sodium citrate
198
This hormone elevates blood sugar concentration
a. Insulin
b. Progesterone
c. Estrogen
d. Glucagons
d. Glucagons
199
Deficiency in this vitamins causes red blood cell fragility
a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin K
c. Vitamin D
d. Vitamin E
d. Vitamin D
200
The end product in the hydrolysis of glycogen is:
a. Galactose
b. Mannose
c. Glucose
d. Arabinose
c. Glucose
201
In which form is glucose stored in the liver?
a. Glycogen
b. Glucose (unchanged)
c. Sucrose
d. Starch
a. Glycogen
202
Which of the following is NOT an ID test for proteins and amino acids?
a. Ninhydrin
b. Bial's
c. Biuret
d. Xanthoproteic
b. Bial's
203
What vitamin deficiency causes pellagra?
a. Riboflavin
b. Thiamine
c. Pantothenic acid
d. Nicotinic acid
d. Nicotinic acid
204
All are pyrimidine bases, except:
a. Cytosine
b. Thymine
c. Uracil
d. Guanine
d. Guanine
205
The sugar that yields only glucose when hydrolyzed is:
a. Galactose
b. Maltose
c. Fructose
d. Sucrose
b. Maltose
206
Which is NOT a B-complex vitamin?
a. Folic acid
b. Nicotinic acid
c. Riboflavin
d. Ascorbic acid
d. Ascorbic acid
207
The following are aldohexoses, EXCEPT:
a. Fructose
b. Galactose
c. Glucose
d. Mannose
a. Fructose
208
All the amino acid below contain sulfur, EXCEPT:
a. Cystine
b. Methionine
c. Cysteine
d. Glycine
d. Glycine
209
The following are essential fatty acids, EXCEPT:
a. Oleic acid
b. Linoleic acid
c. Linolenic acid
d. Arachidonic acid
a. Oleic acid
210
The test detects the presence of two or more peptide bonds
a. Ninhydrin
b. Fehling's
c. Tollen's
d. Biuret
d. Biuret
211
This vitamin easily undergoes oxidation
a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin C
c. Vitamin B12
d. Vitamin B1
b. Vitamin C
212
The end product of anaerobic glucose metabolism is:
a. Pyruvate
b. Lactate
c. Carbon dioxide
d. Water
b. Lactate
213
The inactive form of an enzyme is sometimes called:
a. Zymogen
b. Holoenzyme
c. Apoenzyme
d. Coenzyme
a. Zymogen
214
Photosynthesis is a process involved in the manufacture of:
a. Carbohydrates
b. Fats
c. Proteins
d. All of the above
a. Carbohydrates
215
The major extracellular cation is:
a. Potassium
b. Sodium
c. Calcium
d. Iron
b. Sodium
216
Which sugar will NOT give a red precipitate with cupric oxide when heated with Benedict's solution?
a. Glucose
b. Maltose
c. Sucrose
d. Fructose
b. Maltose
217
Night blindness is a symptom of a deficiency in this vitamin
a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin C
c. Vitamin B
d. Vitamin D
a. Vitamin A
218
The activation of pepsinogen requires:
a. NaOH
b. Bicarbonate
c. Acetic acid
d. HCl
d. HCl
219
Nucleosides upon hydrolysis will yield:
a. Adenine + phosphate
b. Quinine + phosphate
c. Histones + ribose
d. Cytosine + ribose
d. Cytosine + ribose
220
Protein digestion starts in the:
a. Mouth
b. Small intestine
c. Stomach
d. Large intestine
c. Stomach
221
Major form of utilizable energy in all cells
a. ADP
b. GDP
c. ATP
d. GTP
c. ATP
222
Which of the following supplies the highest amount of energy per gram?
a. Fat
b. Glycogen
c. Protein
d. Starch
a. Fat
223
The following are proteins in milk, except?
a. Rennin
b. Casein
c. Lactoalbumin
d. Lactoglobulin
a. Rennin
224
The conversion of beta carotene to vitamin A is carried out in the:
a. Liver
b. Small intestine
c. Lungs
d. Pancreas
a. Liver
225
This sugar is also called an "invert sugar"
a. Sucrose
b. Fructose
c. Glucose
d. Galactose
a. Sucrose
226
What type of sugar is found in nucleic acids?
a. Riboses
b. Glucoses
c. Mannoses
d. Galactoses
a. Riboses
227
The biochemical function of hemoglobin is:
a. Defense
b. Regulatory
c. Structural
d. Oxygen transport
d. Oxygen transport
228
The following enzymes catalyze hydrolysis reactions, except:
a. Proteases
b. Esterases
c. Transaminases
d. Nucleases
c. Transaminases
229
Porphyrins are involved in the building of:
a. Bones
b. Muscles
c. Blood
d. Connective tissue
C. Blood
230
Which among the following sugar is sweetest?
a. Glucose
b. Fructose
c. Sucrose
d. Galactose
b. Fructose
231
Information and control centers of the cell
a. Nucleoproteins
b. Enzymes
c. Carbohydrates
d. Lipids
a. Nucleoproteins
232
Hydrolysis of nucleoproteins will yield:
a. Nucleic acids and histones
b. Nucleic acid and sugar
c. Nucleic acid and purines
d. Nucleic acid and pyrimidines
a. Nucleic acids and histones
233
The condition wherein protein is found in the urine is:
a. Glycosuria
b. Ketonuria
c. Proteinuria
d. Dysuria
c. Proteinuria
234
Alpha-hydroxy propionic acid is:
a. Lactic acid
b. Aminoacetic acid
c. Ascorbic acid
d. Pyruvic acid
a. Lactic acid
235
This test detects the presence of indole rings
a. Molisch
b. Hopkin's cole
c. Millon's
d. Ninhydrin
b. Hopkin's cole
236
The steps of central states:
a. Replication, translation, and transcription
b. Replication, translation, and transmission
c. Replication, translation, and translation
d. Transcription, translation, and replication
d. Transcription, translation, and replication
237
Reverse transaction takes place in:
a. Bacteria
b. Viruses
c. Algae
d. Molds
d. Molds
238
The number of chromosomes in human
a. 41
b. 42
c. 43
d. 46
d. 46
239
Digestion of starch starts in the:
a. Mouth
b. Stomach
c. Small intestine
d. Large intestine
a. Mouth
240
Which among the following sugar is sweetest?
a. Glucose
b. Fructose
c. Sucrose
d. Galactose
b. Fructose
241
Information and control centers of the cell
a. Nucleoproteins
b. Enzymes
c. Carbohydrates
d. Lipids
a. Nucleoproteins
242
Hydrolysis of nucleoproteins will yield:
a. Nucleic acids and histones
b. Nucleic acid and sugar
c. Nucleic acid and purines
d. Nucleic acid and pyrimidines
a. Nucleic acids and histones
243
The condition wherein protein is found in the urine is:
a. Glycosuria
b. Ketonuria
c. Proteinuria
d. Dysuria
c. Proteinuria
244
Alpha-hydroxy propionic acid is:
a. Lactic acid
b. Aminoacetic acid
c. Ascorbic acid
d. Pyruvic acid
a. Lactic acid
245
This test detects the presence of indole rings
a. Molisch
b. Hopkin's cole
c. Millon's
d. Ninhydrin
b. Hopkin's cole
246
The steps of central states:
a. Replication, translation, and transcription
b. Replication, translation, and transmission
c. Replication, translation, and translation
d. Transcription, translation, and replication
d. Transcription, translation, and replication
247
Reverse transaction takes place in:
a. Bacteria
b. Viruses
c. Algae
d. Molds
d. Molds
248
The number of chromosomes in humans
a. 41
b. 42
c. 43
d. 46
d. 46
249
Digestion of starch starts in the:
a. Mouth
b. Stomach
c. Small intestine
d. Large intestine
a. Mouth
250
The ordered steps in protein synthesis
a. Transcription, transplantation, activation, elongation
b. Activation, elongation, initiation, termination
c. Initiation, activation, elongation, termination
d. Activation, initiation, elongation, termination
d. Activation, initiation, elongation, termination
251
Genetic code is:
a. Universal
b. Composed of three nucleotides
c. Continuous
d. All are correct
d. All are correct
252
Which of the following is called transamination?
a. Conversion of amino acids to hydroxyl acids
b. Conversion of amino acids to keto acids
c. Loss of ammonia from amino acids
d. Formation of ammonium salts from ammonia
b. Conversion of amino acids to keto acids
253
Dextran is:
a. Carbohydrate
b. Glucose polymer
c. Glycoside
d. Protein
a. Carbohydrate
254
A genetic disease due to defective mechanism for pyrimidine dimers
a. Phenyl ketonuria
b. Xeroderma pigmentosum
c. Albinism
d. Galactosemia
b. Xeroderma pigmentosum
255
The bond joining pentose sugar to nitrogen base is:
a. 1,4-glycosidic bond
b. Beta-1,4-glycosidic bond
c. Peptide bond
d. N-glycosyl linkage
a. 1,4-glycosidic bond
256
The type of RNA molecule that brings amino acids to the site of protein synthesis
a. rRNA
b. aRNA
c. mRNA
d. tRNA
d. tRNA
257
Most allergies are caused by:
a. Error in the immune system
b. Histamines produced by the body
c. Dust
d. All of the above
d. All of the above
258
RNA which plays an important role in the structure and biosynthetic function of ribosome
a. mRNA
b. rRNA
c. tRNA
d. DNA
b. rRNA
259
In the secondary structure of RNA:
a. Adenine will always pair with thymine
b. Cytosine will always pair with thymine
c. Cytosine will always pair with uracil
d. Adenine will always pair with uracil
d. Adenine will always pair with uracil
