Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

2021 Sem2 > BMET9901 > Flashcards

BMET9901 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 6 functions of the skeletal system (12)

A

Support. Bone is hard and rigid; cartilage is flexible yet strong. Cartilage in nose, external ear, thoracic cage and trachea. Ligaments- bone to bone
• Protection. Skull around brain; ribs, sternum, vertebrae protect organs of thoracic cavity
• Movement. Produced by muscles on bones, via tendons. Ligaments allow some movement between bones but prevent excessive movement. Bones are the attachment pt for muscles, muscles don’t really achieve anything without something to attach to.
• Absorb shock. This specifically refers to cartilage - Impacts during motion need to be absorbed to reduce strain on bone and joints and damage to soft tissues.
• Storage. Ca and P ions. Stored then released as needed. Fat stored in marrow
• Blood cell production (Hematopoeisis). Bone provides a niche for bone marrow that gives rise to blood cells and platelets.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q
  1. Describe the form and function of carpals (2)
A

short bone - allows for some movement and provides some structure. Found in the wrist, ankles and feet. - Ankles/feet are called the tarsals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q
  1. Describe the form and function of sesamoid bone (2)
A
  • enclosed by tendons - kneecaps enclosed by thigh muscles
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q
  1. Describe the form and function of flat bone (2)
A

protective casing e.g. the cranium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q
  1. Name the different types of vertebrae and number of each type in the human skeleton (8)
A
  • 7 cervical vertebrae
  • 12 thoracic vertebrae
  • 5 lumbar vertebrae
    1 sacrum & 1 coccyx
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
  1. Name the different types of bone projection/processes and their function (10)
A

Tubercle - Smallest

Trochanter - Medium sized

Tuberosity - Largest (top of tibia)

Condyle - Point of articulation between bones

Process - Small and pointy e.g. spinal processes on vertebrae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
  1. What is bone made up of? (1)
A
  • Bone is a heterogeneous composite material consisting of
    ○ A mineral phase - hydroxyapatite
    ○ Organic phase - collagen and lipids
    ○ Water
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q
  1. Where is the epiphysal growth plate, and why is it important in long bone growth?
A

The growth plate, also known as the epiphyseal plate is a thin layer of cartilage that lies between the epiphyses and metaphyses, and is where the growth of long bones takes place.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q
  1. Compare diaphysal bone with epiphysal bone.
A

The main difference between epiphysis and diaphysis is that epiphysis is the rounded end of a long bone, at its joint with adjacent bone(s), whereas diaphysis is the main or midsection (shaft) of a long bone. Furthermore, epiphysis is made up of spongy bone while diaphysis is made up of cortical bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q
  1. Compare the periosteum with the endosteum
A

ans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
  1. What is an osteon? Outline its structure.
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
  1. Describe the structure of spongy bone/trabecullae
A
  • Interconnecting honeycomb-like structure of bone - like scaffolding
  • Spaces filled with RBM
  • Covered with endosteum>compact bone > periostreum
  • Oriented along stress lines - its shape is dependent on stress applied, will bend as needed
  • Does not have a blood vessel in the middle
  • Has lamella but not in a strict concentric shape like osteons
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
  1. What are canaliculi?
A

Canaliculus - cytoplasmic projections from osteocyte into lamellae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q
  1. Outline the process of intramembranous ossification
A
  • Mesenchymal cells convert to osteoblasts in ossification centre
  • Osteoblasts secrete extracellular matrix and deposit calcium, which hardens matrix
  • Osteoid - uncalcified matrix
  • When osteoid calcifies, this restricts movement, results in development of osteocytes
  • Osteocytes responsible for increased Ca2+ production, made from osteoblasts
  • External mesenchymal cells then become the new osteoblasts
  • Bone matrix is formed around blood vessels during ossification, creating spongy bone
    The non-mineralized portion of the bone or osteoid continues to form around blood vessels, forming spongy bone. Connective tissue in the matrix differentiates into red bone marrow in the fetus. The spongy bone is remodeled into a thin layer of compact bone on the surface of the spongy bone.
    Mesenchymal cells > periosteum >thin layer of cortical bone
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q
  1. Outline the process of endochondral ossification
A

1)In endochondral ossification, bone develops by replacing hyaline cartilage. Cartilage serves as a template to be completely replaced by new bone.

2)In a long bone, for example, at about 6 to 8 weeks after conception, some of the mesenchymal cells differentiate into chondroblasts (cartilage cells) that form the hyaline cartilaginous skeletal precursor of the bones (Figure 6.4.2a). This cartilage is a flexible, semi-solid matrix produced by chondroblasts and consists of hyaluronic acid, chondroitin sulfate, collagen fibers, and water. As the matrix surrounds and isolates chondroblasts, they are called chondrocytes. Unlike most connective tissues, cartilage is avascular, meaning that it has no blood vessels supplying nutrients and removing metabolic wastes. All of these functions are carried on by diffusion through the matrix from vessels in the surrounding perichondrium, a membrane that covers the cartilage,a).
As more and more matrix is produced, the cartilaginous model grow in size. Blood vessels in the perichondrium bring osteoblasts to the edges of the structure and these arriving osteoblasts deposit bone in a ring around the diaphysis – this is called a bone collar (Figure 6.4.2b). The bony edges of the developing structure prevent nutrients from diffusing into the center of the hyaline cartilage. This results in chondrocyte death and disintegration in the center of the structure. Without cartilage inhibiting blood vessel invasion, blood vessels penetrate the resulting spaces, not only enlarging the cavities but also carrying osteogenic cells with them, many of which will become osteoblasts. These enlarging spaces eventually combine to become the medullary cavity. Bone is now deposited within the structure creating the primary ossification center (Figure 6.4.2c).

While these deep changes are occurring, chondrocytes and cartilage continue to grow at the ends of the structure (the future epiphyses), which increases the structure’s length at the same time bone is replacing cartilage in the diaphyses. This continued growth is accompanied by remodeling inside the medullary cavity (osteoclasts were also brought with invading blood vessels) and overall lengthening of the structure (Figure 6.4.2d). By the time the fetal skeleton is fully formed, cartilage remains at the epiphyses and at the joint surface as articular cartilage.

After birth, this same sequence of events (matrix mineralization, death of chondrocytes, invasion of blood vessels from the periosteum, and seeding with osteogenic cells that become osteoblasts) occurs in the epiphyseal regions, and each of these centers of activity is referred to as a secondary ossification center (Figure 6.4.2e). Throughout childhood and adolescence, there remains a thin plate of hyaline cartilage between the diaphysis and epiphysis known as the growth or epiphyseal plate (Figure 6.4.2f). Eventually, this hyaline cartilage will be removed and replaced by bone to become the epiphyseal line.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q
  1. Types of fractures
A

Closed (simple)

No penetration of skin

Open

Penetration of skin

Greenstick

Incomplete split of bone

Comminuted

Fractured into several pieces

Impacted

Broken, then compressed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q
  1. Outline the process of bone repair
A

Bone repair
• Day 1-5: Haematoma formation
• Ruptured blood vessels form a haematoma
• Haematoma clots and forms frame for subsequent healing
Macrophages, monocytes and lymphocytes remove damaged tissue and stimulate healing
• Day 5-11: Fibrocartilaginous callus formation
• Chondroblasts lay down fibrocartilaginous connection between fractured ends
• Day 11-28 Bony callus formation:
• Osteoblasts lay down bone tissue to form immature bone tissue
• Day 18-months/years Remodelling:
• Conversion of immature bone tissue to mature bone tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q
  1. How does bone get longer and wider?
A

Longitudinal growth - increase in length
Appositional growth - increase in width

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q
  1. How is bone remodelled?
A
  • Modelling occurs mainly during a bone’s growth
  • In adult life, bone undergoes remodelling
  • Resorption of old or damaged bone takes place on the same surface where osteoblasts lay new bone to replace that which is resorbed
  • Primarily triggered by injury or exercise
  • 5-10% of bone remodelled as a normal part of maintaining healthy bone
  • During the process of remodelling, woven bone is progressively replaced by lamellar bone
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How does cartilage become bone?

A

Cartilage grows and solidifies with the matrix. This results in death of chondrocytes, creating cavities through which blood vessels can pass through and bring osteoblasts> osteoblasts create bone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the 2 main divisions of the skeletal system (2)

A

Axial and appendicular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the function of the axial skeleton? (2)

A

central/longitudinal axis. Protects organs and spinal cord. Point of muscle attachment as well

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the function of the appendicular skeleton? (2)

A

limbs & their attachment pts e.g. the collarbone, pelvis. Movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the 5 different types of bone? (5)

A

Long, flat, carpal, sesamoid, irregular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Describe long bone (2) - quick outline

A

diaphysis
epiphysis
medullary cavity
RBM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q
  1. Outline the 4 main parts of long bone (4)
A

ans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q
  1. What is the form and function of the 4 main parts of long bone? (8)
A

ans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q
  1. What are the 3 types of bone cells, and their functions (6)
A

ans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q
  1. Where do osteoblasts come from? (2)
A

mesenchymal stem cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q
  1. Where do osteocytes come from? (2)
A

ans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q
  1. Where do osteoclasts come from? (2)
A

ans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are the components of the axial skeleton? (5)

A

facial bones, cranium, vertebrae, sternum, ribs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Name the parts of the appendicular skeleton (14)

A

scapula, clavicle, humerus, ulna, radius, carpals, metacarpals, phalanges, tarsals, metatarsals, pelvis, femur, tibia, fibula

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q
  1. Name the different types of bone depressions/cavities and their form/function (6)
A

Meatus, fossa, foramen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q
  1. What happens if there isn’t enough collagen in bone? (1)
A

It becomes very brittle - see osteogenesis imperfecta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q
  1. What happens if there isn’t enough mineral in bone? (1)
A

Bone will be floppy, like cartilage. Won’t maintain shape.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What colour is bone marrow in adulthood? Why? (2)

A

Yellow - it contains fat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q
  1. How do collagen fibres respond to a bone being stretched?
A

Longitudinal stretch in response to tensile stress
Transverse stretch in response to compression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q
  1. Which hormones control calcium homeostasis?
A

Parathyroid hormone and calcitonin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q
  1. How is cortical bone remodelled?
A
  • Osteoclasts form a cutting cone and tunnel through the bone forming a tunnel
  • Blood vessels advance with the osteoclasts. Osteoblasts then form and lay concentric layers of bone matrix until the tunnel is almost completely filled
  • This gives rise to Haversian systems seen in cross section as circular structures surrounding blood vessels with bone formed in concentric lamellae
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q
  1. Do mesenchymal stem cells only become osteoblasts?
A

No, they can become other kind of cells, including chondroblasts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q
  1. What causes the deterioration of bone in osteoporosis?
A

Reduction in calcium density - from low levels of vit D, poor diet, poor Ca absorption, smoking, etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q
  1. Why does an adult reach a steady height at 25? Do their bones become static?
A

ans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q
  1. Research how different fractures are repaired
A

ans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q
  1. Research: what happens with a lack of osteoblasts/clasts/cytes? - osteoporosis
A

Lack of blasts - bones are not built back - osteoporosis
Clasts - Bone overgrows
Cytes - Calcium not maintained

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q
  1. What would happen if cartilage doesn’t become bone?
A

ans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q
  1. How do we know about the structure of bones?
A

Xray, autopsies, analysis of bone fragments, mass spectrometry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q
  1. Where do osteoblasts and osteoclasts live before they’re needed?
A

Osteoblasts - mesenchymal stem cells in periosteum
Osteoclasts - in red bone marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q
  1. Outline the process of intramembranous ossification, from end to beginning
A

thin layer of cortical bone< periosteum< MSCs + collagen < non-mineralised portion of bone becomes spongy < extra MSCs become osteoblasts < osteocytes made from mature osteoblasts < deposit Ca < osteoid secreted < MSCs to osteo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q
  1. Outline the process of endochondral ossification from end to beginning
A

Ends at long bone < formation of articular cartilage and spongy bone < formation of secondary ossification centre < medullary cavity created in diaphysis < primary ossification centre made(osteoblast action) < hyaline cartilage model

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is appositional growth?

A

Increase in diameter of diaphysis:

  • Osteoclasts resorb old bone that lines the medullary cavity
  • Osteoblasts produce new bone tissue beneath the periosteum (intramembranous ossification)
  • Results in an increased diameter of both diaphysis and medullary cavity
  • This process is called modelling
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q
  1. Outline these anatomical directions: medial v lateral, distal v proximal, anterior v posterior, superior v inferior
A

ans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q
  1. Name and describe the 3 different body planes
A

Sagittal, transverse, coronal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q
  1. What do joints/articulations do?
A
  • Also called articulations, where 2 bones meet
  • Structure determines direction and distance of movement
    Joints hold bones together and give mobility
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q
  1. Compare synathroses/diarthroses/amphiarthroses
A

Synarthoses - fibrous joints - most stable, least movement - fissures of the cranial bones
Diarthroses - synovial joints - least stable, most movement - shoulder
Amphiarthroses - cartilaginous joints - pubic symphysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q
  1. Compare monoaxial/biaxial/triaxial
A

Mono - 1 plane of movement
Bi - 2 planes of movement
Tri - 3 planes of movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q
  1. Which joint types are monoaxial?
A

Pivot, hinge, gliding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q
  1. Which joint types are biaxial?
A

Saddle, ellipsoid/condyloid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q
  1. Which joint types are triaxial?
A

Ball and socket

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q
  1. Compare condyloid/ellipsoid and “ball and socket” joints
A

Sockets of ellipsoid has an oval shape, provide more restriction of movement, lose 1 plane of movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q
  1. Describe gliding joint movement
A

Both bones are flat, bones glide past one another, carpal bones of the wrist. Surrounding ligaments prevent rotation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q
  1. Describe angular joint movement
A

change of angle - flexion and extension. Flexion = decreased angle. Abduct (away), adduct(towards)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q
  1. Describe rotational joint movement
A

Turning movement, occurs in 1 plane only e.g. rotation of head is in transverse plane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q
  1. Outline some special joint movements
A

○ Supination vs pronation: You need to face your hands up to hold a bowl of soup
○ PRU/SUR - prone radius over ulna; supine ulna over radius
○ Dorsiflexion - foot is flat, toes are curling up
○ Plantar flexion - pointing your toes (like in dancing!)
○ Opposition - touching your fingertip with your thumb of the same hand
Eversion - opposite of inversion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q
  1. Outline the main features of synovial joints
A

Fibrous joint capsule - contains outer fibrous membrane and inner synovial membrane
Synovial membrane
Articular cartilages - reduces friction, is viscoelastic. Has smooth surfaces
Joint cavity with synovial fluid - - Synovial fluid secreted by synovial membrane, reduces friction b/w articular cartilage, shock absorption, lubrication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q
  1. List some accessory structures for joints
A

○ Other cartilages -e.g. menisci - articular disc which holds the bone in place
○ Fat pads - superficial to the joint capsules, shock absorption, protective, superficial
○ Ligaments - bone to bone connections, joint support and strength. Provide stability by restricting movement
○ Tendons - bone to muscle connections
Bursae - pockets of synovial fluid, provide increased cushioning between tendons/ligaments and bone. Bursitis is swelling/inflammation of the bursa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q
  1. What parts can help keep synovial joints stable?
A

○ Other cartilages -e.g. menisci - articular disc which holds the bone in place
○ Fat pads - superficial to the joint capsules, shock absorption, protective, superficial
○ Ligaments - bone to bone connections, joint support and strength. Provide stability by restricting movement
○ Tendons - bone to muscle connections
○ Bursae - pockets of synovial fluid, provide increased cushioning between tendons/ligaments and bone. Bursitis is swelling/inflammation of the bursa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q
  1. What are the 6 types of synovial joints?
A

Pivot, hinge, condyloid, saddle, ball-and-socket, gliding/plane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q
  1. Outline how each type of synovial joint works.
A

Gliding - Both bones are flat, bones glide past one another, carpal bones of the wrist. Surrounding ligaments prevent rotation
Hinge - Monoaxial, allows for flexion and extension. U-shaped structure on joint prevents rotation and, adduction/abduction. Includes the elbow
Pivot - Monoaxial - can only rotate. Ring-like structure prevents flexion/extension. Radius and ulna
Condyloid - Similar to ball and socket. Both the ball and socket have oval shape, which provides more restriction compared to round shape.
Saddle - Rotation limited by bone structure. The thumb. . Made of 2 bones which have both convex and concave structures
Ball-and-socket - Triaxial, hip and shoulder joint. Hip in deeper socket c.f. shoulder, hence hip has less range of movement - stability increased by ligaments, not by joint shape (compare to ellipsoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q
  1. What is a rheumatic disease?
A

Rheumatic diseases are autoimmune and inflammatory diseases that cause your immune system to attack your joints, muscles, bones and organs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q
  1. What is arthritis?
A

Inflammation of joints

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q
  1. Describe 3 types of arthritis and their features/causes
A

Osteoarthritis - - caused by wear and tear of joint surfaces, genetic factors affecting collagen formation
- As it is primarily an age/overuse issue, tends to be found in people over 60

Rheumatoid arthritis - - inflammatory condition caused by allergy/autoimmune disease, which then damages the synovial membrane (opposite mechanism of action c.f. osteoarthritis)
Gouty arthritis - uric acids form within synovial fluid, due to metabolic disorders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q
  1. What are the risk factors for osteoarthritis?
A

caused by wear and tear of joint surfaces, genetic factors affecting collagen formation
- As it is primarily an age/overuse issue, tends to be found in people over 60

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q
  1. What are the stages of articular cartilage damage?
A

Stage 1: Roughening of cartilage + black spots
Stage 2: Fissuring - striations in articular cartilage
Stage 3: Full thickness defect - holes in cartilage
Stage 4: Joint surface has collapsed - bone becomes exposed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q
  1. How is a joint replacement implanted?
A
  • Scrape off damaged bone/cartilage - insert an implant that mimics shape and function
    Rehabilitation to train muscles to work with the implant
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q
  1. Why is the demand for joint replacements increasing?
A

ageing population, cheaper implants, easy to implant, sports, more people

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q
  1. Why does bone loss occur around joint replacements? And what is one strategy to mitigate this?
A
  • Bone loss occurs around implant
    ○ Inflammatory response to wear particle - implant creates wear debris, immune response is to phagocytose the debris and release cytokines > more osteoclasts > bone resorption
    Stress shielding - the implant reduces shock received by bone, no feedback received to prompt increase in bone density. This has been addressed by creating porous implants which still allow some shock to be absorbed by the bone, encouraging it to maintain density
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q
  1. What are joint replacements made up of?
A

ans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q
  1. How can a bone fracture impact joint movements?
A

ans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q
  1. Compare osteoporosis v osteoarthritis
A

Osteoporosis - reduction in bone density due to imbalance between osteoclasts and osteoblasts
Osteoarthritis - inflammation of joints, wearing down of articular cartilage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q
  1. What are the biomechanical functions of cartilage - adv starts here
A
  • viscoelasticity - viscous and elastic - properties of both fluids and solids. Responds to stress differently depending on the speed it is applied.
    • Creep & stress relaxation
  • Creep increases strain under constant stress - time dependent plastic deformation
  • SR decreases stress under constant strain - decrease in compressive force over time
    Shear resistance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q
  1. Outline the structure of articular cartilage
A
  • Superficial zone - towards the surface, fibres are arranged parallel to the surface. Allows shear resistance, shear stress on bone.
  • Middle zone - Anatomical/functional bridge between layers
  • Deep zone - Fibres are arranged perpendicular to the surface, anchored to cancellous bone, anchors cartilage in place
    Tidemark - border between cartilage and calcified zone
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q
  1. What is the microenvironment of articular cartilage made up of?
A

SOLID PHASE:

Collagen type II matrix, high (10%) proteoglycan content (protein & carb)
• Collagen + PG mix = solid phase
• PGs have negative charged areas along structure

• Solid phase - stiff, resistant to deformation

LIQUID PHASE
- Negative charge of PG draws in Na+ ions, creates osmotic gradient
- Increases water flow, resulting in swelling. Produces liquid phase
• Liquid phase - allows for slow “inelastic” deformation (or anelastic?)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q
  1. How does cartilage respond to stress and strain?
A

Constant stress - liquid phase, deformation/creep

Constant deformation - gradually relax - results in stress deformation response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q
  1. Where are the intervertebral joints found? What kind of joints are they?
A
  • All found between C2 and L5
  • They are all facet/gliding joints
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q
  1. What is an alternate name for the IV discs?
A

Intervertebral symphyses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q
  1. Which ligaments and muscles are connected to the spine?
A
  • Interspinous/supraspinous ligament - linked to spinous process
  • Erector spinae and rectus abdominus - muscle groups which hold spine in place
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q
  1. What are the articulating pts of the vertebrae called?
A

Each joint has a inferior and superior articular process - inferior is on the top of a vertebrae, superior process is on the bottom of a vertebrae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q
  1. What are the IV discs made up of, and how are they structured?
A

• Discs are sandwiched between vertebrae, pads of fibrocartilage
- Annulus fibrous = fibrous
Nucleus pulposus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q
  1. How do the IV discs respond to body movement?
A

During usual body movement - nucleus shifts, disc shape conforms to motion

  • he annulus enhances the spine’s rotational stability and helps to resist compressive stress.’
  • Together with the annulus fibrosis, the nucleus pulposus transmits stress and weight from vertebra to vertebra
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q
  1. Compare slipped disc vs herniated disc
A
  • Slipped disc - part of disc bulges out, no leakage of nucleus
  • Herniated - nucleus has moved through annulus fibrosus, is leaking out > more painful
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q
  1. Which bones create the glenohumeral joint?
A

Scapula (glenoid cavity) + humerus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q
  1. Is the shoulder joint stable?
A

ans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q
  1. Which muscles hold the shoulder joint?
A

The most important shoulder muscles are the four rotator cuff muscles - the subscapularis, supraspinatus, infraspinatus and teres minor muscles - which connect the scapula to the humerus and provide support for the glenohumeral joint.

Of note -
The pectoralis major, pectoralis minor, latissimus dorsi, teres major and deltoid connect to the proximal end of the humerus and anchor it to the body.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q
  1. Which bones are part of the knee joint?
A

Femur, tibia, patella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q
  1. What type of joint is the knee joint?
A

ans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q
  1. How are the menisci attached to the knee, what is their form and function?
A

Menisci are attached to the tibia not the femur, cup-shaped fibrocartilages (medial & lateral). Act as shock absorbers, stabilise the knee

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q
  1. Where would you find the cruciate ligament?
A

Cruciate ligaments are behind patella - include ACL and PCL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q
  1. Which muscles hold the knee together?
A

Knees held together by quads (anterior) and hamstrings(posterior)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q
  1. What is the impact of a torn meniscus?
    What is the function of the patella?
A

During some activities — especially contact sports — the force and degree of twisting your knee can tear some of the wedge-shaped cartilage that provides cushioning between femur and tibia. This cartilage is your meniscus. Each of your knees has two meniscus wedges

Pain in the knee joint that comes and goes and gets worse when putting pressure on the joint

Swelling and stiffness

The feeling that your knee is giving way, locking, or catching when you bend it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q
  1. Gain a basic understanding of how skeletal muscles work together with the skeletal system to create movement
A

ans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q
  1. Outline cellular and tissue structure of skeletal muscles
A

Each muscle belly made up of fascicle bundles, covered by the epimysium

Fascicle - made up of bundles of muscle fibres and surrounded by the perimysium

Muscle fibre - made up of bundles of myofibrils and surrounded by endomysium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q
  1. Define a motor unit and its importance in muscle contraction?
A

ans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q
  1. What do these prefixes/suffixes mean: ad, ab, sub, ductor, anti, epi, apo, longissimus, longus, brevus, maximus, medius, minimus, recture, multi, uni, bi/di, tri, quad
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q
  1. Describe various patterns of fascicle arrangement and how these may impact muscle function
A

arallel - parallel to longitudinal axis of muscle - can contract at greater distance, more movement, less fascicles per unit SA

Fusiform - similar to parallel, has muscle belly

Unipennate - 1 angle, can fit in more fascicles, more muscle strength

Bipennate - Fascicles arranged like a feather, at an angle to longitudinal axis, 2 angles

Multipennate - several angles of arrangement

Convergent - fascicle converge onto a tendon. Pt of convergence = high tension/force

circular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q
  1. Explain how muscles, bones and joints function together as lever systems and the benefits and drawbacks of each type
A

Lever system in the body

Fulcrum - the joint

Bone - lever

Resistance - weight

Effort - muscle contraction

Type 1 - fulcrum b/w load and effort

2 - load in middle, has a mechanical advantage

3 - effort in the middle, has ROM advantage. Little effort needed to move resistance around

Mech advantage = force arm/resistance arm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q
  1. State the process by which a nerve impulse leads to muscle contraction
A

ans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q
  1. Describe the principles which govern tension production by muscle
A

ans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q
  1. Outline the cross-bridge cycle
A

Cross-bridge cycle

Cross-bridge formation - ADP+Pi is already bound to myosin>myosin binds to actin >Pi released

Myosin head pivoting - this generates the power stroke, shifting the actin forward > ADP released, myosin in rigor

Cross-bridge detachment - new ATP binds, resulting in the myosin detaching from actin

Myosin reactivation - ATP is hydrolysed >myosin returns to cocked position + ADP/Pi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q
  1. Which neurotransmitter is heavily involved in muscle contraction?
A

Acetylcholine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q
  1. When is ATP hydrolysed during muscle contraction?
A

ATP is hydrolysed at the end of the cross-bridge cycle, allowing the myosin to move to a cocked position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q
  1. What is the function of the sarcolemma?
A

Sarcolemma perform an important role in the muscle contraction process - see also types of muscle contractions. When the Muscle Action Potential (which is a form of electrical “instruction”) travels along the sarcolemma of muscle fibres, then into the transverse tubules, calcium ions (Ca2+) are released into the sarcoplasm.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q
  1. What is the function of the sarcoplasmic reticulum?
A

SR stores and releases Ca2+ needed for contraction at terminal cisternae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q
  1. Outline the structure of a sarcomere
A
  • Myofibrils have sarcomeres - main contracting unit of the muscle
  • Region from z-disc to z-disc = 1 sarcomere
    ○ Contains thick and thin filaments - thick= myosin, thin = actin
    ○ Actin filaments are oriented towards the ends of z-discs (creates an I-band across sarcomeres)
    ○ Myosin filaments are oriented towards the middle of z-discs (creates an A band in centre of sarcomere, combines with actin here)
    ○ M line - central point of sarcomere, anchor pt for myosin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q
  1. What needs to happen to allow myosin to bind to actin?
A

ans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q
  1. What would happen to muscle contraction if Ca2+ was inhibited?
A

ans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q
  1. Explain the energy systems involved in producing the ATP required for muscle contraction, how muscle fatigue occurs, and how it recovers
A

ans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q
  1. Identify the three types of muscle fibre and how they may differ from each other
A

Type I - slow - weaker, more resistant to fatigue
Type IIa - fast - stronger, less resistant to fatigue
Type IIb - fast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q
  1. ADVANCED: Differentiate between the terms isometric, isotonic, concentric, eccentric as is relates to muscle contraction
A

Isometric - muscle maintains same length, changing tension, i.e. voluntarily contracting a muscle

Isotonic - same tension, change in length

Concentric - muscle shortening

Eccentric - muscle lengthening

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q
  1. Understand the reflexes that originate, and end, in skeletal muscle: the stretch reflex and golgi tendon reflex
A

ans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q
  1. Compare the functions of stretch reflex to golgi tendon reflex
A

Stretch reflex : Spindles are sensitive to change of length and rate of change of length > signals muscle (extrafusal fibres?) to contract in response

Golgi reflex:
- Receptive to muscle tension: increase in tension in tendon (caused by muscle contraction/shortening) > sends signal to spinal cord to inhibit contraction > motor neuron inhibited > reduce muscle contraction to reduce shortening

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q
  1. Describe some diseases and conditions associated with the muscular system: paralysis, cramp, strain, MD
A

Cramps

    • localised, continued, painful, involuntary contraction of muscle
  • No confirmed cause
  • Theories - dehydration/electrolyte imbalance, peripheral fatigue of neurological origin (which could explain why stretching relieves cramps)
  • Golgi tendon reflex not working? Acetylcholine not being broken down?

Muscle strain

  • Tear of muscle or tendon due to over-extension
  • Spindle not working fast enough
  • Golgi - no relaxation happens (resulting in tendon tear)

Paralysis

  • a nervous system issue
  • Damage to spinal cord
  • Pt of damage - every pt downstream is affected

Muscular dystrophy
- Causes muscles to atrophy
Duchenne MD - x-linked disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q
  1. Why does stretching relieve a cramp?
A

ans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q
  1. How does the P-Cr system work?
A

Steps of the ATP-PC system:

  1. Initially ATP stored in the myosin cross-bridges (microscopic contractile parts of muscle) is broken down to release energy for muscle contraction. This leaves the by-products of ATP breakdown: adenosine diphosphate (ADP) and one single phosphate (Pi) all on its own.
  2. Phosphocreatine (PC) is then broken down by the enzyme creatine kinase into Creatine and Pi
  3. The energy released in the breakdown of PC allows ADP and Pi to rejoin forming more ATP. This newly formed ATP can now be broken down to release energy to fuel activity.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q
  1. Outline glycolysis
A

ans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q
  1. Outline aerobic respiration
A

ans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q
  1. Why does muscle fatigue happen?
A

ans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

How does muscle recover from fatigue

A
  • Time required after exertion for muscles to return to normal
  • Oxygen becomes available
  • Mitochondrial activity resume
  • Oxygen debt: after exercise - the body needs more oxygen than usual to normalise metabolic activities, results in heavy breathing, also called post-exercise oxygen consumption
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q
  1. Outline the major divisions and components of the nervous system
A

ans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q
  1. Explain the general structure and function of neurons
A

ans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q
  1. Define a ”synapse” and state how neurotransmitters are involved in this region
A

ans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q
  1. Differentiate between neuroglia of the central and peripheral nervous systems and highlight their functions
A

ans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q
  1. Outline the structure of a synapse
A
  • Pre-synaptic neuron - has the synpatic terminal an expanded area at end of axon w/ neurotransmitters
  • Post-synaptic neuron - has receptors to receive the neurotransmitters
  • Synaptic cleft - gap between neurons
  • Definition of a synapse: “the site of transmission of electric nerve impulses between two nerve cells (neurons) or between a neuron and a gland or muscle cell (effector)”
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q
  1. What are neurotransmitters, and how do they work?
A

•Are chemical messengers

released at presynaptic membrane, affect receptors of postsynaptic membrane

  • Are broken down by enzymes
  • Are reassembled at synaptic terminal/re-uptake

Impulses can be chemical, but electrical is more common

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q
  1. When does neurotransmitter re-uptake happen?
A

ans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q
  1. What are the neuroglia in the CNS?
A

ans

137
Q
  1. What are the neuroglia in the PNS?
A

Satellite and Schwann cells

138
Q
  1. How are neurons different from neuroglia with respect to their function within the nervous system?
A

• Neuron - cells that send and receive signals
○ All comm, info processing, control functions
• Neuroglia (glial cells)
○ Support/protect neurons
○ Preserve physical and biochemical structure
More numerous than neurons

139
Q
  1. Which structure within a neuron receives nerve impulses?
A

ans

140
Q
  1. Neurons generally have only one axon. True or false?
A

ans

141
Q
  1. What is the function of a neurotransmitter at a synapse?
A

• •Are chemical messengers
released at presynaptic membrane, affect receptors of postsynaptic membrane

142
Q
  1. The myelin sheath of neurons within both the CNS and PNS are formed by the same cells. True or false?
A

False

  • the myelin sheath in the CNS is formed by olidodendrocytes
  • the myelin sheath in the PNS is formed by Schwann cells
143
Q
  1. Outline the structural and functional classifications of neurons
A

Structural - pseudouni, uni, bi, multipolar
Functional - sensory, motor, inter

144
Q
  1. Explain how the resting potential across the membrane of a neuron is maintained despite the existing electrochemical gradient
A

ans

145
Q
  1. Identify how a change in the resting potential could be triggered
A

ans

146
Q
  1. Outline the steps in the transmission of an action potential
A

ans

147
Q
  1. 5.Explain how a nerve impulse travels across a synapse, using cholinergic synapses as an example
A

ans

148
Q
  1. What is a transmembrane potential?
A

is the difference in electric potential between the interior and the exterior of a biological cell

149
Q
  1. How are K+ ions used in the nervous system?
A

K+ enters cell, which instigates a NA/K exchange across membrane - which results in electrical potential allowing for transfer of nerve impulses
K+ leaves cell - restores repolarisation, allows nerve impulse to progress

150
Q
  1. How are Na+ ions used in the nervous system?
A

ans

151
Q
  1. Outline the function of the Na+/K+ pump
A

ans

152
Q
  1. What are the 3 classes of gated channels?
A
  • Chemically (ligand)-gated
    ○ Opens in response to chemicals (eg.acetylcholine)
    ○ Found on neuron cell bodies and dendrites
  • Voltage-gated
    ○ Opens in response to changes in transmembrane potential
    ○ Excitable membrane such as axons, skeletal muscle sarcolemma, cardiac muscle
  • Mechanically-gated
    ○ Opens in response to membrane distortion
    Found in sensory receptors (touch, pressure, vibration)
153
Q
  1. What are chemical synapses?
A

ans

154
Q
  1. What are cholinergic synapses?
A

ans

155
Q
  1. What is meant by synaptic delay?
A

A synaptic delay of 0.2–0.5 msec occurs between arrival of action potential at synaptic terminal and effect on postsynaptic membrane

156
Q
  1. Compare the afferent and efferent divisions of the PNS
A

afferent division (sensory receptors to CNS), efferent division (CNS to muscle/gland)

157
Q
  1. What are the components of the CNS?
A

ans

158
Q
  1. The brain and spinal cord make up which part of the NS?
A

ans

159
Q
  1. Compare neurons and neuroglia
A

ans

160
Q
  1. What is the synaptic terminal?
A

ans

161
Q
  1. Compare pre and post synaptic neurons
A

• Pre-synaptic neuron - has the synpatic terminal an expanded area at end of axon w/ neurotransmitters
Post-synaptic neuron - has receptors to receive the neurotransmitters

162
Q
  1. Are neuroglia different to myelin sheath
A

ans

163
Q
  1. Outline the features of neurotransmitters
A

ans

164
Q
  1. Which neuroglia provides structural support to CNS neurons, and which one forms the myelin sheath?
A

ans

165
Q
  1. Which neuroglia provides internal support to PNS neurons, and which one forms the myelin sheath?
A

Internal support - Satellite cells

Myelin sheath - Schwann cells

166
Q
  1. Compare sensory. Motor, and inter- neurons
A

Sensory - receives sensory input, and relays to CNS
Interneuron - transfers signals between neurons
Motor - sends signals to muscles, stimulating contraction.

167
Q
  1. Which part of a neuron receives nerve signals?
A

Dendrites pick up signals, collect neurotransmitters, receive information

168
Q
  1. Which part of a neuron is the starting point for an action potential?
A

ans

169
Q
  1. What is a Node of Ranvier?
A

ans

170
Q
  1. What would happen if neurotransmitters for an excitatory nerve signal were not being re-uptaken?
A

ans

171
Q
  1. Do all neurons have a myelin sheath?
A

ans

172
Q
  1. What is a neuromuscular junction?
A

ans

173
Q
  1. Compare pre and post synaptic neurons
A

ans

174
Q
  1. What is the synaptic cleft?
A

ans

175
Q
  1. What are the 5 main membrane process in relation to transmembrane potential?
A

Resting potential
Graded potential
Action potential
Synaptic activity
Information processing

176
Q
  1. Which 3 qualities of plasma membranes assist with maintaining membrane potential?
A

ans

177
Q
  1. How does passive and active membrane diffusion occur?
A

ans

178
Q
  1. What would happen if there was too much Na+
    What would happen if there was too much K+
A

ans

179
Q

Why does bone marrow have fat?

A

ans

180
Q

What is osteopetrosis?

A

ans

181
Q

What is a fibrocartilaginous callus?

A

ans

182
Q

How is red bone marrow made?

A

ans

183
Q

Compare woven and lamellar bone

A

Woven bone:
Collagen fibres randomly oriented
•Formed during foetal development and during fracture repair
Remodelling:
•Removing old bone and adding new
•Woven bone is remodelled into lamellar bone
Lamellar bone:
•Mature bone in sheets called lamellae. Fibres are oriented in one direction in each layer, but in different directions in different layers for strength.

184
Q

What is the effect of synaptic delay on muscle response?

A

A synaptic delay of 0.2–0.5 msec occurs between arrival of action potential at synaptic terminal and effect on postsynaptic membrane •Fewer synapses mean faster response

185
Q

Describe the different structural forms of neurons

A

ans

186
Q

Why do chondrocytes die?

A

ans

187
Q

What is the role of Volkmann’s canals?

A

ans

188
Q

What are the events at a cholinergic synapse?

A

ans

189
Q
  1. Differentiate between the central and peripheral nervous systems
A

ans

190
Q
  1. Differentiate between the terms nerves, ganglia, nuclei, tracts, grey matter, white matter
A

ans

191
Q
  1. Understand the manner in which sensory receptors work
A

ans

192
Q
  1. Identify the six major parts of the brain and state how the complexity of their functions change
A

ans

193
Q
  1. Explain the location and function of the spinal cord
A

ANS

194
Q
  1. Interpret the various types of EEG waves
A

ans

195
Q
  1. What is an EEG? How do they work?
A

ans

196
Q
  1. Identify the location and function of important structures within the brain
A

ans

197
Q
  1. Compare the cerebral hemispheres and the cerebral cortex
A

ans

198
Q
  1. State the various ways in which the brain is supported and protected
A

ans

199
Q
  1. Identify the important structural components of the spinal cord and the surrounding protective structures
A

ans

200
Q
  1. Describe the structure and function of the somatic and autonomic nervous systems
A

ans

201
Q
  1. Compare sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the ANS
A

ans

202
Q
  1. Explain the physiology behind the withdrawal reflex
A

ans

203
Q
  1. What are the divisions of the PNS?
A

ans

204
Q
  1. Compare the SNS and the ANS
A

ans

205
Q
  1. What is the structure of a ganglia?
A

ans

206
Q
  1. Outline the grey/white matter structure in the spinal cord
A

ans

207
Q
  1. What are the 4 types of sensory receptors
A

ans

208
Q
  1. Outline the path of signal transmission for a sensory receptor
A

ans

209
Q
  1. .Name the 12 cranial nerves and identify their (approximate) locations
A

ans

210
Q
  1. Describe how spinal nerves innervate different parts of the body via plexuses
A

ans

211
Q
  1. What is a plexus
A

ans

212
Q
  1. What are the different plexuses in the body?
A

ans

213
Q
  1. Briefly explain how sympathetic and parasympathetic nerves move from their origin to their effectors
A
214
Q
  1. Identify some of the changes that in the nervous system during aging and state their consequences
A

ans

215
Q
  1. How does Parkinson’s Disease occur?
A

ans

216
Q
  1. How does arteriosclerosis occur?
A

ans

217
Q
  1. What is covered by the cervical plexus?
A

ans

218
Q
  1. What is covered by the brachial plexus?
A

ans

219
Q
  1. What is covered by the lumbar plexus?
A

ans

220
Q
  1. What is covered by the sacral plexus?
A

ans

221
Q
  1. Which nerves are involved with eyesight?
A

ans

222
Q
  1. Which nerves are involved with taste?
A

ans

223
Q
  1. Which nerves are involved with swallowing food?
A

ans

224
Q
  1. Which nerve controls rotational eye movement?
A

ans

225
Q
  1. Which nerve controls movement of shoulder and neck?
A

Spinal accessory nerve

226
Q
  1. Which nerve helps with speech?
A

ans

227
Q
  1. Which cranial nerve is linked to ANS functions?
A

ans

228
Q
  1. What is the function of the trigeminal nerve?
A

ans

229
Q
  1. Which nerve is important for balance?
A

ans

230
Q
  1. What is the function of the hippocampus?
A

ans

231
Q
  1. What is the function of the diencephalon?
A

ans

232
Q
  1. What are the different components of the brainstem?
A

ans

233
Q

Outline the process of bone growth at the epiphysis

A
234
Q
  1. Differentiate between the central and peripheral nervous systems
A

ans

235
Q
  1. Differentiate between the terms nerves, ganglia, nuclei, tracts, grey matter, white matter
A

ans

236
Q
  1. Understand the manner in which sensory receptors work
A

ans

237
Q
  1. Identify the six major parts of the brain and state how the complexity of their functions change
A

ans

238
Q
  1. Explain the location and function of the spinal cord
A

ans

239
Q
  1. What is neural integration?
A

ans

240
Q
  1. What are the different components of the brainstem?
A

ans

241
Q
  1. Outline the basic structural details and functions of cardiac muscle cell, cardiac tissue, and the heart
A

ans

242
Q
  1. Understand the general pattern of bloodflow through the heart, heart muscles, and the body.
A

ans

243
Q
  1. Identify the characteristic features of cardiac muscle tissue
A

ans

244
Q
  1. Explain in detail the anatomy of the heart chambers, associated valves and coronary circulation
A

ans

245
Q
  1. Describe the steps of the cardiac cycle
A

ans

246
Q
  1. Outline the anatomy and physiology of the cardiac conducting system
A

ans

247
Q
  1. Briefly explain the features of an ECG and heart sounds
A

ans

248
Q
  1. What are the features/characteristics of cardiac muscle tissue?
A

ans

249
Q
  1. What are intercalated discs?
A

Intercalated discs are complex structures that connect adjacent cardiac muscle cells. The three types of cell junction recognised as making up an intercalated disc are desmosomes, fascia adherens junctions, and adherens junctions.[1]

Fascia adherens are anchoring sites for actin, and connect to the closest sarcomere.[2]

Desmosomes prevent separation during contraction by binding intermediate filaments, anchoring the cell membrane to the intermediate filament network, joining the cells together. [1][2]

Gap junctions connect the cytoplasms of neighboring cells electrically allowing cardiac action potentials to spread between cardiac cells by permitting the passage of ions between cells, producing depolarization of the heart muscle.[2][1]

250
Q
  1. Where is the heart located?
A

Mediastinum

251
Q
  1. Outline the basic structure of the heart.
A

ans

252
Q
  1. Outline the structure of the heart walls
A

ans

253
Q
  1. What are some environmental factors affecting Hb
A

ans

254
Q
  1. What is a pulmonary function test?
A

ans

255
Q
  1. Outline the functions of basic heart structures
A

ans

256
Q
  1. What are the different types of blood vessels?
A

ans

257
Q
  1. What is alveolar ventilation?
A

ans

258
Q
  1. What is tidal volume?
A

ans

259
Q

How does blood flow through the heart?

A

ans

260
Q

Outline the detailed structure of the heart.

A

ans

261
Q

How do the L & R atria work?

A

ans

262
Q

How do the L& R ventricles work?

A

ans

263
Q

How to the heart valves work?

A

ans

264
Q

Outline the steps of the cardiac cycle

A

ans

265
Q

How does the cardiac conducting system work?

A

ans

266
Q

What is pre-potential?

A

ans

267
Q

What is the sinoatrial node?

A

ans

268
Q

What is the AV node?

A

ans

269
Q

What are the Purkinje fibres?

A

ans

270
Q

What is an ECG?

A

ans

271
Q

Are cardiocytes single or multi-nucleated?

A

ans

272
Q

What do gap junctions do?

A

ans

273
Q

What do desmosomes do?

A

ans

274
Q

What is the overall function of intercalated discs?

A

ans

275
Q

Where is the apex, and where is the base?

A

ans

276
Q

What are the primary veins of the heart, and where do they transfer blood?

A

ans

277
Q

What are the primary arteries of the heart, and where do they transfer blood?

A

ans

278
Q

Compare atria and ventricles.

A

ans

279
Q

Outline the different types of valves in the heart.

A

The volume of blood is always the same, the pressure is different

Bp closes valve cusps during ventricular contraction, prevents backflow to atria

Aortic valves - open when P ventricle is greater than P atrium

Semilunar valves - no muscular support, structure ensures that it is less likely to open when there is high resistance - includes pulmonary and aortic valves Prevent backflow from pulmonary trunk and aorta into ventricles

280
Q

What is the structure and the role of the pericardium?

A

ans

281
Q

What are the 3 layers of the heart wall? What does each layer do?

A

ans

282
Q

What is the pericardial cavity?

A

ans

283
Q

What are the 3 types of blood vessels?

A

Arteries,veins, capillaries

284
Q

What are the 2 blood flow circuits of the heart?

A

ans

285
Q

Outline the coronary circulation system.

A

-wastes from heart removed by coronary veins

Circulation starts near aorta - the coronary arteries (L& R)

Major branches of the coronary circulation system:

  • Anterior IV septum
  • Anterior descending artery
  • Great cardiac vein
  • Posterior interventricular septum
  • Posterior descending artery
  • Middle cardiac vein

Each group of 3 is bunched together

Coronary sinus - where deoxygenated blood enters back into the heart

286
Q

State the path that blood takes through each segment of the heart from the vena cava to the aorta

A

ans

287
Q

Compare CMT to SMT

A

ans

288
Q

Why is CMT considered automatic?

A

ans

289
Q

How does CMT prevent wave summation, and why?

A

ans

290
Q

Outline the Ca2+ feedback mechanism that allows for extended contraction.

A

ans

291
Q

What separates the L & R atria?

A

ans

292
Q

What is the fossa ovalis? Why is this not a problem for a fetus

A

ans

293
Q

What are auricles?

A

ans

294
Q

Compare bicuspid and tricuspid valves.

A

ans

295
Q

What is the structure of ventricles vs atria?

A

ans

296
Q

What is the papillary muslce?

A

ans

297
Q

Compare blood pressure between L & R ventricles

A

ans

298
Q

When do AV valves close?

A

ans

299
Q

When do semilunar valves close?

A

ans

300
Q

What is the function of coronary circulation?

A

ans

301
Q

What are the major branches of the coronary circulation system?

A

ans

302
Q

What is the role of pacemaker cells?

A

ans

303
Q

Which structures are involved in conducting the electrical impulse of a heart? And in what order?

A

ans

304
Q

What are the stages of an electrical impulse through the heart?

A

ans

305
Q

What can an ECG be used for?

A

ans

306
Q

Isolate the key parts of an ECG reading for a healthy heart. What does each part represent?

A

ans

307
Q

What are the different heart sounds that can be made? Which ones are healthy vs unhealthy?

A

ans

308
Q

Outline the general functions of the respiratory system

A

ans

309
Q

Explain the basic anatomy of the respiratory system

A

ans

310
Q

What are the structural components of the respiratory system?

A

ans

311
Q

What are the 2 regions of the respiratory system?

A

Upper respiratory tract - larynx

Lower RT - below larynx

312
Q

What is the respiratory tract made up of?

A

ans

313
Q

Outline the structure of the nasal cavity?

A

ans

314
Q

What happens to air when you inhale it?

A

ans

315
Q

What is the pharynx?

A

ans

316
Q

What is the larynx, what is it made up of?

A

ans

317
Q

How is sound produced in the throat?

A

ans

318
Q

Outline the structure of the trachea?

A

ans

319
Q

What is the structure of the bronchi?

A

ans

320
Q

What is the structure of the bronchioles?

A

ans

321
Q

What are the alveolar ducts and alveoli?

A

ans

322
Q

What is the role of surfactant in the alveoli?

A

ans

323
Q

Outline the structure of the lungs.

A

ans

324
Q

Identify the various types of epithelial tissue and link some of their functions to their distribution across the respiratory system

A

ans

325
Q

Differentiate between internal and external respiration, and identify the processes that are necessary for these to be carried out

A

ans

326
Q

Explain the mechanics of ventilation

A

ans

327
Q

Summarise how the control of ventilation occurs

A

ans

328
Q

Identify the various lung volumes and capacities, and note some of their applications in the clinical environment

A

ans

329
Q

Summarise how gas exchange occurs

A

ans

330
Q

Describe how oxygen and carbon dioxide is transported throughout the body

A

ans

331
Q

What is the respiratory defense system?

A

ans

332
Q

Outline the features of alveolar epithelium

A

ans

333
Q

What are the physical factors impacting ventilation?

A

ans

334
Q

What is the mechanism of ventilation?

A

ans

335
Q

What is the respiratory rate?

A

ans

336
Q

Provide an example of a 1st class lever in the human body

A

First class lever: Chin raise

Effort - neck muscles contracting

Fulcrum - atlas joint

Resistance - skull

Mech advantage changes dep on position of fulcrum

337
Q

Provide an example of a 2nd class lever in the human body

A

Second class lever: Calf raise/plantarflexion

Increased power

Effort - calf muscles lift body up

Fulcrum - joints at ball of foot

Load - Body weight

Limited ROM

338
Q

Provide an example of a 3rd class lever in the human body

A

Third class lever: Elbow flexion

Better ROM - good flexion of forearm

Mechanical disadvantage

2021 Sem2 (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions