BSS #1 Flashcards

1
Q

Describe Alternating Current (AC).

A

Varies from max (+) to max (-) in a regular manner (sine wave).

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2
Q

Describe Direct Current (DC).

A

Continuous electric current that travels in only one direction and has no significant variation in amplitude.

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3
Q

List the four purposes of the Automatic Direction Finding (ADF) system.

A

Bearings for Homing. Navigation. Letdown. Voice modulation for ATIS.

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4
Q

The NDB/ADF system works in what frequency band?

A

Medium Frequency (MF).

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5
Q

In the NDB/ADF system, list the location and type of receiver aerial.

A

Loop and sense aerial, located in the aircraft.

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6
Q

When the ADF is correctly tuned to an NDB, what does the ADF’s display show?

A

The needle points to the ground station (magnetically referenced).

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7
Q

List the errors associated with the NDB/ADF system.

A

Terrain effect. Coastal Refraction. Quadrantal errors. Transmission interference. Night Effect. Weather effect.

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8
Q

How are the errors of the NDB/ADF system minimised for users?

A

The useful range of each NDB, printed in ERSA, is limited to minimise the effects of errors.

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9
Q

List the advantages of the NDB/ADF system?

A

Simple ground equipment. Minimal site preparation. Inexpensive aircraft equipment. World wide standard/distribution. AM signal can provide voice channel - ATIS.

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10
Q

What is the purpose of Very High Frequency Omni-directional Radio Range (VOR)?

A

To provide radial information for homing, navigation, letdown and voice modulation ATIS.

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11
Q

What signals does the VOR ground station produce?

A

Omni-directional (FM reference signal) and Variable Phase Signal (AM rotating signal at 1800rpm)

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12
Q

What is the main propagation feature of the VOR signals?

A

Line of Sight

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13
Q

What are the advantages of the VOR over the NDB/ADF system?

A

Reduced susceptibility to atmospheric effects, including thunderstorms. Elimination of night effect as VHF signals are not reflected by the ionosphere.

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14
Q

What are the limitations of VOR?

A

Aircraft equipment error. Vertical Polarization error. Ground station error. Aggregate error. Side effects.

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15
Q

Describe the ‘Cone of Confusion’

A

Is a volume of space, usually approximately conical with its vertex at the antenna, that cannot be scanned by the antenna because of limitations of the antenna radiation pattern and mount.

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16
Q

What is the purpose of the DME system?

A

Displays a slant range from the ground station.

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17
Q

What is the purpose of the TACAN system?

A

Single instrument display of radial and distance from a ground or airborne station.

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18
Q

The TACAN work in what frequency band?

A

UHF.

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19
Q

Name the two main components of the DME system and their location.

A

Transponder is on the ground, and the interrogator is on the aircraft.

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20
Q

Describe the principle of operation of the DME system.

A

Aircraft interrogates the ground station by pulse pair. Ground station responds with a 50ms delay, where the time taken is directly proportional to slant range.

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21
Q

Describe the principle of operation of TACAN radial component.

A

One TACAN antenna gives an accurate one degree bearing, the other confirms the accuracy is within the 40 degree sector.

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22
Q

What are the limitations of the TACAN?

A

LoS. Cone of Confusion. 40 degree lock off, aircraft misinterpretation of the 15Hz reference signal. Co-channel interference, two stations on the same channel.

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23
Q

List the advantages of the TACAN.

A

Single instrument fix/easy to use. Accurate to +/- 0.5 degrees. Air to Air operations. Portable TACAN.

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24
Q

What frequency band does ILS operate on?

A

VHF/UHF

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25
Q

What is the purpose of the ILS?

A

Provides lateral and vertical guidance down to minima above a runway.

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26
Q

What is the principle of operation of the ILS?

A

Ground transmitters emit glideslope and localiser signals that define the approach path using the principle of lobe comparison. The marker beacons radiate vertically to provide range checks.

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27
Q

Which of the three possible marker beacons are used in Australia?

A

Outer Marker (OM) and Middle Marker (MM).

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28
Q

List the advantages of the ILS.

A

Approach down to touchdown zone. Pilot operated and interpreted. Simple avionics. More accurate than NDB, VOR, and TACAN.

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29
Q

List the limitations of the ILS.

A

Costly (precise site preparation). One per runway. Reflection interference and sidelobes. Only 40 paired channels available.

30
Q

What is the purpose of the Global Navigation Satellite System (GPS)?

A

Highly accurate, 3D position, velocity and time, provided in a wide area that is all weather.

31
Q

List the three segments of GPS.

A

Space. User. Control.

32
Q

Describe the theory of operation of the GPS.

A

Satellite transmits a signal, receiver calculates the range from a satellite by measuring the transit time of the signal, from stored almanac and geodetic information resolves range into earth position.

33
Q

In controlled airspace, even when GPS is still providing positional information; ATC must be advised if the Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) is lost for periods greater than what?

A

5 minutes.

34
Q

What is the Radar Altimeter (RADALT) used for?

A

Terrain Clearance. Navigation. Weapon Delivery. Helicopters (autonomous transition to hover)

35
Q

What are the two distinct types of RADALT?

A

Pulsed and Frequency Modulated Continuous Wave (FMCW)

36
Q

Define the Radar pulsed system principle.

A

Use the time difference between the transmitted and received pulses.

37
Q

State the advantage of a RADALT.

A

Height in AGL. Doesn’t suffer lag. Greater accuracy.

38
Q

State the disadvantages of a RADALT.

A

Two antennas (Tx and Rx). Constantly transmitting RF energy. Don’t have full coverage in roll (45º-60º). Range vs Accuracy. Surface limitations (I.e. the reflecting surface).

39
Q

How does a RADALT determine height above the ground?

A

Sends out a pulse, energy reflected back is directly proportional to distance.

40
Q

What are the properties of electromagnetic energy?

A

No supporting medium. Travels in straight lines. Wavelength, frequency and polarisation. Reflection, refraction, diffraction, interfered and Doppler shift. Travels at the speed of light.

41
Q

Define Wavelength.

A

One complete evolution of the waveform in both positive and negative halves.

42
Q

Define Frequency.

A

The rate at which cycles are completed in one second measured in Hertz.

43
Q

Define cycle.

A

One complete series of values of a wave form where further changes would be repetition to the same wave form.

44
Q

Define Phase Relationship.

A

The time relationship between two waveforms using electrical degrees.

45
Q

The dominant type of signal propagation for Low Frequency is?

A

Surface Wave.

46
Q

The dominant type of signal propagation for Very High Frequency (VHF) is?

A

Space Wave.

47
Q

The dominant type of signal propagation for High Frequency (HF) is what?

A

Sky Wave.

48
Q

List the regular changes to the Earth’s magnetic field.

A

Dirunal. Periodic. Annual.

49
Q

List the irregular changes to the Earth’s magnetic field.

A

Magnetic storms. Sun spot activity. Solar Flares.

50
Q

The Earth’s magnetic field can be resolved into 2 components, what are they?

A

Vertical and Horizontal.

51
Q

Define Angle of Dip.

A

The angle between the horizontal and the Earth’s magnetic force line.

52
Q

Variation is defined as what?

A

The angle between true and magnetic North.

53
Q

Lines on a map connecting places of equal variation are called?

A

Isogonal lines.

54
Q

Lines on a map connecting places of zero variation are called?

A

Agonic lines

55
Q

Describe the three functions of a compass.

A

To show the direction of magnetic North, or the magnetic meridian. To show the heading of the aircraft, relative to the magnetic meridian. To measure the bearing to distant objects.

56
Q

List the seven limitations of the Direct Indicating Compass.

A

Liquid swirl. Scale errors. Parallax error. Alignment error. Deviation. Turning errors. Acceleration errors.

57
Q

The principle of operation of the Direct Indicating Compass is what?

A

A free suspended magnet aligning with the Horizontal axis. (H)

58
Q

List the three methods of magnetism.

A

Induction. Stroking. Electromagnetic.

59
Q

Name the flight instrument that indicates direction of turn and slip or skid.

A

Turn and Slip indicator.

60
Q

What are the effects during a pitot blockage on an ASI and Altimeter?

A

For an ASI, during ascend it will overread, and during descent it will underread. The Alimeter will have no effect.

61
Q

What are the effects during a static blockage on an ASI and Altimeter?

A

On an ASI, during ascent it will underread and during descent, it will overread. On an Altimeter, it will stay fixed with the height at which the blockage occurred.

62
Q

What is the formula for calculating Mach number?

A

Mach = TAS ÷ local speed of sound.

63
Q

Define Equivalent Airspeed Speed (EAS).

A

EAS = Calibrated Airspeed corrected for compressibility error.

64
Q

Define Indicated Airspeed (IAS).

A

Is the actual instrument indication for some given flight condition.

65
Q

Define Callibrated Airspeed (CAS).

A

the IAS corrected for instrument and position errors.

66
Q

Define True Airspeed (TAS).

A

Is the actual speed of the aircraft relative to the air. It is found from EAS corrected for density error.

67
Q

List the two gyroscopic properties used in aircraft instruments.

A

Rigidity and Precession.

68
Q

List the instruments that use a displacement gyro.

A

Altitude Indicator. Altitude Direction Indicator.

69
Q

List the instrument that use a rate gyro.

A

Turn and Slip indicator.

70
Q

Define QNH, QFE and QNE in terms of pressure datums.

A

QNH - MSL pressure. QFE - Airfield level pressure. QNE - ISA sea level pressure at 1013hPa.

71
Q

Aircraft thermometers monitor the temperature of what?

A

Engines (ITT/TGT). Oil and Fuel temperature. Air Conditioning. Outside Air Temperature (OAT).