Cardiology Flashcards

1
Q

A 45 year-old man developed retrosternal chest pain during a board meeting. A raised blood pressure had been noted during a medical three years previously, but no treatment had been initiated. What is the most likely diagnosis on ECG?

A ) Anterior MI
B ) Anteroseptal MI
C ) Complete heart block
D ) Hyperkalemia
E ) Inferior MI
F ) Inferolateral MI
G ) Lateral MI
H ) Mobitz Type II AV block
I ) Pericarditis
J ) Supraventricular tachycardia (SVT)
K ) Ventricular tachycardia
L ) Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome

A

F ) Inferolateral MI

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2
Q

Which of the following conditions is associated with radio-radial delay?

A ) Aortic dissection
B ) Mitral regurgitation
C ) Spontaneous pneumothorax
D ) Tricuspid stenosis
E ) Ventricular septal defect

A

A ) Aortic dissection

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3
Q

Which of the following features is consistent with aortic stenosis?

  • A ) Begins after the isovolumetric contraction
  • B ) Often associated with a pistol shot pulse
  • C ) Often associated with AF
  • D ) Radiates to the axilla
A

Answer: Begins after the isovolumetric contraction

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4
Q

Which of the following is a cause of sinus bradycardia?

A ) Anaemia
B ) Beta-agonists
C ) Fever
D ) Raised intracranial pressure
E ) Thyrotoxicosis

A

D ) Raised intracranial pressure

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5
Q

Which valvular defect is almost exclusively caused by rheumatic heart disease?

A ) Aortic regurgitation
B ) Mitral regurgitation
C ) Mitral stenosis
D ) Tricuspid stenosis
E ) Ventricular septal defect

A

C ) Mitral stenosis

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6
Q

Atrial fibrillation that fails to self-terminate within 7 days is classed as:

A ) Lone AF
B ) Paroxysmal AF
C ) Permanent AF
D ) Persistent AF
E ) Subclinical AF

A

D ) Persistent AF

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7
Q

A 50-year-old woman presents to her GP with a 3-month history of pain in the right buttock. The pain is cramping in nature and only comes after a few minutes of walking. The pain radiates to the right thigh and stops when the patient stops walking. Which one of the following is the most likely explanation?

A ) L4/L5 disc prolapse
B ) OA of the right hip
C ) Spinal canal stenosis
D ) Stenosis of right common iliac artery
E ) Stenosis of the right superficial femoral artery

A

D ) Stenosis of right common iliac artery

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8
Q
A

Answer: Atropine

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9
Q

A ) First-degree AV block
B ) Inferior-posterior-lateral STEMI
C ) Isolated inferior STEMI
D ) Isolated lateral STEMI
E ) Left bundle branch block (LBBB)
F ) Pericarditis
G ) Premature ventricular contraction
H ) Right bundle branch block (RBBB)
I ) Second-degree AV block (Type I)
J ) Second-degree AV block (Type II)
K ) Third-degree AV block
L ) Ventricular tachycardia

A

F ) Pericarditis

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10
Q

How many classical stages of congestive heart failure exist?

A ) 1
B ) 2
C ) 3
D ) 4
E ) 5

A

D) 4

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11
Q

An 73-year-old man presents to ED with a 3-day history of shortness of breath on exertion. On examination you note an irregularly irregular pulse, and ECG confirms atrial fibrillation.

As part of your work-up, which scoring system will help you assess ischaemic stroke risk in this patient?

A ) CHADS-VASc score
B ) HAS-BLED score
C ) PERC rule
D ) qSOFA
E ) The Wells’ Score

A

A) CHADS-VASc score

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12
Q

A ) Atrial fibrillation
B ) Atrial flutter
C ) Bundle branch block (BBB)
D ) First-degree AV block
E ) Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia
F ) Pericarditis
G ) Second-degree AV block (Type I)
H ) Second-degree AV block (Type II)
I ) Sinus tachycardia
J ) Third-degree AV block

A

I ) Sinus tachycardia

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13
Q

A ) 1st degree AV block
B ) 2nd degree (2:1 type) AV Block
C ) 2nd degree (Mobitz 1) AV Block
D ) 3rd degree AV block with LBBB
E ) 3rd degree AV block with RBBB

A

E) 3rd degree AV block with RBBB

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14
Q

A ) Hypercalcaemia
B ) Hyperkalaemia
C ) Hypernatraemia
D ) Hypocalcaemia
E ) Hypokalaemia

A

B ) Hyperkalaemia

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15
Q

A ) Bundle branch block
B ) First-degree AV block
C ) Hyperkalemia
D ) Pacemaker
E ) Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia
F ) Third-degree AV block
G ) Wolf-Parkinson-White syndrome

A

D) Pacemaker

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16
Q

A two-year-old male presents with fixed splitting of the second heart sound and an ejection systolic murmur in the pulmonary area. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A ) Aortic regurgitation
B ) Aortic stenosis
C ) Atrial septal defect
D ) Mitral regurgitation
E ) Mitral stenosis
F ) Patent ductus arteriosus
G ) Pulmonary stenosis
H ) Tricuspid regurgitation
I ) Ventricular septal defect

A

C ) Atrial septal defect

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17
Q

Which valvular defect is associated with a high-pitched, decrescendo, blowing diastolic murmur?

A ) Aortic regurgitation
B ) Aortic stenosis
C ) Pulmonary stenosis
D ) Tricuspid regurgitation
E ) Ventricular septal defect

A

A ) Aortic regurgitation

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18
Q

T-wave inversion is associated with all of the following pathologies, EXCEPT:

A ) Hyperkalaemia
B ) Hypokalaemia
C ) Left bundle branch block (LBBB)
D ) Myocardial infarction
E ) Pulmonary embolism

A

A ) Hyperkalaemia

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19
Q
A

Answer: Neurocardiogenic syncope

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20
Q

A ) Hyperkalaemia
B ) Hypokalaemia
C ) Inferior myocardial ischaemia
D ) Prinzmetal angina
E ) Raised ICP

A

C ) Inferior myocardial ischaemia

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21
Q
A

Answer: Coronary artery spasm

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22
Q

Which of the following is NOT part of the clinical management of vasospastic (also known as Printzmetal, or variant) angina?

A ) Avoid beta blockers
B ) Avoid precipitating factors such as smoking, and take GTN PRN
C ) Calcium channel blockers are a first-line agent
D ) Coronary angiogram and/or ergometrine challenge as indicated
E ) Potassium channel antagonists

A

E ) Potassium channel antagonists

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23
Q

A ) Circumflex
B ) Left anterior descending
C ) Left coronary artery
D ) Posterior interventricular artery
E ) Right coronary artery

A

** E ) Right coronary artery**
There is ST elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. Most inferior STEMIs (~80%) are associated with occlusion of a dominant right coronary artery.

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24
Q
A

C) 3/6: Accompanied by a parasternal heave

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25
Q
A

Answer: Mitral regurgitation

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26
Q
A

Answer: Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome

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27
Q
A

Answer: Junctional rhythm

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28
Q
A

Answer: Previous MI

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29
Q
A

Answer: Low blood pressure, muffled heart sounds, raised JVP

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30
Q
A

Answer: Pulseless electrical activity

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31
Q

A ) Embolectomy
B ) Exercise programme
C ) Immediate vascular reconstruction
D ) Reassurance and simple analgesia
E ) Urgent vascular imaging

A

Answer: Urgent vascular imaging

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32
Q
A

Answer: Asystole

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33
Q
A

Answer: Aspirin

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34
Q

A ) 24 hour ECG monitoring
B ) BGL
C ) Coronary angiography
D ) Lipids
E ) TSH

A

Answer: TSH

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35
Q
A

Answer: ECG

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36
Q

Which one of the following is a side effect of beta-blockers?

A ) Reduce blood lipids
B ) Reduce sensitivity to hyperglycemia
C ) Tachycardia
D ) Tachypnea
E ) Vivid dreams

A

E ) Vivid dreams

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37
Q

A ) First-degree heart block
B ) Left bundle branch block
C ) Normal
D ) Sinus arrhythmia
E ) Wolff–Parkinson–White syndrome

A

Answer: Wolff–Parkinson–White syndrome

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38
Q
A

Answer: ACE Inhibitor
About 1-10% of patients will develop a dry, nonproductive paroxysmal cough on ACE-inhibitors.

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39
Q
A

Answer: Pericarditis

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40
Q
A

Answer: Beta-blocker

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41
Q
A

Answer: A third heart sound can be a sign of heart failure

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42
Q

A ) Beta-blockers are an ineffective treatment
B ) It can be caused by pneumonia
C ) It is often associated with hypothyroidism
D ) It is reversible with atropine
E ) It not a risk factor for stroke

A

Answer: It can be caused by pneumonia

This is atrial fibrillation. It can be idiopathic or precipitated by infection, stress, cardiovascular disease, electrolyte disturbance, and certain medications, amongst various other causes.

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43
Q
A

Answer: a cause of mitral regurgitation

44
Q
A

Answer: Third-degree AV block

45
Q

A ) Acute renal failure
B ) Drug induced
C ) High potassium in diet
D ) Hyperaldosteronism
E ) Sample haemolysis

A

Answer: Sample haemolysis

46
Q

Which of the following clinical features best distinguishes cardiac tamponade from early constrictive pericarditis?

A ) Hypotension
B ) Kussmaul’s sign
C ) Muffled heart sounds
D ) Pulsus paradoxus
E ) Raised JVP

A

Answer: Hypotension

47
Q
A

Answer: Third-degree AV block

48
Q
A

Answer: 300mg

49
Q

A ) Apixaban
B ) Aspirin
C ) Atorvastatin
D ) Clopidogrel
E ) Enalapril

A

Answer: Enalapril

50
Q
A

** Answer: Right ventricular strain**
Typical right ventricular strain pattern: Dominant R wave in V1. ST depression and T-wave inversion in V1-4 (plus lead III), in this case, due to right ventricular hypertrophy.

51
Q
A

Answer: 90 minutes

52
Q
A

Answer: Bisphosphonates

53
Q
A

Answer: Third-degree AV block

54
Q
A

Answer: Cardiac tamponade - Electrical alternans, tachycardia and low voltage in a person with a large pericardial effusion.

55
Q
A
56
Q
A

Answer: Atrial flutter

57
Q
A

Answer: Hyperkalaemia - Peaked T waves are usually the earliest sign of hyperkalaemia.

58
Q
A

Answer: Atrial flutter - Atrial flutter is a type of supraventricular tachycardia caused by a re-entry circuit within the right atrium.

59
Q
A

Answer: Complete heart block

60
Q
A

Answer: Pericarditis

61
Q
A

Answer: HOCM

62
Q
A

Answer: Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome

63
Q
A

Answer: LBBB

64
Q
A

Answer: Supraventricular tachycardia (SVT)

65
Q
A

Answer: Complete heart block

66
Q
A

Answer: Supraventricular tachycardia (SVT)

67
Q
A

Answer: Inferolateral MI

68
Q
A

Answer: Hyperkalaemia

69
Q
A

Answer: Complete heart block

70
Q
A

Answer: Pulmonary embolsim
Sinus tachycardia is the most common abnormality seen in the ECGs of pulmonary embolism patients. The SI QIII TIII pattern (deep S wave in lead I, Q wave in III, inverted T wave in III) is a “classic” finding that is neither sensitive nor specific for pulmonary embolism and found in only 20% of patients with PE.

71
Q
A

Answer: First degree heart block

72
Q
A

Answer: LBBB

73
Q
A

Answer: Inferior MI

74
Q
A

Answer: Subarachnoid haemorrhage

75
Q
A

Answer: Ventricular tachycardia

76
Q
A

Answer: Supraventricular tachycardia

77
Q
A

Answer: Ventricular tachycardia

78
Q
A

Answer: Atrial fibrillation

79
Q
A

Answer: Anterior MI

80
Q
A

Answer: RBBB

81
Q
A

Answer: Anterolateral MI

82
Q
A

Answer: RV infarction - There is ST elevation in V4R consistent with RV infarction.

83
Q
A

Answer: Supraventricular tachycardia (SVT)

84
Q
A

Answer: Hypothermia - Hypothermia may produce Osborn waves on ECG. The Osborn wave (J wave) is a positive deflection at the J point (negative in aVR and V1). It is usually most prominent in the precordial leads.

85
Q
A

Answer: Atrial fibrillation
This man had new-onset atrial fibrillation associated with congestive cardiac failure.
There are no p waves visible and the rhythm is irregularly irregular.

86
Q
A

Answer: Child-Pugh classification

87
Q
A

Answer: BNP
This patient is experiencing signs and symptoms of heart failure. An elevated BNP would support this diagnosis. Echocardiography is diagnostic.

88
Q
A

Answer: Phenoxybenzamine

89
Q
A

Answer: Ventricular arrhythmia - The proposed mechanism of sudden death is ventricular tachycardia secondary to ischaemia, and this typically occurs in the setting of extreme exertion.

90
Q
A

Answer: Atrioventricular (AV) node

91
Q
A

Answer: ABCD2

92
Q

A ) Amiodarone
B ) Atropine
C ) Commence CPR
D ) DC cardioversion
E ) Magnesium

A

Answer: Magnesium

93
Q
A

Answer: ACE inhibitors

94
Q
A

Answer: Spontaneous MI

95
Q
A

Answer: Angioplasty

96
Q
A

Answer: 10 seconds - Adenosine has a very short half-life of about 8-10 seconds. Patients who are given adenosine will experience unpleasant, but short-lived, side-effects.

97
Q
A

Answer: J-waves - J-waves (Osborn waves) are associated with hypothermia.

98
Q
A

Answer: Furosemide 80mg IV

99
Q
A

Answer: Hyperkalaemia

100
Q
A

Answer: Severe aortic stenosis

101
Q
A

Answer: Beta-blockers

102
Q
A

Answer: Calcium gluconate 10mL IV

103
Q
A

Answer: Right coronary artery (RCA)

104
Q

What type of abnormality is shown in this ECG?
A ) Atrial fibrillation
B ) Atrial flutter
C ) Bundle branch block (BBB)
D ) First-degree AV block
E ) Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia
F ) Pericarditis
G ) Second-degree AV block (Type I)
H ) Second-degree AV block (Type II)
I ) Sinus tachycardia
J ) Third-degree AV block

A

Answer: Sinus tachycardia

105
Q

Presentation: 30 minutes with palpitations, malaise, dyspnea, cold sweats and near syncope. No chest pain. What is the likely diagnosis?

A ) Atrial flutter with 1:1 conduction
B ) First-degree AV block
C ) Inferoposterior STEMI
D ) Left bundle branch block (LBBB)
E ) Normal sinus rhythm
F ) Old inferior MI
G ) Right bundle branch block (RBBB)
H ) Second-degree AV block (Type I)
I ) Second-degree AV block (Type II)
J ) SVT
K ) Third-degree AV block
L ) Ventricular tachycardia

A

Answer: Atrial flutter with 1:1 conduction

106
Q

Presentation: Unwell since yesterday, had some twitching in his left arm. Known LBBB. What is the likely diagnosis?
A ) Anterior STEMI
B ) Inferior STEMI
C ) Lateral STEMI
D ) Left bundle branch block (LBBB)
E ) Posterior STEMI
F ) Right bundle branch block (RBBB)
G ) Second-degree AV block (Type I)
H ) Second-degree AV block (Type II)
I ) Sinus bradycardia
J ) SVT
K ) Third-degree AV block
L ) None of the above

A

Answer: Left bundle branch block (LBBB)

107
Q

Presentation: This patient developed central chest pain radiating to the neck and left arm an hour ago. Associated nausea. What is the likely diagnosis?
A ) Isolated lateral STEMI
B ) Atrial fibrillation
C ) Atrial flutter
D ) First-degree AV block
E ) Inferior-posterior-lateral STEMI
F ) Isolated inferior STEMI
G ) Isolated posterior STEMI
H ) Left bundle branch block (LBBB)
I ) Right bundle branch block (RBBB)
J ) Second-degree AV block (Type I)
K ) Second-degree AV block (Type II)
L ) Third-degree AV block

A

Answer: Inferior-posterior-lateral STEMI