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The Cell > cell division, death, differentiation and embryonic development > Flashcards

cell division, death, differentiation and embryonic development Flashcards

1
Q

what are the engines of the cell cycle?

A

cyclin-dependent kinases (Cdk)

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2
Q

what does regulates CDK activity?

A

presence and absence of cyclin

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3
Q

what are the phases of the cell cycle (mitosis)?

A

G1, S, G2, M

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4
Q

in what phase the cell undergo checks for cell size and DNA damage?

A

End of G1

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5
Q

in what phase the cell undergo checks for damaged or unduplicated DNA or centrosomes?

A

During G2

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6
Q

in what phase the cell undergo checks for chromosome attachment to mitotic spindle?

A

End of M

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7
Q

where does Taxol work in the cell cycle?

A

M phase, blocking the mitotic spindle

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8
Q

where does etoposide work in the cell cycle?

A

Restriction point (R), inhibiting growth factor stimulation

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9
Q

where does 5-flourouracil work in the cell cycle?

A

S phase, blocking DNA replication

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10
Q

where does radiation work in the cell cycle?

A

S and G2 phases, damaging DNA and causes apoptosis

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11
Q

when do nucleosomes become supercoiled? and why?

A

prior to mitosis, supercoiled DNA is inaccessible to proteins involved in transcription and replication.

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12
Q

what is the location in which the mitotic spindle attach to the chromosome?

A

Kinetochore

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13
Q

In what phase the nucleus and centrosomes replicate?

A

S phase

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14
Q

in what phase the chromatin coils and supercoils to become chromosome and the centrosomes move to opposite poles?

A

prophase

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15
Q

in what phase nuclear envelop breaks down and kinetochore microtubules appear?

A

prometaphase

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16
Q

in what phase the centromeres become aligned at the cell equator?

A

metaphase

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17
Q

in what phase the paired sister chromatids separate?

A

anaphase

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18
Q

in what phase the nuclear envelope and nucleoli reform, chromatin decondenses and cytokinesis occurs?

A

telophase

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19
Q

what drives cytokinesis in animal cells?

A

Acto-myosin ring

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20
Q

what is the difference between apoptosis and necrosis?

A

apoptosis: programmed death
necrosis: death due to cell-damaging agents

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21
Q

what are the markers of necrosis?

A
  • cell swelling
  • cell lysis
  • inflammatory response
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22
Q

what are the markers of apoptosis?

A
  • cell condensation
  • membrane blebbing
  • nuclear shrinkage
  • chromatin condensation and fragmentation
  • formation of apoptotic bodies
    *does not cause an inflammatory response
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23
Q

who coined the term apoptosis?

A

Andrew Wyllie

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24
Q

what are the functions of apoptosis?

A
  • regulating cell numbers
  • development processes
  • removal of pathogenic cells
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25
Q

what type of pathogenic cells undergo apoptosis?

A
  • virus-infected cells
  • immune cells
  • cells with DNA damage
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26
Q

how many gene mutations found to affect apoptosis?

A

at least 14

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27
Q

what are the genes that cause apoptosis?

A
  • Ced-3 (caspase)
  • Ced-4 (Apaf 1)
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28
Q

what are the genes that prevent apoptosis?

A

Ced-9 (Bcl-2)

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29
Q

What are caspases?

A
  • A cysteine proteases enzyme (cleaves proteins)
  • present in the cytoplasm and mitochondria
  • Inhibited by IAP proteins
  • need to be cleaved to become active (after aspartic acid residue)
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30
Q

what are the different types of caspases?

A
  • initiator caspases (8, 9 and 10)
    • activated by pro-apoptotic stimuli
    • cleave and activate executor caspases
  • Executor caspases (3, 6 and 7)
    • cleave proteins including cytoskeletal and nuclear proteins
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31
Q

in which apoptosis pathway caspase 9 is activated?

A
  • intrinsic pathway
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32
Q

in which pathway caspases 8 and 10 are activated?

A
  • death receptor pathway
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33
Q

what is the role of mitochondria in apoptosis?

A

opening of pores in the mitochondria outer membrane triggers cytochrome C release and caspase activation.

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34
Q

How can Bcl-2 prevent apoptosis?

A

prevents the formation of pores in mitochondria’s outer membrane.

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35
Q

what are the precursor cells that differentiate to specialized cells?

A

stem cells

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36
Q

what are stem cells?

A
  • undifferentiated cells
  • Ability for quiescence to enter dormant state
  • capacity for self-renewal through asymmetric cell division
  • capacity to differentiate into mature cells (potency)
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37
Q

what is the cellular differentiation hierarchy?

A
  1. symmetric stem cell division
  2. asymmetric stem cell division
  3. progenitor cell division
  4. differentiation
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38
Q

the ability of a single cell to give rise to all the embryonic and extra-embryonic cell types refers to..

A

totipotency

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39
Q

the ability of a single cell to give rise to all of the cell types found in the complete adult organism refers to…

A

pluripotency

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40
Q

the ability of a single cell to give rise to multiple, but not all, cell types found in the complete adult organisms refers to…

A

multipotency

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41
Q

what is an example of a totipotent cell?

A

fertilized egg

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42
Q

what is an example of a pluripotent cell?

A

embryonic stem cells (ESCs)

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43
Q

what are the types of germ layers?

A
  • Ectoderm
  • Mesoderm
  • Endoderm
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44
Q

what is an example of multipotent cells?

A

somatic stem cells:
* hematopoietic SCs
* Neural SCs
* Mesenchymal SCs

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45
Q

what determines what genes are to be expressed in a cell?

A

transcription factors (master regulators) by inducing or suppressing transcription

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46
Q

when misexpressed, what can the master regulators do?

A

prespecify the fate of the cell or transdifferentiate mature cells.

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47
Q

can cell differentiate while undergoing cell division?

A

no, cell division must be shut down

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48
Q

what mechanisms determines cell fate?

A
  • cytoplasmic segregation (asymmetric cell division)
  • induction
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49
Q

what are the factors the play a role in the fate of the cell intracellularly called?

A

cytoplasmic determinants

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50
Q

what are the factors the play a role in the fate of the cell extracellularly called?

A

inducers

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51
Q

can mature plant cell be induced to dedifferentiate into a totipotent cell?

A

yes

52
Q

what organism is considered to be the closest unicellular relative to humans?

A

choanoflagellates

53
Q

did animals, plants and fungi have a single multicellularity evolution?

A

no, multicellularity of each type had an independent evolutionary path.

54
Q

what is the road to multicellularity?

A
  1. colony formation
    • cells stick together
  2. true multicellular organism
    • selective cell adhesion
    • cells have different properties
    • composed of genetically identical cells
55
Q

does mutation in somatic cells affect germ line?

A

no

56
Q

does mutation in germ cell affect germ line?

A

yes

57
Q

where does the cytoplasm in the zygote come from?

A

Egg

58
Q

where does the centrioles in the zygote came from?

A

sperm

59
Q

what is the name of the process of rapid cell division in the early embryonic development?

A

cleavage

60
Q

what is the difference between cleavage cycle and somatic cell cycles?

A

cleavage cycle doesn’t have G1 and G2 phases

61
Q

why doesn’t the size of the early embryonic dividing cells increase?

A

because they don’t have G1 phase

62
Q

cleavage results in the formation of the….

A

blastula

63
Q

how is cleavage in mammals different from other species?

A
  • occurs slowly
  • asynchronous
  • rotational
  • results in blastocyst
64
Q

what does the blastocyst consist of?

A
  • inner cell mass - form the embryo
  • trophoblast - placenta and umbilical cord
  • blastocyst cavity - factors for cellular differentiation
65
Q

what is gastrulation?

A

transformation of the the blastula to gastrula.

66
Q

what is organogenesis?

A

transformation of gastrula to fully-formed organism.

67
Q

what is the outer germ layer?

A

Ectoderm

68
Q

what is the intermediate germ layer?

A

Mesoderm

69
Q

what is the inner germ layer?

A

endoderm

70
Q

what will the ectoderm give rise to?

A

epidermal layer of the skin, the nervous systom

71
Q

what will the mesoderm give rise to?

A

muscles, bones, kidneys, blood, gonads, connective tissue

72
Q

what will the endoderm give rise to?

A

lining of the gut, liver and lungs

73
Q

what pole of the embryo will form the meso- and endoderm

A

vegetal pole

74
Q

what pole will form the ectoderm?

A

animal pole

75
Q

what is the name of the process when cells move inward in gastrulation?

A

involution

76
Q

………. describes the flattening and extension of cells that occurs on the outside of the blastula.

A

Epiboly

77
Q

……….. describes the intercalation of cells in the direction of movement that drives involution.

A

convergent extension

78
Q

how is the gray crescent formed?

A

rotation of the cortical cytoplasm after fertilization

79
Q

whose experiments proved that the gray crescent is crucial for gastrulation?

A

Hans Spemann

80
Q

what is the organiser in gastrulation?

A

the dorsal lip

81
Q

How is the organiser established?

A
  1. After fertilization, Dsh move to the dorsal side as the embryo rotate.
  2. Dsh inhibits GSK-3 (inhibition lead to maintaining B-catenin in the dorsal side and degradation in the ventral side)
  3. B-catenin is a transcription factor that regulates the activity of organiser genes.
82
Q

what is the first process of organogenesis?

A

neurulation

83
Q

what does the formation of somites induce?

A

body segmentation

84
Q

the three division of somites will form
1. upper: ……….
2. middle: ……..
3. lower: ………

A
  1. contribute to skin
  2. muscles
  3. cartilage of the vertebrates and ribs
85
Q

what are Hox genes?

A

group of genes that control the body plan of an embryo along the anterior-posterior axes.

86
Q

in what direction the Hox genes are expressed?

A

anterior to posterior

87
Q

what are the two meristems of plant zygote?

A

apical and basal daughter cells

88
Q

what are the three permanent tissue layers in plant?

A
  • Dermal
  • ground
  • vascular
89
Q

what is the name of the gene that has more than one allele?

A

polymorphic gene

90
Q

choose haploid or diploid:
1. gamete is …….
2. zygote is …….

A
  1. haploid
  2. diploid
91
Q

what is a monogenic condition?

A

disease caused by one gene

92
Q

law of independent assortment applies for genes on the same chromosome? (true/false)

A

false

93
Q

what are the non-Mendelian inheritance types?

A
  • multiple alleles
  • incomplete dominance
  • co-dominance
  • pleiotropic alleles
  • Epistasis
  • Polygenic traits
  • Incomplete penetrance
94
Q

what does the A allele of the ABO gene adds to the H antigen?

A

N-Acetylgalactosamine

95
Q

what does the B allele of the ABO gene adds to the H antigen?

A

Galactose

96
Q

what does ABO gene encodes?

A

an enzyme that adds sugars to the H antigen: glycosyltransferase.

97
Q

what is the Bombay blood phenotype?

A

no antigen on RBCs surface because of the hh FUT1 alleles that encodes for inactive enzyme that cannot adds fucose to the precursor

98
Q

what are the sources of genetic variation?

A
  • Mutation
  • Rcombination
99
Q

what causes mutation?

A
  • Spontaneous (internal effect)
  • induced (external effect)
100
Q

what are the types of molecular mutation?

A
  • point mutation: silent, missense, nonsense, frame-shift.
  • chromosomal mutation : deletion, duplication, inversion, insertion, translocation
101
Q

what type of mutation that doesn’t affect the encoded amino acid?

A

synonymous, silent, mutation

102
Q

what type of mutation that changes the amino acid encoded?

A

missense

103
Q

what type of mutation that changes the codon of the amino acid to a stop codon?

A

nonsense

104
Q

what type of mutation in which insertion or deletion of one or two bases will alter the reading frame of the entire sequence.

A

frame-shift

105
Q

loss of function mutation frequently shows (recessive/dominant) inheritance?

A

recessive

106
Q

gain of function mutation frequently shows (recessive/dominant) inheritance?

A

dominant

107
Q

what is the gene that induces testicular development?

A

SRY

108
Q

what it is the name of the syndrome that is a result of XX male?

A

De la Chapelle

109
Q

what is the name of the syndrome that is a result from the missing of the gene SRY in the Y chromosome?

A

Swyer stndrome

110
Q

what is the sex determining chromosome in:
1. mammals
2. Birds
3. African pigmy mice

A
  1. Y (male)
  2. W (female)
  3. Y (male) unless W is present
111
Q

what are the downsides of sexual reproduction?

A
  • maintenance of the molecular machinery for sexual reproduction.
  • need to find a mating partner.
  • decreased reproductive capacity
112
Q

what are the benefits of sexual reproduction?

A
  • high genetic variability aids evolution
  • brings together advantageous alleles
  • paired chromosomes allow deleterious mutations to be masked
113
Q

in what phase of meiosis the cross over occurs?

A

late prophase (prometaphase)

114
Q

does the DNA replicate pre-meiosis II?

A

no

115
Q

in what phase the secondary oocyte arrest?

A

metaphase II

116
Q

what is the name of the crossing over region?

A

Chiasma

117
Q

what causes the incompleteness of gene linkage on the same chromosome?

A

cross-over

118
Q

what indicates the recombination frequency?

A

distance between genes

119
Q

what is the unit of the distance between genes?

A

centimorgan

120
Q

what does hemizygous mean?

A

having one copy of a gene

121
Q

what is the result offspring of hemizygous recessive male + homozygous dominant female?

A

offspring showing the dominant phenotype

122
Q

what is the result offspring of hemizygous dominant male + homozygous recessive female?

A
  • male offspring showing the recessive phenotype
  • female offspring showing the dominant phenotype
123
Q

what is it called when there is an abnormal number of chromosomes in an organism?

A

aneuploidy

124
Q

what causes aneuploidy?

A

non-disjunction

125
Q

examples of autosomal chromosome aneuploidy…

A
  • Down syndrome (21)
  • Edward Syndrome (18)
  • Patau syndrome (13)
126
Q

examples of sex chromosome aneuploidy…

A
  • Klinefelter syndrome XXY
  • XYY
  • XXX
  • Turner syndrome XO

The Cell (5 decks)

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