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Physiology IIB (UofA) > Central and Autonomic Nervous Systems > Flashcards

Central and Autonomic Nervous Systems Flashcards

1
Q

What is the frontal lobe responsible for?

A

Consciousness

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2
Q

Parietal lobe regulates…

A

Movement and stimulus perception

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3
Q

The temporal lobe recognises what?

A

Speech (and memory)

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4
Q

Occipital lobe is responsible for visual perception. True or False?

A

True

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5
Q

The insula is responsible for…

A

Homeostasis and emotion

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6
Q

What activities does the left hemisphere dominate?

A
  • Spoken and written language
  • Numerical and scientific skills
  • Use and understanding of sign language
  • Reasoning
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7
Q

The right brain is dominant during what activities?

A
  • musical/artistic awareness
  • space and pattern recognition
  • recognition of faces and body language
  • generating mental images to compare spatial relationships
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8
Q

What does an afferent pathway refer to?

A

Sensory information being carried from tissues TO the brain

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9
Q

Efferent pathways refer to what?

A

Information flowing from brain to tissues (descending)

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10
Q

What do divergent and convergent mean?

A

Divergent = one neuron regulating multiple targets

Convergent = one neuron regulated by multiple targets

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11
Q

Activation of ligand-gated channels produce what kind of response?

A

Fast, localised

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12
Q

GPCRs produce fast and localised responses upon activation. True or false?

A

False.

Responses are relatively slower, smaller, longer in duration and widespread within the cell. This is often due to a signalling cascade that activates a second messenger to trigger a cellular response.

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13
Q

What neurotransmitters trigger an excitatory response (ie. cause cation flux through open channels - depolarisation Vm-)?

A

Glutamate and Ach

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14
Q

Which neurotransmitters cause hyperpolarisation and therefore and inhibitory cell response?

A

GABA and glycine

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15
Q

Most interneurons are excitatory. True or false?

A

False. They are usually inhibitory.

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16
Q

What do EPSP and IPSP stand for?

A

Excitatory (and inhibitory) post-synaptic potential

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17
Q

Why do excitatory fields have a zone of inhibition around them?

A

Because interneurons provide local negative control around stimulus which acts to enhance the signal when it reaches the brain.

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18
Q

Define homeostasis.

A

The ability to maintain a relatively constant internal environment (dynamic steady state).

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19
Q

Why are inhibitory interneurons so important?

A

Because they provide a means for switching between decision pathways.

For example:
Inhibitory-excitatory-inhibitory = motor neuron 1

Excitatory-inhibitory-excitatory = motor neuron 2

20
Q

What type of neuron regulates sleep-wake cycles and what neurotransmitters are used?

A

Thalamocortical neurons

GABA signalling (inhibitory)

21
Q

What is the GPCR signalling mechanism?

A
  • Receptor-stimuated G proteins bind GTP
  • G protein dissociates into active alpha and beta-gamma subunits that interact with downstream targets (effectors)
  • Returns to resting state when GTP -> GDP + Pi
  • separated subunits regulate signalling cascades
22
Q

Why are there multiple isoforms of each G protein subunit?

A

To create a vast array of combinations and therefore signalling mechanisms

23
Q

GPCRs are metabotripic. True or false?

A

True - they use energy (ligand-gated do not).

24
Q

ACh can be used in signalling via ligand-gated channels AND G-protein coupled receptors. True or false?

A

True.

Ligand-gated = nicotinic AChRs 
GPCRs = muscarinic AChRs
25
Q

Somatic motor neurons contain pre and post ganglionic fibres which meet in the autonomic ganglion. True or false?

A

False! This occurs in autonomic motor neurons only.

Somatic motor neurons go straight to skeletal muscle.

26
Q

During development, where and when do autonomic motor neurons form?

A

At approx. week 3 of gestation.

Neural crest cells give rise to autonomic NS

27
Q

What sub-systems make up the autonomic nervous system?

A
  • Sympathetic
  • Parasympathetic
  • Enteric
28
Q

Where are the cell bodies of autonomic neurons found?

A
  • Primary neuron = spinal cord (thoracic/lumbar)

- Secondary neuron = autonomic ganglion

29
Q

What neurotransmitters are released from pre and post ganglionic fibres?

A

Pre = ACh (excites secondary neuron)
Post = Noradrenaline (sympathetic)
= ACh (parasympathetic)

Note: Post-ganglionic responses can either be excitatory or inhibitory but the symp. and parasymp. systems are complementary (i.e if symp = excitatory then para = inhibitory and vice versa).

30
Q

What does the sympathetic NS trigger?

A

Fight or flight response.

31
Q

What is the goal of the parasympathetic NS?

A

Rest and digest - conservation of energy and maintenance of organ function while at rest.

32
Q

Andrenergic receptors:

All alpha receptors, regardless of number are excitatory and all beta receptors are inhibitory. True or false?

A

False.

A1, B1 = excitatory (odd numbers)
A2, B2 = inhibitory (even numbers)

33
Q

Parasympathetic nerves tend to be divergent. True or false?

A

False. One pre-ganglionic fibre tends to innervate 1-3 post-ganglionic fibres. This ensures precise, localised control of target organs.

34
Q

Muscarinic AChRs (GPCRs) are blocked by which molecule(s)?

A

Atropine (and scopolamine). It opposes normal parasympathetic responses.

35
Q

What happens if you are exposed to different doses of atropine?

A

Low: depressed salivary and bronchial secretions
Moderate: Pupils dilate, vagal effects on heart blocked therefore decreased HR
High: Inhibits gastric secretions and motility
Overdose: Hallucinations, coma, death

36
Q

What is scopolamine often used to treat?

A

Motion sickness

37
Q

What do PET and MRI stand for?

A

Positron Emission Tomography, Magnetic Resonance Imaging.

38
Q

Where is Broca’s area of the brain?

A

Left frontal lobe - responsible for speech formation.

39
Q

Where is Wernicke’s area of the brain?

A

Left parietal-occipital-temporal association cortex - speech understanding and comprehension.

40
Q

Aphasias in Broca’s area will result in poor verbal output but good comprehension. True or false?

A

True.

41
Q

Wernicke’s area aphasias often result in patients speaking normally but speech lacks content. True or false?

A

True.

42
Q

Which maps correspond to the perception of the following:

  • Touch, temperature, pain
  • Vision
  • Listening
A
  • Somatsensory (parietal lobe)
  • Retinotopic (occipital lobe)
  • Tonotopic (temporal lobe)
43
Q

What occurs when the corpus callosum is severed?

A

L and R brains function independently and there is a different perception of self.

44
Q

What is amblyopia?

A

Loss of function in a sensory body part which results in decreased ability to function (due to compensation by supplementary parts of the body).

45
Q

Long term potentiation is most likely a result of what?

A

Increased EPSP amplitude for a given amount of neurotransmitter.

46
Q

AMPA receptors respond to what type of stimulation (by glutamate)?

A

Weak or strong. AMPA receptors are aka non-NMDA receptors.

47
Q

NMDA receptors respond only to weak stimulation. True or false?

A

False. They only respond to strong stimulus.

Physiology IIB (UofA) (2 decks)

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