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Etc > chap 1 > Flashcards

chap 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What type of anemia does a positive ROmberg and Babinski sign indicate?

A

Pernicious Anemia- decreased hgb/htc, serum b12, increased MCV
would not see decreased ferritin

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2
Q

how is closed-angle glaucoma treated?

A

-carbonic anhydrase inhibitors such as acetazolamide
-osmotic diuretics
-

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3
Q

how is open-angle glaucoma treated

A

Alppha 2-adrenergic agonists

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4
Q

what are signs of closed-angle glaucoma?

A

severe pain

  • blurred vision with halos
  • pupils dilated
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5
Q

what are common complications of enteral nutrition support?

A

aspiration, vomiting, diarrhea and dehydration

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6
Q

to ensure maximal effect of fibrinolytic therapy the “door to fibrinolytics” in acute MI and ischemic strokes is

A

30 minutes

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7
Q

what is a finding that would allow you to know that it is either obstructive or cardiogenic shock?

A

Consistently high CVP is exclusive to obstructive shock and cardiogenic shock;

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8
Q

What is the recommended intake of carbohydrates?

A

55%-60% of total daily caloric intake

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9
Q

What is NOT an advisable treatment for someone with respiratory acidosis?

A
  • decreasing ventilator, it is a treatment for patients experiencing respiratory alkalosis.
  • raising the rate of the ventilator, improving ventilation, and using anloxone are applicable treatments for respiratory acidosis
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10
Q

with BPH, a PSA of 3.2 in a 59 y/o. what do you do next?

A

3.2 is considered elevated and indicates the need for transurethral US to detect changes in prostate gland. MRI and CT of prostate are used more commonly in the evaluation of prostate cancer, rather than BPH. Kidney, ureter and bladder x-rays are typically used to detect kidney stones and other GI conditions

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11
Q

What lab results are most indicative of Thalassemia?

A
  • decreased MCV
  • decreased MCHC
  • normal TIBC
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12
Q

A patient with pheochromocytoma with an elevated metanephrine level and a 3.4 cm mass on left adrenal. What is the best initial step of management?

A
  • hypertensive crisis managed first. Phentolamine and phenoxybenzamine are both effective in managing s/s of HTN and the former is usually used before the latter as treatment for pheochromocytoma. Once the acute crissis has resolved, transition to oral alpha blockers is appropriate. beta blockers should be used only after an alpha blockade has been establishes
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13
Q

At what age should shingles vaccine be given?

A

age 50

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14
Q

How do patients with Cushing’s present

A
  • weight gain around midline
  • purple striae
  • leukocytosis
  • elevated urine free cortison (3-4x normal which is about 90)
  • glycosuria
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15
Q

Signs of hypokalemia

A
  • fatigue
  • muscle weakness
  • constipation**
  • muscle spasms
  • decreased amplitude and broad T waves
  • occasional prominent U wave
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16
Q

what kind of pain is poorly localized?

A

visceral

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17
Q

What are normal ranges of serum osmolality?

A

275-285

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18
Q

what does this picture indicate: Na 149, serum osmolality 279

A

Euvolemic hypernatremia

19
Q

What is the immediate inpatient treatment for severe asthma with acute exacerbation?

A

sympathomimetics. such as albuterol, aqueous epi or metaproternol. if unresponsive to sympathomimetics then treat with corticosteroids.
montelukast is an outpatient treatment

20
Q

what does mild azotemia with 75% nephron loss indicate?

A

renal insufficiency of which polycystic kidney disease is a cause.

21
Q

what does 90% nephron loss, azotemia and metabolic alterations indicate?

A

ESRD

22
Q

How does diminished renal reserve present?

A

50% nephron loss and doubled creatinine

23
Q

what do acidosis and hyperthermia indicate?

A

that the affinity of hemoglobin and oxygen has decreased, shifting the dissociation curve to the right.

24
Q

what factors affect the affinity, causing it to increase and shift the dissociation curve to the left?

A
  • increased pH
  • decreased temp
  • decreased pCO2
  • decreased 2,3- DPG
25
Q

what conditions result in a left shift?

A

acute alkalosis and hypothermia

increased affinity shifts the dissociation curve to the left

26
Q

what is the anatomical functioning occuring during s2?

A

-aortic and pulmonic valves closed and blood is pumped through the mitral and tricuspid valves.

27
Q

during s1 the anatomical functioning is what?

A

the tricuspid and mitral valves are closed to allow blood flow through the open aortic and pulmonary valves.

28
Q

what is Cushing’s syndrome often caused by?

A

hyperthyroidism
-accompanying findings include hyperglycemia, hypernatremia and leukocytosis. Hyperkalemia is an expected finding of Addison’s disease

29
Q

what is representative of obstructive shock?

A

low CO

  • high CVP
  • low PCWP
  • high SVR and low SVR
30
Q

what kind of research is characterized by particular outcomes in groups of individuals who are alike in many respects but differ according to a particular characteristic?

A

-cohort

31
Q

what is the aim of cross-sectional research and what is it?

A

-to find relationships between variables at a specific point in time.
it examines populations with a similar attribute that differ in a specific variable

32
Q

what is longitudinal research?

A

takes multiple measures over a group over time to find relationships between variables

33
Q

what are common findings in peritonitis?

A

absent bowel sounds and board like adomen

34
Q

How is the size of a study in qualitative research best determined?

A

-data saturation, which occurs when the researcher no longer sees or hears new information in the data they are collecting. variables determine the entities within the study sample that can take on different values, but are less important than data saturation in determining sample size

35
Q

what does effect size determine?

A

the frequency of an observed phenomenon within a study sample

36
Q

a patient has serum osmo is 268 and serum sodium is 134 and urine Na has less than 10 mEq/l. what are plausible explanations?

A
  • hypovolemic hypotonic hyponatremia
  • can be caused by diarrhea, dehydration and vomiting.
  • diuretic use is not a cause. diuretic use is cause of hypovolemic hypotonic hyponatremia with urine Na greater than 20
37
Q

What are signs associated with chronic bronchitis?

A
  • increased weight gain
  • SOB
  • chronic, productive cough
38
Q

what labs are indicative of septic shock?

A

-leukocytosis ( >4,500-10,000) with a left shift,
-thrombocytopenia (< 150-450 K)
- + blood cultures
- hypoglycemia
-increased LDH levels (typical range 105-333)
-

39
Q

what corresponds with the R waves on an ekg?

A

S1

40
Q

how is acute hep b classified?

A

-HBsAg, HBeAg, Anti-HBc and IgM

41
Q

how is chronic hep B classified?

A

HBsAg, anti-HBc, anti-HBe, IgM and IgG

42
Q

Acute hep A is classified by

A

-anti-HAV and IgM

43
Q

what is the recommended course of treatment for pernicious anemia (s/s are burning sensaiton, sob, + romberg and babinski)

A

cyanocobalamin

44
Q

what is not expected in cushing’s syndrome

A

hyperkalemia

Etc (1 decks)

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