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Pathology II > Chapter 20 > Flashcards

Chapter 20 Flashcards

1
Q

What is Dysostosis

A

Developmental anomaly of bone

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2
Q

What gene is altered in dyostosis

A

Homeobox gene

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3
Q

What is defective ossification of fetal cartilage

A

Dysostosis

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4
Q

What are the three types of Dysostosis

A

Aplasia (absent or incomplete development)
Supernumerary digits
Abnormal fusion of bone

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5
Q

What is Dysplasia

A

Mutations that interfere with growth or homeostasis (Dwarfism)

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6
Q

What is Dysplasia in bone

A

Osteodysplasia

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7
Q

What is Dysplasia in Cartilage

A

Chondrodysplasia

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8
Q

What is another name for Osteogenesis imperfecta

A

Brittle bone disease

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9
Q

What is mutated in Osteogenesis imperfecta

A

Type 1 collagen

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10
Q

If osteogenesis imperfecta autosomal dominant or recessive

A

Autosomal dominant

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11
Q

How many types of osteogenesis imperfecta are there

A

2

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12
Q

What type of osteogenesis imperfecta is letal in utero

A

Type 2

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13
Q

Children with osteogenesis imperfecta are treated with what drug

A

Bisphosphonates

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14
Q

What is the appearance of bone in an X-ray of a person who has osteogenesis imperfecta that has been treated with bisphosphonates

A

Zebra or striped

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15
Q

What is the most common form of Dwarfism

A

Achondroplasia

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16
Q

What is the main problem in Achondroplasia

A

decreased cartilage synthesis = Decrease in growth plate expansion

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17
Q

What gene is mutated in Achondroplasia

A

Fibroblast growth factor receptor (FGFR3)

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18
Q

What percentage of Achondroplasia patients have a spontaneous mutation Vs. autosomal dominant

A

Spontaneous 75%

Autosomal Dominant 25%

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19
Q

What are some signs of Achondroplasia

A

Short proximal extremities
Lower extremity bowing
Frontal bossing
Midface hypoplasia (low nasal bridge)

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20
Q

What type of dwarfism is fatal

A

Thanatophoric dwarfism

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21
Q

why is thanatophoric dwarfism fatal

A

Extremely small thorax leads to perinatal respiratory failure

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22
Q

What type of appearance do the vertebrae have in patients with Achondroplasia

A

Bullet shaped

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23
Q

What are the pathological causes of death in Achondroplasia

A

Brain stem compression

Cardiovascular abnormalities

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24
Q

Rare genetic condition where there is a decrease in osteoclast-mediated bone resorption

A

Osteopetrosis

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25
Q

What are patients with Osteopetrosis prone to having

A

Pathological fractures

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26
Q

What are some problems associated with osteopetrosis

A

Foraminal stenosis
Hepatospelnomegaly
Recurrent infections
anemia

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27
Q

How do you treat osteopetrosis

A

Stem cell replacement

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28
Q

What is osteoporosis

A

Bone becomes more porous thus decreasing bone mass

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29
Q

What are the two categories of osteoporosis

A

Localized

Entire skeleton

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30
Q

What type of generalized osteoporosis is most common

A

Primary

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31
Q

What causes Primary generalized osteoporosis

A 
Old age (decrease GF +osteoblast activity)
Postmenopausal (decrease estrogen)
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32
Q

What are some causes of secondary generalized osteoporosis

A 
Neoplasia
Nutrient deficiency
Drug exposure (corticosteroids, smoking, alcohol)
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33
Q

Is osteopetrosis congenital or acquired?

A

Congenital

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34
Q

Is osteoperosis congenital of acquired

A

Acquired

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35
Q

What type of bone is most impacted by osteoporosis

A

Spongy bone

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36
Q

in postmenopausal women what happens to bone when estrogen decreases

A

Acceleration of bone loss

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37
Q

How can osteoporosis in women be prevented

A

Diet and exercise at an early age to develop bone, and continue on into later years

Ca++ and Vit.D supplementation

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38
Q

What are the common fractures associated with osteoporosis

A 
Vertebral compression (thoracolumbar)
Femoral neck fracture
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39
Q

What is the curve/hump called due to vertebral compression from osteoporosis

A

Dowager’s hump

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40
Q

Having vertebral compression due to osteoporosis can lead to what infection

A

Pneumonia

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41
Q

What is another name for Paget Disease

A

Osteitis deformans

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42
Q

What is happening in Paget disease

A

Bone mass increases, but it is irregular and weak due to osteoclastic activity and bone formation

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43
Q

What is the appearance of pagets disease on an X-ray

A

Saggy appearance

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44
Q

What can someone do to prevent/slow the process of paget disease

A

Increase serum alkaline phosphatase (by product of osteoblast activity)

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45
Q

What are the two types of paget disease

A

Idiopathic (antigens on osteoclasts)

Asymptomatic (most common)

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46
Q

What are some features of paget disease

A

Bone pain
osseous deformation
Nerve compression
1% can transition to sarcoma

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47
Q

What are the most common sites for paget disesase

A

Femur
Pelvis
Sacrum
Skull

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48
Q

What age is paget disease most common

A

Adults at age 70

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49
Q

What sex is most at risk of developing paget disease

A

Males

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50
Q

What disease is associated with the Ivory vertebra sign

A

Paget disease

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51
Q

What causes Vitamin D deficiency

A

Poor diet
UV deficiency
Abnormal metabolism

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52
Q

What happens in Vitamin D deficiency

A

Hypocalcemia
Bone demineralization
Bones become soft

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53
Q

Vitamin D deficiency in children causes

A

Rickets

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54
Q

Vitamin D deficiency in Adults causes

A

Osteomalacia

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55
Q

Vitamin D deficiency in adults is associated with what

A

Hyperparathyroidism

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56
Q

What hormone is secreted by the parathyroid glands

A

Parathyroid hormones

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57
Q

Excessive parathyroid hormone is associated with what

A

Renal failure

Adenoma (80% of cases)

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58
Q

What is the job of parathyroid hormone

A

Maintain serum Ca++

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59
Q

What is a brown tumor

A

hemorrhage, macrophages and fibrosis of bone, not an actual tumor

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60
Q

What causes brown tumors

A

Resorption or cortical trabecular bone from excessive osteoclast activity

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61
Q

What does an x-ray of a persons skull with hyperparathyroidism look like

A

Salt and Pepper skull

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62
Q

What are the categories of Fratures

A 
Complete
incomplete
Closed
Compound
Comminuted
Displaced
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63
Q

What type of fractures are most common in children

A

Incomplete

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64
Q

What is the fracture that occurs when skin is ruptured

A

Compound

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65
Q

What fractured is fragmented/splintered

A

Comminuted

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66
Q

What fracture has the distal segment misaligned

A

Displaced

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67
Q

What are pathological fractures

A

Fractures at the site of disease

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68
Q

What is a stress fracture

A

A fracture that develops slowly over time due to repetitive injury

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69
Q

Where are stress fractures most common

A

In the lower legs and feet

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70
Q

How long does it take for a fracture to heal (formation of bony callus)

A

6-8 weeks

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71
Q

What can cause delayed healing of a fracture

A 
Nonunion
Comminuted
inadequate immobilization
infection
nutritional deficiencies
Advanced age
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72
Q

What is avascular necrosis

A

Ischemia in bones leading to bony necrosis (infarction)

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73
Q

What causes avascular necrosis

A

Vascular disruption

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74
Q

how can an avascular necrosis present itself to a person

A

Asymptomatic or painful

Worsens with time, activity

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75
Q

What areas are most likely to have avascular necrosis

A

Subchondral area (hip, knee, shoulder, wrist, ankle)

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76
Q

What is the new bone growth that follows avascular necrosis called

A

Creeping substitution

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77
Q

What is Osteomyelitis

A

Bone marrow inflammation

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78
Q

What happens to the bone in osteomyelitis

A

Leukocytes destroy bone

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79
Q

How can bone marrow become infected

A

Hematogenus (sepsis, most common)
Adjacent infection
Traumatic implantation (compound fractures)

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80
Q

What are the symptoms of osteomyelitis

A

Acute fever
Malaise
Throbbing pain

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81
Q

What are the categories of osteomyelitis

A

Pyogenic bacteria

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

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82
Q

What is the most common bacterial cause of pyogenic osteomyelitis

A

Staphylococcus aureus

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83
Q

What are the features of pyogenic of osteomyelitis

A

Acute fever
Malaise
Throbbing pain

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84
Q

What bony feature associated with pyogenic osteomyelitis

A

Involcrum
Sequestrum
Draining sinus

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85
Q

What causes Tuberculous osteomyelitis

A

TB that has moved to the skeleton

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86
Q

What spinal abnormality is associated with tuberculous osteomyelitis

A

Pott disease

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87
Q

What type of granulomas are fromed in tuberculous osteomyelitis

A

Caseous granulomas

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88
Q

What does tuberculous osteomyelitis cause

A

Bony destruction

Severe deformation

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89
Q

What is the most common feature of a bone tumor

A

Bone pain that gradually increases

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90
Q

What are other signs of a bone tumor

A 
age (50+ yr)
History of cancer
unexplained wt. loss
no improvement from chiro care
Pain doesn't go away when resting
Bone pain more than 1 month
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91
Q

What are the types of primary bone cancer

A

Osteosarcoma
Shondrosarcoma
Ewin sarcoma

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92
Q

What are the benign bone tumors

A

Osteochondroma

Fibrous Cortical defects

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93
Q

What is the most common location and age for osteosacroma

A

Age 10-20

Location Knee

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94
Q

What is the most common location and age for osteoma

A

Age 40-50

Location Facial bones/skull

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95
Q

Where are the most common location for most bone tumors

A

Long bones of extremities

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96
Q

What are the main types of bone-forming tumors

A

Osteoma
Osteoid osteoma
Osteoblastoma
Osteosarcoma

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97
Q

How do you determine if there is a bone forming tumors

A

Biopsy

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98
Q

What type of bone tumor is a developmental anomaly and reactive growth

A

Osteoma

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99
Q

What are some characteristics of an Osteoma

A

Similar to normal bone
Slow growing
Benign

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100
Q

Where are Osteomas most common

A

Head

neck

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101
Q

What age do osteomas occur

A

40-50 years

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102
Q

What type of bone tumor is round-to-oval and is near the cortex of bone

A

Osteoid Osteoma and Osteoblastoma

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103
Q

What sex and age are Osteoid Osteoma and Osteoblastoma most common

A

Male

10-20

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104
Q

How do Osteoid Osteoma and Osteoblastoma look on an x-ray

A

They have a central nidus with a rim of sclerosis

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105
Q

What will a patient say about the pain related to an Osteoid Osteoma and Osteoblastoma

A

Bone pain at night

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106
Q

Features of an Osteoid Osteoma

A

Localized night pain
Relieved by aspirin
Near cortex of long bones
Small

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107
Q

Features of an Osteoblastoma

A

Large 2-6 cm
Poorly localized night pain
not relieved by asprin
Malignant transformation rare

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108
Q

What is the common location of an Osteoblastoma

A

Vertebral column

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109
Q

What condition is characterized by a Codman triangle

A

Osteosarcoma

110
Q

What is the most common type of primary bone cancer

A

Osteosarcoma

111
Q

What age and sex is most likely to develop a Primary osteosarcoma

A

10-20 year old males

112
Q

Who is more likely to develop a secondary osteosarcoma (co-morbid)

A

40+ years old

113
Q

Where on the long bone is a osteosarcoma likely to develop

A

Metaphysis

114
Q

What joint is a osteosarcoma likely to develop

A

Knee 60%
Hip 15%
Shoulder 10%

115
Q

Is an osteosarcoma lesion lytic, blastic or both

A

Mixed Lytic, Blastic

116
Q

What is the survival rate for Primary osteosarcoma patients

A

60-70%

117
Q

How is osteosarcoma treated

A

Ambutation

Chemotherapy

118
Q

What are the three main types of cartilage-forming tumors

A

Osteochondroma
Chondroma
Chondrosarcoma

119
Q

What type of cartilage forming tumor is Benign, cartilage-capped outgrowth

A

Osteochondroma

120
Q

Who is most likely to get an osteochondroma

A

Males age 10-30

121
Q

How do Osteochondromas arise

A 
Sporadic mutation (adolescent onset)
Hereditary (childhood onset)
122
Q

Where on the long bone are Osteochondromas likely to occur

A

Metaphysis of long bone

123
Q

Which cartilage forming tumor is benign and made of hyaline cartilage

A

Chondroma

124
Q

What are the two types of Chondromas

A 
Enchondroma (medullary)
Juxtacortical chondroma (bone surface)
125
Q

What age is a Chondroma most likely occur

A

20-50 years old

126
Q

What is Ollier disease

A

Multiple enchondromas throughout the body

127
Q

What is the O-ring associated with a Chondroma

A

A ring of sclerosis with a centre that might have osteonecrosis

128
Q

Chondromas make up what percentage of benign bone tumors

A

10%

129
Q

What are would you expect to see a chondrosarcoma in

A

40-60 year old males

130
Q

What is the most common place in a bone for a Chondrosarcoma

A

Intramedullary

Juxtacortical

131
Q

What does a chondrosarcoma look like

A

A glistening mass

132
Q

What grade is the most common chondrosarcoma

A

Low-grade

133
Q

What are characteristics of a low-grade chondrosarcoma

A

Slow growing
small
thickening of cortex
80-90% survival

134
Q

What are characteristics of a high grade chondrosarcoma

A

Cotrical erosion
Large
70% metastasize to lungs
Poor prognosis

135
Q

How is a chondrosarcoma treated

A

Wide excision

Chemotherapy

136
Q

What are the Fibrous and Fibro-osseous tumors talked about in class

A

Fibrous Cortical Defect
Nonossifying fibroma
Fibrous Dysplasia

137
Q

What are the bone timors with unique cells talked about in class

A

Ewing sarcoma

Giant-cell tumor of bone

138
Q

What are benign lesions of fibroblasts and macrophages

A

Fibrous Cortical Defect

Nonossifying Fibroma

139
Q

Which is larger: Fibrous cortical defect, or nonossifying fibroma

A

Nonossifying fibroma

140
Q

What age group is most likely to have a Fibrous Cortical Defect or Nonossifying fibroma

A

around 2 years old

141
Q

Where on the bone is a Fibrous cortical defect or nonossifying fibroma more likely to occur

A

Metaphysis of the distal femur or proximal tibia

142
Q

How longs does it take for a Fibrous cortical defect or nonossofying fibroma to resolve

A

2-3 years

143
Q

Are Fibrous cortical defects and nonossifying fibromas asymptomatic

A

Yes

144
Q

What is a bening lesions and failure of bony differentiation

A

Fibrous dysplasia

145
Q

What are the categories of Firbous Displasia that arrise from GNAS mutations

A

Monostotic
Polystotic
Polystotic + Cafe-au-lait

146
Q

What category of Fibrous Displasia involves a single bone

A

Monostotic

147
Q

What category of fibrous displasia involves multiple bones

A

Polystotic

148
Q

What category of fibrous displasia is also known as McCune-Albright syndrome

A

Polyostotic +café-au-lait spots & endocrinopathy

149
Q

What are group is likely to have fibrous displasia of the jawbone, is asymptomatic with minimal bony distortion

A

10-30 years old (monostotic fibrous displasia)

150
Q

What percent of all Fibrous displasia cases are monostotic

A

70%

151
Q

What area of the skeleton is most likely to be affected by polyostotic FD

A

Craniofacial region

152
Q

What percent of FD cases are polyostotic

A

27%

153
Q

What percent of FD cases have Cafe au Lait spots

A

3%

154
Q

What type of FD has skin spots, early puberty and is common in females

A

McCune-Albright syndrome

155
Q

What is the second most common pediatric bone cancer

A

Ewing Sarcoma

156
Q

What bone cancers are associated with Small round-cells tumors of bone

A

Ewing Sarcoma

Primitive neuroectodermal tumor

157
Q

What is the most common age group for Ewing Sarcoma and PNET

A

10-20 years old

158
Q

What sex and race is more likely to develop Ewing sarcoma or PNET

A

White males

159
Q

What does the radiograph of a Ewing sarcoma or PNET look like

A

Onion-skinning

160
Q

What is the survival rate of Ewing Sarcoma or PNET

A

75% 5 year survival

161
Q

Is ewing sarcoma or PNET associated with homer-wright rosettes

A

PNET

162
Q

What tumor is associated with Multinucleated giant osteoclas-like cells

A

Giant-Cell tumor of bone

163
Q

what age group is likely to have Giant-cell tumor

A

20-40 years olg

164
Q

Patient has a large, lytic, Solitary mass on the Epiphysis of the distal femur. they also have arthritic pain on the knee as well. what might they have

A

Giant-cell tumor

165
Q

What is the pain of a Giant-cell tumor associated with

A

Arthritis-like pain

166
Q

Can Giant-cell tumors become malignant

A

Yes

167
Q

What percent of Giant-cell tumors metastasize to the lungs

A

2%

168
Q

What appearance does a giant-cell tumor

A

Soap bubble

Thin shell of cortex

169
Q

How can cancers spread to bones

A

Direct extension
Circulation
Intraspinal seeding

170
Q

How do Sarcomas and Carcinomas travel throughout the body

A

Sarcoma: Blood
Carcinomas: Lymphatics

171
Q

What is a cancer that travels to the bone caled

A

Secondary metastasis to bone

172
Q

What part of the skeleton is most likely to have a secondary metastasis to bone

A

Axial skeleton

Proximal femur

173
Q

Why do secondary metastasis to bone end up in the axial skeleton or proximal femur

A

The Red bone marrow

174
Q

What are the most common forms of secondary metastasis of bone

A

Adult: Prostate, Breast
Children: Neuroblastome, Wilms tumor, Ewing Sarcoma

175
Q

What are the different types of arthritis

A 
Degenerative
Immune-mediated
Metabolic
Infectious
Neoplastic
176
Q

What is the most common joint disorder

A

Osteoarthritis

177
Q

What is a major source of mobidity in elderly

A

Osteoarthritis

178
Q

What is happening in osteoarthritis

A

Articular cartilage break down

179
Q

What causes osteoarthritis

A

Mechanical wear and tear

Genetics

180
Q

Can osteoarthritis damage bone

A

yes if severe engough

181
Q

What type of osteoarthritis is not caused by Trauma

A

Primary OA

182
Q

What type of osteoarthritis is caused by trauma

A

Secondary OA

183
Q

Where is OA most likely to occur

A

Cervical, lumbar spine
DIP joints
1st MCP
1st TMT

184
Q

Where is OA most likely to affect women

A

Knees and Hands

185
Q

Where is OA most likely to affect men

A

hips

186
Q

Once the cartilage plate is degraded what happens to the bone

A

Subchondral fractures allow synovial fluid to leak in causing subchondral cysts

187
Q

What are Joint mice

A

chunks of cartilage that have been broken off causing joint locking and pain

188
Q

What cell is disrupted in OA that decreases the resilience of cartilage

A

Chondrocyte

189
Q

What are symptoms of OA

A

Deep/achy pain
Crepitus
decrease ROM, worse in morning

190
Q

What may impinge nerve roots in OA

A

Osteophytes

191
Q

What type of arthritis is a chronic autoimmune disease

A

Rheumatoid Arthritis

192
Q

What joints does RA affect

A

Small joints
MC, MCP
PIP

193
Q

30% of RA patients have instabilities at what joint

A

Atlanto-axial joint

194
Q

What deformities are associated with RA

A

Ulnar deviation
Swan-neck
Ankylosis

195
Q

Who is RA most likely to affect

A

Females

10-40 years old

196
Q

Is juvenile RA associated with having Rheumatoid factor

A

no

197
Q

Who is at a bigger risk of developing Juvenile RA

A

Girls age 1-6

198
Q

What joints are affected in juvenile RA

A

Knees and Hips

199
Q

What other conditions are associated with juvenile RA

A

Oligoarthritis

Still’s disease

200
Q

Seronegative spondyloarthropathies are negative for what and positive for what

A

Negative for: RF

Positive: HLA-B27

201
Q

What are the types of Seronegative spondyloarthropathies

A

Psoriatic arthritis
Enteropathic arthritis
Ankylosing spondylitis
Reactive arthritis

202
Q

What is the Acronym to remember the types of Seronegative spondyloarthropathies

A

P.E.A.R

203
Q

What is the fun way to remember symptoms of Reactive arthritis

A

Cant see
Cant pee
Cant climb a tree

204
Q

what is Ankylosing spondylitis also known as

A

Marie-Strumpell disease

205
Q

What does Ankylosing spondylitis affect

A

The axial skeleton

206
Q

What age does Ankylosing spondylitis arrise

A

40 years and up

207
Q

If Ankylosing spondylitis effects the ribs what will the patient have a hard time doing

A

Breathing/ Expanding chest

208
Q

What happens to the lordotic curve and flexion of the spine in Ankylosing spondylitis

A

Decrease flexion

Decrease lordotic curves

209
Q

What causes Gout

A

Abnormal purine metabolism which causes Uric acid accumulation

210
Q

What is the disease that has a Tophi/Tohpus

A

Gout

211
Q

What causes Primary gout

A

Increase in uric acid in blood

212
Q

What causes secondary gout

A

Renal disease
Leukemia
Multiple myeloma
Diuretic

213
Q

Where do uric acid crystals normally cause of Tophi in gout patients

A

MC in hallus

214
Q

Can gout cause arthritis

A

yes

215
Q

What is another name for Pseudogout

A

CPDD

216
Q

What type of crystals are deposited in Pseudogout (CPDD)

A

Pyrophosphate crystals

217
Q

Where do pyrophosphate crystals deposit in pseudogout (CPDD)

A 
Knee
Wrist
Shoulder
Hip
Elbow
Ankle
218
Q

What is the onset of CPDD

A

50 years and up

219
Q

What happens in Hydroxyapatite deposition disease (HADD)

A

Hydroxyapatite accumulates within tendons

220
Q

What is the onset age for HADD

A

40-70 years old

221
Q

What is another name for Diffuse idiopathic skeletal hyperostosis (DISH)

A

Forestier disease

222
Q

What is happening in DISH (Forestier disease)

A

Excessive bone growth (flowing ossification)

223
Q

What are the common places for DISH to occur

A

ALL

Cervical + Thoracic spine

224
Q

What age is DISH most likely to happen

A

50-70 years old

225
Q

What increases the risk of DISH

A

hyperglycemia

226
Q

What is happening in Neuropathic arthropathy

A

Progressive degeneration of a wt bearing joint that can develop in any condition with neuropathy

227
Q

What type of arthritis is caused by an infection of a joint

A

Infectious arthritis

228
Q

What can cause infectious arthritis

A

Sepsis
Trauma
Adjacent osteomyelitis

229
Q

What type of infectious arthritis is caused by a bacteria

A

Suppurative arthritis

230
Q

What bacteria are most likely to cause suppurative arthritis

A

Haemophilis influenza = under 2yr
Staphylococcus aureus= over 2 yr
Neisseria gonorrhoeae= 15 and up
Salmonella = those with sickle cell

231
Q

What microbe often causes Suppurative arthritis in those with sickle cell anemia

A

Salmonella

232
Q

What causes Lime arthritis

A

Lime disease bacteria (borrellia burgdorferi)

233
Q

What is unique with the joint pain associated with Lime arthritis

A

It is migratory, and distructive in advanced stages

234
Q

What happen in stage one of lime arthritis

A

Spriochete multiplies
Bullseye on skin
Fever

235
Q

What happens in stage two of lime arthritis

A

skin lesions
Migratory joint pain
CN dysfunction

236
Q

What happens in stage three of lime arthritis

A

2-3 years post infxn
Chronic polyarthritis
Possible encephalitis

237
Q

What a space occupying lesion of the joint

A

Tumor-like lesions (benign)

238
Q

What cause space occupying lesion of the joint

A

Ganglion

synovial cyst

239
Q

how do you treat a Ganglion space occupying lesion of the joint

A

Compression

Aspiration

240
Q

where is a ganglion space occupying lesion of the joint likely to appear

A

the wrist

241
Q

what is a synovial cyst space occupying lesion of the joint behind the knee called

A

Baker cyst: popliteal

242
Q

What age do Tenosynovial giant cell tumor occur

A

20-50 years old

243
Q

What is different about tenosynovial giant cell tumor

A

They are benign but can invade nearby tissues causing them to errode

244
Q

What are the two types of Tenosynovial giant cell tumors

A

Diffuse TGCT

Localized TGCT

245
Q

What is the most common location for Diffuse tenosynovial giant cell tumors

A

the knee

246
Q

What is the most common location for Localized TGCT

A

wrist and fingers

247
Q

What are soft tissue tumors

A

a tumor of any non-epithelial tissue excluding bone, cartilage, CNS, hematopoietic or lymphoid tissue

248
Q

What is the most common location for a soft tissue tumor

A

The thigh

249
Q

What are the tumors of adipose tissue talked about in class

A

Lipoma

Liposarcoma

250
Q

What is the most common soft tissue tumor in adults

A

Lipoma

251
Q

What is a benign fat tumor

A

Lipoma

252
Q

What is a malignant tumor of adiposcytes

A

Liposarcoma

253
Q

What age group is most likely to get a liposarcoma

A

40-50 year olds

254
Q

What are nodular fasciitis

A

Non-neoplastic reacticve fibrous tumor-like masses

255
Q

Where are nodular fasciitis likely to occur

A

volar side of the arm
Chest
Back

256
Q

What is Myositis ossificans

A

Reactive metaplastic bone

257
Q

Where is Myositis ossificans likely to occur

A

Proximal extremity muscles

258
Q

What are the characteristics of Fibromatosis

A

Benign
Locally invasive
Disfiguring

259
Q

Why type of Fibromatosis is disfiguring

A

Superficial

260
Q

Why is the deformation associated with Superficial fibromatosis

A

Dupuyten contracture

261
Q

What type of Fibromatosis is found in the abdomin

A

Deep

262
Q

What syndrome is associated with Deep Fibromatosis

A

Gardner syndrome

263
Q

What is a slow growing fibrous tumor of deep tissues in adults age 35-55

A

Fibrosarcoma

264
Q

What shape are the cells of Fibrosarcomas

A

Spindle shaped with a herringbone pattern

265
Q

What was the skeletal muscle tumor talked about in class

A

Rhabdomyosarcoma

266
Q

What are characteristics of Rhabdomyosarcoma

A

Malignant
Aggressive
little areas of skeletal muscle
Pediatric disaese

267
Q

What are the smooth muscle tumors talked about in class

A

Leiomyoma

Leiomyosarcoma

268
Q

Which smooth muscle tumor is benign, most commonly found in Uterus, Small bowel, esophagus

A

Leiomyoma

269
Q

What smooth muscle tumor is common in females, and found in the extremities and retroperitoneum

A

Leiomyosarcoma

270
Q

What are the shape of Leiomyosarcoma cells

A

Spindle cells

Cigar-shaped nuclei

271
Q

What age are synovial sarcomas most likely to occur

A

20-40 years old

272
Q

Where are synovial sarcomas likely to occur

A

Deep soft tissue near large extremity joints

Pathology II (5 decks)

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