Chapter 23: The Respiratory System Flashcards

1
Q

1) Which of the following is NOT part of the upper respiratory system?
a) Nose
b) Oral cavity
c) Pharynx
d) Trachea
e) Nasal meatuses

A

d

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

2) Which of the following is NOT a conducting zone action?
a) Clean air of debris
b) Conduct air into the lungs
c) Add water to air
d) Warm air
e) All of these are actions of the conducting zone.

A

E

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

3) Which of the following is NOT a factor that determines the rate of pulmonary and systemic gas exchange?
a) Partial pressure difference of gases
b) surface are availability for gas exchange
c) Diffusion distance
d) Molecular weight and solubility of the gases
e) All of these are factors that determine the rate of pulmonary and systemic gas exchange.

A

E

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

4) Which of the following is a passageway for air, food and water?
a) Pharynx
b) Larynx
c) Paranasal sinuses
d) Trachea
e) Esophagus

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

5) Which structure prevents food or water from entering the trachea?
a) Arytenoid cartilage
b) Epiglottis
c) Nasopharynx
d) Thyroid cartilage
e) Paranasal sinus

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

6) The gas law that describes the pressure changes that occur during pulmonary ventilation is
a) Boyle’s law
b) Charles’ law
c) Henry’s law
d) The inhalation law
e) The law of partial pressure

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

7) Which structure is located anterior to the esophagus and carries air to the bronchi?
a) Trachea
b) Larynx
c) Nasopharynx
d) Pharynx
e) None of these choices

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

8) Which of the following is the primary gas exchange site?
a) Trachea
b) Bronchiole
c) Nasal sinuses
d) Alveolus
e) Bronchus

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

9) Which of the below tissues maintains open airways in the lower respiratory system?
a) stratified squamous epithelium with keratin
b) ciliated pseudostratified columnar epithelium with goblet cells
c) hyaline cartilage
d) mucus membrane
e) bone

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

10) Which of the below tissues provides the functions of the inner layer of the conducting organs?
a) stratified squamous epithelium with keratin
b) ciliated pseudostratified columnar epithelium with goblet cells
c) ciliated cuboidal epithelium with goblet cells
d) transitional epithelium with cilia
e) columnar connective tissue with goblet cells

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

11) The point where the trachea divides into right and left primary bronchi is a ridge called a) Carina
b) Secondary bronchioles
c) Parietal pleura
d) Visceral pleura
e) Diaphragm

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

12) Which of the below tissues forms the exchange surfaces of the alveolus?
a) stratified squamous epithelium
b) ciliated pseudostratified columnar epithelium with goblet cells
c) simple squamous epithelium
d) hyaline cartilage
e) columnar connective tissue with goblet cells

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

13) Which of the following are cells of the alveoli that produce surfactant?
a) Type I alveolar cells
b) Type II alveolar cells
c) Type III alveolar cells
d) Surface cells
e) Macrophages

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

14) Which of the following is NOT a factor that affects pulmonary ventilation?
a) Lung compliance
b) Suface tension of alveolar fluid
c) Elastic recoil of the chest wall and lungs
d) Airway resistance
e) All of these are factors that affect pulmonary ventilation

A

E

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which of the following indicates the direction of diffusion of gases at the alveoli of the lungs?
a) oxygen into blood, Carbon dioxide into blood
b) oxygen out of blood, Carbon dioxide into blood
c) oxygen into blood, Carbon dioxide out of blood
d) oxygen out of blood, Carbon dioxide out of blood

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

16) Exhalation begins when
a) Inspiratory muscles relax
b) Diaphragm contracts
c) Blood circulation is the lowest
d) Both Inspiratory muscles relax, and Diaphragm contracts
e) All of these choices

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

17) Which of the following is the sum of the residual and the expiratory reserve volume?
a) Total lung capacity
b) Functional residual capacity
c) Inspiratory capacity
d) Vital capacity
e) Minimal volume

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

18) Which of the following is NOT a factor that the rate of pulmonary and systemic gas exchange depends on?
a) Partial pressure difference of the gases
b) Surface area for gas exchange
c) Diffusion distance
d) Molecular weight and solubility of the gases
e) Force of contraction of the diaphragm

A

E

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

19) Which of the following is the dominant method of carbon dioxide transport?
a) Bound to hemoglobin
b) Bound to oxygen
c) Dissolved in plasma as a gas
d) Dissolved in plasma as bicarbonate ions
e) Diffusion

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

20) When blood pH drops, the amount of oxyhemoglobin _____ and oxygen delivery to the tissue cells _____.
a) Increases, increases
b) Increases, decreases
c) Decreases, increases
d) Decreases, decreases
e) Does not change, does not change

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

21) Which of the following is a factor that does NOT affect hemoglobin’s affinity for oxygen?
a) pH of blood
b) Partial pressure of the oxygen
c) Amount of oxygen available
d) Temperature
e) Respiratory rate

A

E

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

53) Normal quiet breathing is controlled by the
a) Pontine respiratory group
b) Medullary respiratory center dorsal respiratory group
c) Medullary respiratory center ventral respiratory group
d) Medullary respiratory center dorsal respiratory group and medullary respiratory center ventral respiratory group
e) all of these

A

E

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

62) Which of the following is a forced exhalation against the closed rima glottidis as may occur during periods of straining while defecating?
a) sobbing
b) coughing
c) crying
d) hiccupping
e) Valsalva maneuver

A

E

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

63) Which of the following is a spasmodic contraction of the diaphragm followed by spasmodic closure of the rima glottidis, which produces a sharp sound on inhalation?
a) sneezing
b) coughing
c) laughing
d) hiccupping
e) Valsalva maneuver

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

64) Which of the following is an inhalation followed by many short convulsive exhalations during which the rima glottidis remains open and the vocal folds vibrate, accompanied by characteristic facial expressions?
a) sneezing
b) yawning
c) hiccupping
d) laughing
e) Valsalva maneuver

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

65) Which of the following is an inhalation followed by many short convulsive exhalations during which the rima glottidis remains open and the vocal folds vibrate, accompanied by characteristic facial expressions?
a) sneezing
b) yawning
c) hiccupping
d) crying
e) Valsalva maneuver

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

66) Which of the following is a series of convulsive inhalations followed by a single prolonged exhalation where the rima glottidis closes earlier than normal after each inhalation so only a little air enters the lung with each inhalation?
a) sobbing
b) sneezing
c) coughing
d) hiccupping
e) Valsalva maneuver

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

67) Which of the following is a deep inhalation through a widely opened mouth producing an exaggerated depression of the mandible, the precise cause of which is unknown?
a) sobbing
b) yawning
c) coughing
d) laughing
e) hiccupping

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

68) Which of the following is a long drawn and deep inhalation immediately followed by a shorter but forceful exhalation?
a) sobbing
b) yawning
c) sighing
d) hiccupping
e) Valsalva maneuver

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

69) Which of the following is a spasmodic contraction of the muscles of exhalation that forcefully expels air through the nose and mouth?
a) sobbing
b) sneezing
c) coughing
d) sighing
e) Valsalva maneuver

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

70) Which of the following is a long drawn and deep inhalation followed by a complete closure of the rima glottidis, which results in a strong exhalation, pushing the rima glottidis open and sending a blast of air through the upper respiratory passages?
a) crying
b) sneezing
c) coughing
d) sighing
e) Valsalva maneuver

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

74) Where is the rhythmicity center for respiration?
a) in the medulla
b) in the pons
c) in the cerebrum
d) in the hypothalamus
e) in the cerebellum

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

75) With which body system does the respiratory system work to regulate the pH of body fluids?
a) muscular
b) digestive
c) nervous
d) endocrine
e) urinary

A

E

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

1) Which of the following organs is not part of the lower respiratory system?
A) oropharynx
B) trachea
C) larynx
D) bronchi
E) alveoli

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

2) Air entering the body is filtered, warmed, and humidified by the
A) upper respiratory tract.
B) lower respiratory tract.
C) lungs.
D) alveoli.
E) bronchioles.

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

3) Large airborne particles are filtered by
A) choanae.
B) the soft palate.
C) hairs in the nasal vestibule.
D) the nasal sinuses.
E) the nasopharynx.

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

4) The conchae
A) divide the nasal cavity into a right and a left side.
B) provide an opening into the pharynx.
C) provide a surface for the sense of smell.
D) create turbulence in the air to trap particulate matter in mucus.
E) provide an opening to paranasal sinuses.

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

5) Functions of the nasal cavity include all of the following, except
A) filtering the air.
B) warming the air.
C) humidifying the air.
D) acting as a damping chamber when coughing.
E) acting as a resonating chamber in speech.

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

6) The openings to the nostrils are the
A) external nares.
B) internal nares.
C) vestibules.
D) conchae.
E) nasal apertures.

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

7) The portion of the nasal cavity contained within the flexible tissues of the external nose is the
A) nasopharynx.
B) vestibule.
C) internal chamber.
D) conchae.
E) nasal septum.

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

8) The portion of the pharynx that receives both air and food is the
A) nasopharynx.
B) oropharynx.
C) laryngopharynx.
D) aeropharynx.
E) internal pharynx.

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

9) The common passageway shared by the respiratory and digestive systems is the
A) larynx.
B) glottis.
C) vestibule.
D) pharynx.
E) trachea.

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

10) The auditory tubes open into the
A) nasopharynx.
B) oropharynx.
C) laryngopharynx.
D) larynx.
E) nasal cavity.

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

11) The palatine tonsils lie in the walls of the A) nasopharynx.
B) oropharynx.
C) laryngopharynx.
D) larynx.
E) nasal cavity.

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

12) The ________ is lined by stratified squamous epithelium.
A) nasopharynx
B) trachea
C) oropharynx
D) larynx
E) nasal cavity

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

13) The larynx contains ________ cartilages.
A) three unpaired
B) six paired
C) a total of nine
D) A, B, and C
E) a variable number of

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

14) Components of the upper respiratory system include all of the following, except the
A) lips.
B) nose.
C) nasal cavity.
D) pharynx.
E) paranasal sinuses.

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

15) The glottis is
A) the soft tissue that hangs off the end of the soft palate.
B) a flap of elastic cartilage.
C) the opening to the larynx.
D) the opening to the pharynx.
E) part of the hard palate.

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

16) The vocal folds are located within the
A) nasopharynx.
B) oropharynx.
C) larynx.
D) trachea.
E) bronchi.

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

17) The elastic cartilage that covers the opening to the larynx during swallowing is the
A) thyroid cartilage.
B) cricoid cartilage.
C) corniculate cartilage.
D) cuneiform cartilage.
E) epiglottis.

A

E

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

18) The largest cartilage of the larynx is the ________ cartilage.
A) thyroid
B) cricoid
C) cuneiform
D) arytenoid
E) epiglottic

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

19) The ring-shaped cartilage just inferior to the thyroid cartilage is the ________ cartilage.
A) epiglottis
B) cuneiform
C) corniculate
D) cricoid
E) arytenoid

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

20) The paired cartilages that articulate with the superior border of the cricoid cartilage are the ________ cartilages.
A) cricothyroid
B) innominate
C) cuneiform
D) corniculate
E) arytenoid

A

E

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

21) A common site to place a tracheostomy tube is through the ligament that connects the cricoid cartilage to the ________ cartilage.
A) thyroid
B) cuneiform
C) corniculate
D) epiglottic
E) vestibular

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

22) The placement of a tube directly into the trachea bypassing the larynx is termed a(n)
A) intubation.
B) tracheostomy.
C) tunnelization.
D) tracheotomy.
E) catheterization.

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

23) The thyroid cartilage is attached to the cricoid cartilage by the
A) intrinsic ligaments.
B) extrinsic ligaments.
C) vestibular folds.
D) cricothyroid ligament.
E) intrinsic laryngeal muscles.

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

24) The nasal cavity is separated from the oral cavity by the
A) hard palate.
B) soft palate.
C) cribriform plate.
D) internal nares.
E) pharyngeal septum.

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

25) A pair of ligaments covered by laryngeal epithelium that function in sound production are the
A) intrinsic ligaments.
B) extrinsic ligaments.
C) ventricular folds.
D) vocal folds.
E) intrinsic laryngeal muscles.

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

26) Air passing through the glottis vibrates the vocal folds and produces
A) speech.
B) articulation.
C) phonation.
D) whistling.
E) ululation.

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

27) Tension on the vocal cords is regulated by the
A) movement of the arytenoid cartilages.
B) extrinsic ligaments.
C) contraction of laryngeal muscles.
D) A and C only
E) A, B, and C

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

28) Which of the following statements about the trachea is false?
A) is lined by pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium
B) is reinforced with C-shaped cartilages
C) contains many mucous glands
D) alters its diameter in response to the autonomic nervous system
E) is reinforced with D-shaped cartilages

A

E

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

29) The airway that connects the larynx to the bronchial tree is the
A) trachea.
B) bronchiole.
C) laryngopharynx.
D) alveolar duct.
E) bronchus.

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

30) Secondary bronchi supply air to the
A) lungs.
B) lobes of the lungs.
C) lobules of the lungs.
D) alveoli.
E) alveolar ducts.

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

31) They branch from the trachea at the carina.
A) terminal bronchioles
B) secondary bronchi
C) tertiary bronchi
D) primary bronchi
E) alveolar ducts

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

32) The following is a list of some airways.
1. secondary bronchus
2. bronchioles
3. alveolar ducts
4. primary bronchus
5. respiratory bronchiole
6. alveoli
7. terminal bronchiole
The order in which air passes through is
A) 4, 1, 2, 7, 5, 3, 6.
B) 4, 1, 2, 5, 7, 3, 6.
C) 1, 4, 2, 5, 7, 3, 6.
D) 1, 4, 2, 7, 5, 3, 6.
E) 2, 4, 1, 7, 5, 3, 6.

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

33) The interlobular septa divide the lungs into
A) lobes.
B) pulmonary lobules.
C) alveolar sacs.
D) vital capacity and residual volume.
E) visceral pleura and fibrous trabeculae.

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

34) The respiratory epithelium of the conducting airways consists of
A) pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium.
B) moist cuboidal epithelium.
C) simple squamous epithelium.
D) ciliated squamous epithelium.
E) surfactant cells.

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

35) The actual sites of gas exchange within the lungs are
A) bronchioles.
B) terminal bronchioles.
C) pleural spaces.
D) alveoli.
E) interlobular septa.

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

36) The respiratory membrane of the gas exchange surfaces consists of
A) pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium.
B) moist cuboidal epithelium.
C) simple squamous epithelium.
D) ciliated squamous epithelium.
E) surfactant cells.

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

37) Boyle s law states that gas volume is
A) directly proportional to pressure.
B) directly proportional to temperature.
C) inversely proportional to pressure.
D) inversely proportional to temperature.
E) both A and B

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

38) Which of the following muscles might be recruited to increase inspired volume?
A) sternocleidomastoid
B) pectoralis minor
C) scalenes
D) serratus anterior
E) all of the above

A

E

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

39) Expiratory movements are produced by contraction of the ________ muscle(s).
A) scalene
B) diaphragm
C) internal intercostal
D) external intercostal
E) serratus anterior

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

40) When the diaphragm and external intercostal muscles contract,
A) the volume of the thorax increases.
B) the volume of the thorax decreases.
C) the volume of the lungs decreases.
D) the lungs shrink.
E) expiration occurs.

A

A

74
Q

41) Which of these descriptions best matches the term external intercostal?
A) accessory muscle of expiration
B) accessory muscle of inspiration
C) primary muscle of inspiration
D) contraction increases airway resistance
E) affects lung compliance

A

C

75
Q

42) Pulmonary ventilation refers to the
A) movement of air into and out of the lungs.
B) movement of dissolved gases from the alveoli to the blood.
C) movement of dissolved gases from the blood to the interstitial space.
D) movement of dissolved gases from the interstitial space to the cells.
E) utilization of oxygen.

A

A

76
Q

43) Alveolar ventilation refers to the
A) movement of air into and out of the lungs.
B) movement of air into and out of the alveoli.
C) movement of dissolved gases from the alveoli to the blood.
D) movement of dissolved gases from the blood to the alveoli.
E) utilization of oxygen by alveolar cells to support metabolism.

A

B

77
Q

44) The function of pulmonary ventilation is to A) remove carbon dioxide from the blood.
B) supply oxygen to the blood.
C) maintain adequate alveolar ventilation.
D) remove air from dead air space.
E) prevent gas exchange in the bronchioles.

A

C

78
Q

45) Henry s law states that
A) gas volume and temperature are directly proportional.
B) gas volume and pressure are inversely proportional.
C) the volume of gas that will dissolve in a solvent is proportional to the solubility of the gas and the gas pressure.
D) in a mixture of gases such as air, the total pressure is the sum of the individual partial pressures of the gases in the mixture.
E) gas pressure is inversely proportional to gas volume.

A

C

79
Q

46) Dalton s law states that
A) gas volume and temperature are directly proportional.
B) gas volume and pressure are inversely proportional.
C) the volume of gas that will dissolve in a solvent is proportional to the solubility of the gas and the gas pressure.
D) in a mixture of gases such as air, the total pressure is the sum of the individual partial pressures of the gases in the mixture.
E) gas pressure is inversely proportional to gas volume.

A

D

80
Q

47) The partial pressure of oxygen in arterial blood is approximately
A) 40 mm Hg.
B) 45 mm Hg.
C) 50 mm Hg.
D) 70 mm Hg.
E) 100 mm Hg.

A

E

81
Q

48) The partial pressure of carbon dioxide in venous blood is approximately
A) 40 mm Hg.
B) 45 mm Hg.
C) 50 mm Hg.
D) 70 mm Hg.
E) 100 mm Hg.

A

B

82
Q

49) The partial pressure of oxygen in the interstitial space of peripheral tissues is approximately
A) 40 mm Hg.
B) 45 mm Hg.
C) 50 mm Hg.
D) 70 mm Hg.
E) 100 mm Hg.

A

A

83
Q

50) The partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the interstitial space of peripheral tissues is approximately
A) 35 mm Hg.
B) 45 mm Hg.
C) 55 mm Hg.
D) 70 mm Hg.
E) 100 mm Hg.

A

B

84
Q

51) The process by which dissolved gases are exchanged between the blood and interstitial fluids is
A) pulmonary ventilation.
B) external respiration.
C) internal respiration.
D) cellular respiration.
E) breathing.

A

C

85
Q

52) At a PO2 of 70 mm Hg and normal temperature and pH, hemoglobin is ________ percent saturated with oxygen.
A) 10
B) 25
C) 50
D) 75
E) more than 90

A

E

86
Q

53) Most of the oxygen transported by the blood is
A) dissolved in plasma.
B) bound to hemoglobin.
C) in ionic form as solute in the plasma.
D) bound to the same protein as carbon dioxide.
E) carried by white blood cells.

A

B

87
Q

54) Most of the carbon dioxide in the blood is transported as
A) solute dissolved in the plasma.
B) carbaminohemoglobin.
C) bicarbonate ions.
D) solute dissolved in the cytoplasm of red blood cells.
E) carbonic acid.

A

C

88
Q

55) The most important chemical regulator of respiration is
A) oxygen.
B) carbon dioxide.
C) bicarbonate ion.
D) sodium ion.
E) hemoglobin.

A

B

89
Q

56) A 10 percent increase in the level of carbon dioxide in the blood will
A) decrease the rate of breathing.
B) increase the rate of breathing.
C) decrease pulmonary ventilation.
D) decrease the alveolar ventilation rate.
E) decrease the vital capacity.

A

B

90
Q

57) The term hypercapnia refers to
A) the cessation of breathing.
B) elevated PCO2.
C) elevated PO2.
D) an increase in pH.
E) labored breathing.

A

B

91
Q

58) The normal rate and depth of breathing is established by the ________ center.
A) apneustic
B) pneumotaxic
C) inspiratory
D) expiratory
E) both A and C

A

C

92
Q

59) Prolonged inspirations can result from stimulating the ________ center.
A) apneustic
B) pneumotaxic
C) expiratory
D) baroreceptor
E) chemoreceptor

A

A

93
Q

60) The pneumotaxic center of the pons
A) sets the at-rest respiratory pattern.
B) prolongs inspiration.
C) modifies the rate and depth of breathing.
D) suppresses the expiratory center in the medulla.
E) both B and C

A

C

94
Q

61) Higher brain centers that alter the activity of the respiratory centers include all of the following, except
A) cortical association areas.
B) the precentral motor gyrus.
C) the limbic system.
D) the hypothalamus.
E) Broca s center.

A

B

95
Q

62) The Hering-Breuer reflex
A) functions to increase ventilation with changes in blood pressure.
B) alters pulmonary ventilation when the 11PO2 changes.
C) alters pulmonary ventilation when the PCO2 changes.
D) protects the lungs from damage due to overinflation.
E) is an important aspect of normal, quiet breathing.

A

D

96
Q

63) Which of the following systems is (are) responsible for elimination of CO2 as waste?
A) urinary
B) respiratory
C) digestive
D) all of the above
E) A and B only

A

E

97
Q

64) The larynx, trachea, bronchi, and bronchioles all make up the
A) upper respiratory tract.
B) lower respiratory tract.
C) internal respiratory tract.
D) alveoli of the respiratory tract.
E) respiratory mucosa.

A

B

98
Q

65) A mucosa consists of
A) an epithelium.
B) an underlying layer of areolar tissue.
C) stratified squamous cells.
D) both A and B
E) both B and C

A

D

99
Q

66) Tuberculosis results from an infection by the bacterium
A) Clostridium difficile.
B) Staphylococcus aureus.
C) Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
D) Vancomycin-resistant streptococcus.
E) both A and C

A

C

100
Q

67) ________ is the most common lethal inherited disease affecting individuals of Northern European descent.
A) MRSA
B) Congestive heart failure
C) Cystic fibrosis
D) Myasthenia gravis
E) Parkinson s disease

A

C

101
Q

68) The respiratory defence system is important because it
A) helps filter the air.
B) helps warm the air.
C) keeps out debris.
D) keeps out pathogens.
E) all of the above

A

E

102
Q

69) ________ generally causes a rapid increase in the rate of mucus production in the nasal cavity and paranasal sinuses.
A) Exposure to noxious stimuli
B) Exposure to unpleasant stimuli
C) Exposure to allergens
D) Exposure to debris or pathogens
E) all of the above

A

E

103
Q

70) The ________ is shared by the respiratory and digestive systems.
A) pharynx
B) esophagus
C) trachea
D) windpipe
E) right mainstem bronchus

A

A

104
Q

71) The laryngeal cartilage not composed of hyaline cartilage is the
A) arytenoid.
B) corniculate.
C) cricoid.
D) epiglottis.
E) thyroid.

A

D

105
Q

72) The nasopharynx is divided from the rest of the pharynx by the
A) hard palate.
B) soft palate.
C) cribriform plate.
D) internal nares.
E) pharyngeal septum.

A

B

106
Q

73) The adult human trachea is about ________ in diameter and contains ________ tracheal cartilages.
A) 1.0 cm; 15-20
B) 1.0 cm; 10-15
C) 2.5 cm; 15-20
D) 2.5 cm; 40-50
E) none of the above

A

C

107
Q

74) An acute infection of the throat that can lead to
swelling and closure of the glottis and cause suffocation is
known as
A) laryngitis.
B) laryngospasm.
C) acute epiglottitis.
D) strep throat.
E) acute pharyngitis.

A

C

108
Q

75) During a choking episode, most foreign objects are lodged in the ________ bronchus due to its larger
diameter and steeper angle.
A) right primary
B) left primary
C) right secondary
D) left secondary
E) A and B are equal

A

A

109
Q

76) The right lung is to ________ as the left lung is to ________.
A) three lobes; two lobes
B) two lobes; two lobes
C) two lobes; three lobes
D) three lobes; three lobes
E) none of the above

A

A

110
Q

77) The most superior portion of the lung is termed the
A) base.
B) apex.
C) cardiac notch.
D) hilus.
E) epineurium.

A

B

111
Q

78) Primary bronchi are to ________ as secondary bronchi are to ________.
A) extrapulmonary bronchi; intrapulmonary bronchi
B) lobar bronchi; intrapulmonary bronchi
C) intrapulmonary bronchi; lobar bronchi
D) all of the above
E) none of the above

A

A

112
Q

79) Roughly ________ terminal bronchioles arise from each tertiary bronchus.
A) 1500
B) 3000
C) 6500
D) 10,000
E) 100,000

A

C

113
Q

80) Collectively, the layers through which the respiratory gases diffuse are known as the
A) pulmonary-basement membrane.
B) alveolar-capillary membrane.
C) pleural-basement membrane.
D) macrophages-basement membrane.
E) Type I epithelium.

A

B

114
Q

81) Respiratory function deteriorates as a result of pneumonia because of inflammation
A) causes fluids to leak into the alveoli.
B) causes respiratory bronchioles to swell and constrict.
C) increases minute volume.
D) A and B only
E) A, B, and C

A

D

115
Q

82) Inhaling through the nostrils is preferred over the
mouth because
A) less resistance to flow.
B) it combines olfaction with respiration.
C) it allows better conditioning of the inhaled air.
D) bacteria wont be inhaled from the oral cavity.
E) it dries out the mouth.

A

C

116
Q

opposing pleural surfaces is known as
A) pleurisy.
B) pulmonary hypertension.
C) asthma.
D) emphysema.
E) COPD.

A

A

117
Q

84) A pulmonary embolism can be caused by
________ becoming trapped in a pulmonary artery.
A) blood clots
B) masses of fat
C) air bubbles
D) A or C only
E) A, B, and C

A

E

118
Q

85) Determination of blood gases includes testing an arterial sample for
A) pH.
B) PO2.
C) PCO2.
D) all of the above
E) both A and C

A

D

119
Q

86) The unit of measurement for pressure preferred by many respiratory therapists is
A) mm Hg.
B) torr.
C) cm H2O.
D) psi.
E) A, B, or C are equally favoured

A

B

120
Q

87) When there is no air movement, the relationship between the intrapulmonary and atmospheric pressure is that
A) they are equal.
B) intrapulmonary pressure is greater than atmospheric.
C) atmospheric pressure is less than intrapulmonary.
D) atmospheric pressure is more than intrapulmonary.
E) intrapulmonary pressure is less than atmospheric.

A

A

121
Q

88) The term ________ describes the result from an injury that permits air to leak into the intrapleural space.
A) pleurisy
B) pneumonia
C) pneumothorax
D) pulmonary edema
E) emphysema

A

C

122
Q

89) Quiet breathing is to ________ as shallow breathing is to ________.
A) eupnea; diaphragmatic breathing
B) eupnea; costal breathing
C) costal breathing; eupnea
D) costal breathing; diaphragmatic
E) diaphragmatic breathing; eupnea

A

B

123
Q

90) ________ involves active inspiratory and expiratory movements and calls on accessory muscles to assist with inhalation, while exhalation involves contraction of the internal intercostal muscles and sometimes abdominal muscles too.
A) Eupnea
B) Forced breathing
C) Costal breathing
D) Vital breathing
E) both A and B

A

B

124
Q

91) ________ is the amount of air that moves into the respiratory system during a single respiratory cycle.
A) Residual volume
B) Expiratory reserve volume
C) Inspiratory reserve volume
D) Tidal volume
E) Inspiratory capacity

A

D

125
Q

92) ________ is the amount of air that you can inhale above the resting tidal volume.
A) Residual inhaled volume
B) Expiratory reserve volume
C) Inspiratory reserve volume
D) Enhanced tidal volume
E) Inspiratory capacity

A

C

126
Q

93) Decompression sickness is a painful conditioN that develops when a person is exposed to a sudden drop in atmospheric pressure. Bubbles of ________ gas are responsible for the problem.
A) nitrogen
B) oxygen
C) carbon dioxide
D) helium
E) an unknown

A

A

127
Q

94) Each 100 ml of blood leaving the alveolar capillaries carries away roughly ________ ml of oxygen.
A) 10
B) 20
C) 30
D) 50
E) 75

A

B

128
Q

95) Blockage of pulmonary blood flow by a clot or similar obstruction is
A) emphysema.
B) COPD.
C) anoxia.
D) pulmonary embolism.
E) pneumothorax.

A

D

129
Q

96) The condition resulting from inadequate production of surfactant and the resultant collapse of alveoli Is
A) respiratory distress syndrome.
B) COPD.
C) anoxia.
D) pulmonary embolism.
E) pneumothorax

A

A

130
Q

97) Asthma is
A) a collapsed lung.
B) an acute condition resulting from unusually sensitive, irritated conducting airways.
C) an obstructive tumor.
D) characterized by fluid buildup in the alveoli.
E) caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis.

A

B

131
Q

98) Which of these descriptions best matches the term bronchiolar smooth muscle?
A) accessory muscle of expiration
B) accessory muscle of inspiration
C) primary muscle of inspiration
D) contraction increases airway resistance
E) affects lung compliance

A

D

132
Q

99) The C shape of the tracheal cartilage is important because
A) large masses of food can pass through the esophagus during swallowing.
B) large masses of air can pass through the trachea.
C) it facilitates the turning of the head.
D) A, B, and C
E) A and B only

A

A

133
Q

100) Boyles Law of Gases states that
A) the pressure and volume of a gas are equal.
B) as the temperature goes up, the pressure goes up.
C) the total gas pressure is equal to the sum of the partial pressures.
D) the concentration of dissolved gas is proportional to its partial pressure.
E) if the volume goes up, the pressure goes down.

A

E

134
Q

101) Under quiet conditions, blood returning to the heart retains about ________ of its oxygen content when it leaves the lungs..
A) 25 percent
B) 50 percent
C) 75 percent
D) 90 percent
E) 100 percent

A

C

135
Q

102) The apneustic centers of the pons
A) inhibit the pneumotaxic and inspiratory centers.
B) provide continuous stimulation to the inspiratory center.
C) monitor blood gas levels.
D) alter chemoreceptor sensitivity.
E) generate the gasp reflex.

A

A

136
Q

103) All of the following provide chemoreceptor input to the respiratory centers of the medulla oblongata, except the
A) olfactory epithelium.
B) medullary chemoreceptors.
C) aortic body.
D) carotid body.
E) all of the above

A

A

137
Q

104) Sympathetic input to the smooth muscle tissue in bronchioles causes all of these except
A) bronchoconstriction.
B) a bigger lumen.
C) less airway resistance.
D) activation of beta-two receptors.
E) relaxation.

A

A

138
Q

105) In quiet breathing,
A) inspiration and expiration involve muscular contractions.
B) inspiration is passive and expiration involves muscular contractions.
C) inspiration involves muscular contractions and expiration is passive.
D) inspiration and expiration are both passive.
E) both C and D

A

C

139
Q

106) Each of the following factors affects the rate of external respiration, except the
A) PO2 of the alveoli.
B) PCO2 of the blood.
C) thickness of the respiratory membrane.
D) diameter of an alveolus.
E) solubility of oxygen in plasma.

A

D

140
Q

107) External respiration involves the
A) movement of air into and out of the lungs.
B) diffusion of gases between the alveoli and the circulating blood.
C) exchange of dissolved gases between the blood and the interstitial fluid.
D) binding of oxygen by hemoglobin.
E) utilization of oxygen by tissues to support metabolism.

A

B

141
Q

108) Breathing that involves active inspiratory and expiratory movements is called
A) eupnea.
B) hyperpnea.
C) diaphragmatic breathing.
D) costal breathing.
E) shallow breathing.

A

B

142
Q

109) If a patient being tested inhales as deeply as possible and then exhales as much as possible, the volume of air expelled would be the patients
A) tidal volume.
B) inspiratory reserve volume.
C) expiratory reserve volume.
D) reserve volume.
E) vital capacity.

A

E

143
Q

110) ________ equals the respiratory rate × (tidal volume N anatomic dead space).
A) Vital capacity
B) Respiratory minute volume
C) Pulmonary ventilation rate
D) Alveolar ventilation rate
E) External respiration rate

A

D

144
Q

111) Which of the following factors would increase the amount of oxygen discharged by hemoglobin to peripheral tissues?
A) decreased temperature
B) decreased pH
C) increased tissue PO2
D) decreased amounts of DPG
E) none of the above

A

B

145
Q

112) Physical damage to the lamina propria of the nasal mucosa is likely to result in
A) epistaxis.
B) nasal congestion.
C) nosebleeds.
D) a deviated septum.
E) A or C

A

E

146
Q

113) Which of the following is not true about the pharynx?
A) shared by the integumentary and respiratory systems
B) nasopharynx is superior
C) oropharynx connects to the oral cavity
D) laryngopharynx ends at the esophagus opening
E) solids, liquids, and gases pass through

A

A

147
Q

114) Which of the following is not a function of the nasal mucosa?
A) humidify the incoming air
B) dehumidify the outgoing air
C) dehumidify the incoming air
D) trap particulate matter
E) cool outgoing air

A

C

148
Q

115) Contraction of the intrinsic laryngeal muscles can
A) move the arytenoid cartilages.
B) close the glottis.
C) stretch the vocal folds.
D) A, B, and C
E) A and B only

A

D

149
Q

116) During swallowing, the
A) intrinsic laryngeal muscles contract.
B) extrinsic laryngeal muscles contract.
C) glottis closes and the epiglottis is depressed.
D) all of the above
E) both B and C

A

D

150
Q

117) Which is greater?
A) the number of lobes in the right lung
B) the number of lobes in the left lung
C) NeitherNthe number of lobes is usually equal.

A

A

151
Q

118) Air moves out of the lungs when the pressure inside the lungs is
A) less than the pressure in the atmosphere.
B) greater than the pressure in the atmosphere.
C) equal to the pressure in the atmosphere.
D) greater than intraalveolar pressure.
E) less than intrapulmonary pressure.

A

B

152
Q

119) Damage to the type II pneumocytes of the lungs would result in
A) a loss of surfactant.
B) an increased rate of gas exchange.
C) increased surface tension in the alveoli
D) increased tendency to alveolar collapse.
E) A, C, and D

A

E

153
Q

120) Harry suffers from cystic fibrosis and has severe breathing difficulties. His problems result from
A) genetic mutation in a membrane channel.
B) laryngospasm.
C) thick secretions that are difficult to transport.
D) A, B, and C
E) A and C only

A

E

154
Q

121) Which statement about the chloride shift is false?
A) involves a movement of chloride ion into RBCs
B) depends on the chloride-bicarbonate counter transporter
C) involves a movement of bicarbonate ions into the plasma
D) is driven by a rise in PCO2
E) causes RBCs to swell

A

E

155
Q

122) Which respiratory organ has a cardiac notch?
A) right lung
B) left lung
C) right primary bronchus
D) left primary bronchus
E) both B and D

A

B

156
Q

123) Carbon dioxide is more soluble in water than oxygen. To get the same amount of oxygen to dissolve in plasma as carbon dioxide, you would have to
A) increase the temperature of the plasma.
B) increase the partial pressure of oxygen.
C) decrease the partial pressure of carbon dioxide.
D) increase the rate of plasma flow through the lungs.
E) either B or C

A

E

157
Q

124) Which of the following is greater?
A) the partial pressure of oxygen in atmospheric air at sea level
B) the partial pressure of oxygen in atmospheric air at the top of Mt. Everest
C) the partial pressure of oxygen in atmospheric air is constant

A

A

158
Q

125) Increasing the alveolar ventilation rate will
A) decrease the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the alveoli.
B) decrease the rate of oxygen diffusion from the alveoli to the blood.
C) increase the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the alveoli.
D) decrease the rate of carbon dioxide diffusion from the blood to the alveoli.
E) hardly affect either the partial pressure or diffusion of gases.

A

A

159
Q

126) For maximum loading of hemoglobin with oxygen at the lungs, the
A) PCO2 should be high
B) pH should be slightly acidic.
C) PO2 should be about 70 mm Hg.
D) DPG levels in the red blood cells should be high.
E) PCO2 should be low

A

E

160
Q

127) Carbonic anhydrase
A) is in RBCs.
B) is an enzyme.
C) can increase the number of bicarbonate ions in the plasma.
D) can decrease the number of bicarbonate ions in the plasma.
E) all of the above

A

E

161
Q

128) Which of the following would be greater?
A) the percent of oxygen saturation of hemoglobin when the pH is 7.6
B) the percent of oxygen saturation of hemoglobin when the pH is 7.2
C) Neither is greater.

A

A

162
Q

129) Which of the following would be greater?
A) the percent of oxygen saturation of hemoglobin when the temperature is 38 degrees centigrade
B) the percent of oxygen saturation of hemoglobin when the temperature is 43 degrees centigrade
C) Neither is greater

A

A

163
Q

130) Which of the following would be greater?
A) hemoglobins affinity for oxygen when the BPG level is high
B) hemoglobins affinity for oxygen when the BPG Level is low
C) Neither is greater.

A

B

164
Q

131) Stimulation of the apneustic center would result in
A) increased respiratory rate.
B) more intense inhalation.
C) a shorter respiratory cycle.
D) less activity in the DRG center.
E) decreased vital capacity.

A

B

165
Q

132) If the dorsal respiratory group of neurons in the medulla oblongata were destroyed bilaterally,
A) a person would stop breathing.
B) pulmonary ventilation would increase markedly.
C) the respiratory minute volume would increase.
D) tidal volumes would decrease.
E) alveolar ventilation would increase.

A

A

166
Q

133) The pneumotaxic center
A) is in the pons.
B) excites the apneustic center.
C) inhibits the apneustic center.
D) both A and B
E) both A and C

A

E

167
Q

134) Which of the following is greatest?
A) the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in venous blood
B) the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in alveolar air
C) the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in expired air
D) the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in inspired air
E) the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in arterial blood

A

A

168
Q

135) Pneumotaxic centers in the pons
A) inhibit the apneustic centers.
B) promote passive or active exhalation.
C) receive input from the hypothalamus and cerebrum.
D) modify respiratory rate and depth.
E) all of the above

A

E

169
Q

136) Blocking afferent action potentials from the chemoreceptors in the carotid and aortic bodies would interfere with the brains ability to regulate breathing in response to
A) changes in PCO2.
B) changes in 11PO2.
C) changes in pH.
D) changes in blood pressure.
E) A, B, and C

A

E

170
Q

137) All of the following are present prior to birth, except that the
A) pulmonary arterial resistance is high.
B) pulmonary vessels are collapsed.
C) rib cage is compressed.
D) alveoli are expanded.
E) lungs and airways contain only a small amount of fluid.

A

D

171
Q

138) Which of these changes does not occur at birth when an infant takes its first breaths?
A) Blood flow to the lungs decreases.
B) The resistance in the pulmonary arteries decreases.
C) Changes in blood flow cause the foramen ovale to close.
D) Air enters the alveoli.
E) Gas diffuses across the alveolar-capillary membrane.

A

A

172
Q

139) Which of these age-based changes is false?
A) The lungs lose elastic tissue.
B) The lungs compliance changes.
C) Vital capacity increases.
D) Respiratory muscles weaken.
E) Costal cartilages become more flexible

A

C

173
Q

140) As an astronaut is lifted into Earths orbit, what is the first change to take place in response to the drop in cabin pressure?
A) increased hematocrit
B) renal hypoxia
C) increased alveolar ventilation rate
D) decreased alveolar PO2
E) decreased hemoglobin saturation

A

D

174
Q

141) Severing the sensory fibers from the lungs would result in all of the following, except
A) less inhibition of the inspiratory center during forced breathing.
B) a drop in tidal volume.
C) potential damage to the lungs due to overinflation.
D) disappearance of the Hering-Breuer reflexes.
E) less stimulation of the expiratory center during forced breathing.

A

B

175
Q

142) Low pH alters hemoglobin structure so that oxygen binds less strongly to hemoglobin at low PO2. This increases the effectiveness of
A) external respiration.
B) internal respiration.
C) carbon dioxide transport.
D) hemoglobin synthesis.
E) acid-base balance.

A

B

176
Q

143) Tina is singing a song. At a certain point in the song she forces a large volume of air out of the glottis and at the same time increases the tension on her vocal cords. The sound that she produces is
A) low pitched and loud.
B) high pitched and loud.
C) low pitched and soft.
D) high pitched and soft.
E) medium pitched and soft.

A

B

177
Q

144) A patient with a connective tissue disease experiences increased pulmonary vascular resistance. Over a period of time you would expect to observe
A) increased cardiac output from the right ventricle.
B) increased cardiac output from the left ventricle.
C) increased thickness of the right ventricular wall.
D) distension of the pulmonary veins from the right lung.
E) no appreciable changes in heart structure or function.

A

C

178
Q

145) While playing in an intramural football game, Joe is tackled so hard that he breaks a rib. He can actually feel a piece of the rib-sticking through the skin, and he is having a difficult time breathing. Joe probably is suffering from
A) a collapsed trachea.
B) obstruction in the bronchi.
C) a pneumothorax.
D) decreased surfactant production.
E) a bruised diaphragm.

A

C

179
Q

146) Which of the following can be calculated if the tidal volume and respiratory rate are known?
A) minute volume
B) inspiratory reserve volume
C) expiratory reserve volume
D) anatomical dead space
E) forced vital capacity

A

A

180
Q

148) In emphysema, which of these occur?
A) alveoli collapse
B) compliance increases
C) elevated PCO2 in the blood
D) all of the above
E) A and C only

A

D

181
Q

149) The obstructive lung disease in which elastic fibers are lost, leading to the collapse of alveoli and bronchioles, is called
A) asthma.
B) bronchitis.
C) emphysema.
D) tuberculosis.
E) pneumonia.

A

C