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Anatomy > Chapters 21-23 > Flashcards

Chapters 21-23 Flashcards

1
Q

Which specific type of WBC directly attacks antigen-bearing cells (foreign molecule bearing cells)? Explain the 2 ways that these cells attack their targets. List the types of targets they typically attack.

A

T lymphocytes
1. inserts proteins that create “pores”
2. inserts proteins that initiate cell self destruction (apuptosis)
Targets - foreign antigen or “alien” cells (reject transplanted organs, destroy our own cells that have been infected with viruses or other pathogens, and kill some cancer cells.

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2
Q

Which specific type of WBC indirectly attacks integens, or antigen-bearing cells by releasing antibodies? These cells when actively secreting antibodies are properly called what?

A

B lymphocytes

Called plasma cells when actively secreting antibodies

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3
Q

Explain what antibodies do and how this helps in an immune response.

A

Antibodies are proteins that bind to specific antigens and mark them for destruction. This helps in an immune response by signalling the macrophages as to which cells need to be destroyed.

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4
Q

What types of target do natural killer cells identify? How do they attack their targets?

A

They target cells that they detect a lack of “self” cell surface molecules or the presence of certain sugars on a target cell.
They rapidly attack tumor cells and virus infected cells before the immune response is activated and destroy cells in the same way that cytotoxic T cells do - they lyse them.

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5
Q

Describe immunocompetence with respect to T and B lymphocytes.Where does each lymphocyte gain immunocompetence?

A

When T and B lymphocytes divide rapidly and generate many lymphocyte families, each of which has surface receptors able to recognize one unique type of antigen.
T cells gain it in the thymus; B cells gain it in the bone marrow

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6
Q

What are memory cells? Where do they reside? Explain their role in immunity.

A

Clones produced during a immune response that remember a specific antigen so that if it encounters it again, response time is much quicker. They reside within the lymphoid tissue.

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7
Q

List all locations where lymphoid tissue is found.

A
  1. Mucous membranes of the digestive, respiratory , urinary, and reproductive tracts where it is called mucosa associated lymphoid tissue (MALT),
  2. In all lymphoid organs except the thymus.
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8
Q

The acronym MALT stands for what?

A

Mucosa Associated Lymphoid Tissue

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9
Q

Describe the structure of lymphoid tissue. What is a germinal center?

A

Reticular CT - network of reticular fibers with many T and B lymphocytes residing in the spaces of the network that arrive continuously from venules coursing though the tissue. Microphages are also in the network.
Clusters of densely packed lymphocytes called lymphoid follicles often have germinal centers of dividing lymphocytes.

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10
Q

List the lymphoid organs of the body

A 
Spleen
tonsils
lymph nodes
appendix
Thymus
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11
Q

What is the role of the thymus? What happens to it as we age?

A

the site at which immature lymphocytes develop into T lymphocytes. secretes thymic hormones such as thymosin and thymopoietin, which cause T lymphocytes to gain immunocompetence.
It atrophies with age.

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12
Q

Describe the 2 main functions of the spleen. What part of the spleen is responsible for each function?

A
  1. White pulp (lymphoid tissue) - removal of bloodborne antigens (its immune function),
  2. Red pulp (splenic sinusoids and splenic cords) - removal and destruction of aged or defective blood cells
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13
Q

What is the role of macrophages in the red pulp of the spleen?

A

to Id and destroy old red blood cells

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14
Q

What are aggregated lymphoid nodules? Where are they found? What type of tissue do they contain? What types of cells do they contain? What is the function of the aggregated lymphoid nodules and appendix?

A

What & Where - clusters of lymphoid follicles in the walls of the distal part of the small intestine.
Tissues & cells - dense lymphoid tissue tightly packed with lymphocytes
Function - Destroy microorganisms that invade them and also sample many different antigens from within the digestive tube and generate a wide variety of memory lymphocytes to protect the body.

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15
Q

The act of breathing is properly called what?

A

pulmonary ventilation

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16
Q

Define external respiration.

A

Gas exchange that occurs between the blood and iar at the lung alveoli. Oxygen in the air sacs diffuses into the blood; CO2 in blood diffuses into the air sacs.

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17
Q

Describe the structure and functions of the respiratory mucosa. (include epithelium type, supporting CT, and glands) Explain how each structure performs its function.

A
  • pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium with goblet cells (secret mucus that destroys and digests bacteria and traps foreign particles - cilia helps move debris)
  • areolar CT lamina propria richly supplies with compound tubuloalveolar glands containing mucous and serous cells (helps prevent drying out; adds moisture to the air)
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18
Q

What type of epithelium line the nasal cavity? How does this epithelium contribute to the function of the nasal cavity?

A

Ciliated psuedostratified columnar epithelium

produces sticky mucus to catch debri and has cilia to move it out of the airway.

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19
Q

Name the 3 nasal conchae. Describe their primary function.

A

Superior, middle, and inferior

creates obstacles for air to go around which blocks large particles from entering into the air passage.

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20
Q

How vascular is the nasal cavity? How does this relate to the function of the nasal cavity?

A

highly vascular - helps warm air

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21
Q

Name the three sections of the pharynx. For each, list the epithelium type which line it and explain how the epithelium relates to the function of that section of the pharynx.

A

Nasopharynx - ciliated pseudostratified ep. takes over the job of propelling mucus where the nasal mucosa leaves off, such that dusty mucus is moved downward through the nasopharynx.
Oropharynx - stratified squamous epithelium protects against friction and greater chemical trauma accompanying the passage of swallowed food through the oropharynx
Laryngopharynx - stratified squamous epithelium which also protects

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22
Q

The most inferior section of the pharynx is the what? Inferior to it lies the opening to which organ? Anterior to it lies the opening to which organ?

A

Laryngopharynx
inferior - opening for esophagus
anterior - opening to larynx

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23
Q

What type of epithelium lines the trachea? How does it contribute to the function of the trachea?

A

Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium - propels dust laden sheets of mucus superiorly towards the pharynx.

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24
Q

Describe the anatomy of the cartilages of the trachea. How can the diameter of the trachea be adjusted? For what purpose is it adjusted?

A

16 - 20 C-shaped rings of hyaline cartilage joined to one another by intervening membranes of fibroelastic CT.Flexible enough to permit bending and elongation but the rings prevent it from collapsing.
It is adjusted by the contraction of the trachealis muscle which is under autonomic control during coughing and sneezing to help expel irritants from the trachea

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25
Q

The last tracheal cartilage has a ridge on its internal aspect called the what? What is special about it? Why is it important?

A

Carina - it is highly sensitive to irritants

The cough reflex often originates here to help expel unwanted objects out so they don’t enter the lungs.

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26
Q

Inhaled objects are most likely to enter which side of the bronchial tree? Why? (2 reasons)

A

The right side because it is larger and has a more downward slope whereas the other side arches more to the side.

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27
Q

List the structures of the bronchial tree in order from largest to smallest.

A

Primary bronchus, secondary bronchus, tertiary bronchus, (about 7 more divisions), bronchioles, terminal bronchioles

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28
Q

Describe the changes in the distribution of smooth muscle as one travels down the bronchial tree.

A

Trachea - Treachealis muscle
Bronchi - bands of muscle
Bronchioles - complete circular rings

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29
Q

Describe the changes in the epithelium as one travels down the bronchial tree. Relate these changes to how particulate matter must be dealt with.

A

Trachea - psuedostratified ciliated columnar epithelium with goblet cells (particles must be trapped and moved)
Bronchi - same as trachea
Bronchioles - simple columnar - cilia, then simple cuboidal - no cilia (macrophages remove particles)

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30
Q

Describe the changes in the distribution of supportive connective tissue as one travels down the bronchial tree.

A

Cartilage rings replaced by irregular plates of cartilage as the main bronchi enter the lungs. At bronchioles - supportive CT is no longer present.

31
Q

List the three main types of cell found in the alveolus. For each type of cell state its function and describe the importance.

A

Alveoli - air exchange chambers
Type II alveolar cells - produce surfactant that reduces surface tension
macrophage - phagacytize bacteria and particulates

32
Q

Particulate matter arriving in the respiratory system must be dealt with. For most conducting zone structures describe the main ways that particulates are dealt with. For the respiratory zone describe the main ways particulates are dealt with.

A

most of the conducting zone is lined with psuedostratified ciliated columnar epithelium which handles particulates.
in the respiratory zones Macrophages phagacytize particluates.

33
Q

Describe the two important functions of the pleura.

A
  1. produces pleural fluid - a lubricating fluid that allows the lungs to glide without friction over the thoracic wall during breathing
  2. divides the thoracic cavity into three separate compartments which helps prevent the moving lungs or heart from interfering with one another and also limits the spread of local infections and the extent of traumatic injury.
34
Q

What is significant about the anatomy of the separate spaces that house the lungs?

A

Around all surfaces of the lung, with the exception of the inferior surface, the pleural cavity is a slitlike potential space.

35
Q

Describe the mechanism of quiet inspiration.

A

Contraction of diaphragm

external intercostals = larger thoracic volume

36
Q

Describe the mechanism of quiet expiration.

A

relax muscles - elastic recoil of lungs returns to normal volume after filling
External intercostals relaxe

37
Q

What is the proper term for air in the thorax? Explain how this condition would almost certainly collapse the lung. would both collapse? why?

A

pneumothorax
Air breaks the seal of pleural fluid that holds the lung to the thoracic wall allowing the elastic lung to collapse like a deflating balloon. The more air that enters the cavity the less room the lung has to expand.
Both would not collapse due to the pleura.

38
Q

Describe the anatomical or histological changes that occur with emphysema. How so these affect respiration? (2)

A
  1. destruction of alveolar walls
  2. loss of lung elasticity
    bronchioles open during inspiration but collapse during expiration, trapping huge volumes of air in the alveoli. This enlarges the lung, and flattens the the diaphragm which decreases ventilation efficiency.
39
Q

List the organs of the alimentary canal in order “food” passes through them.

A

Mouth, pharynx, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine, anus

40
Q

List the accessory organs of digestion which secrete a product and indicate which organ each secretes its product into.

A

Gall bladder - released bile into the duodenum
salivary glands - secretes saliva into the mouth
liver - produces bile that is stored in the gall bladder and then released into the duodenum
pancreas - secretes hormones (insulin and glucagon) and produces enzymes that digest foodstuffs in the small intestine.

41
Q

Describe the anatomy of a serous membrane. What is the serosa of the abdominal cavity called? Name and describe the position of its 2 layers.

A

simple squamous epithelium and loose areolar CT
2 layers: Parietal (lines cavities), Visceral (covers organs)
Serosa of the abdominal cavity = peritoneum
2 layers: Visceral peritoneum (covers the external surfaces of most digestive organs), and parietal peritoneum (lines the body wall and is continuous with the visceral peritoneum.)

42
Q

What is the primary function of the serosa of the abdomen?

A

to produce serous fluid which allows the digestive organs to glide easily along one another and along the body wall as they move during digestion.

43
Q

List the six digestive processes and describe each. Indicate the primary organs where each process occurs.

A
  1. Ingestion - taking food into mouth
  2. Propulsion - movement of food through the alimentary canal. (swallowing - oropharynx, peristalsis - esophagus, stomach, sm. intestine, lg. intestine)
  3. Mechanical breakdown - physically prepares food for digestion by enzymes by breaking it into smaller pieces. (mouth, stomach, sm. intestines)
  4. Digestion - series of steps in which complex food molecules are broken down to their chemical building blocks. (stomach, sm. intestine,
  5. Absorption - transport of digested end products from the lumen of the alimentary canal into the blood and lymphatic capilllaries located in the wall of the canal. (sm. intestines, lg. intestines)
  6. Defecation - elimination of indigestible substances fro the body as feces. (anus)
44
Q

The major means of moving “food” along the alimentary canal is called what?

A

peristalsis

45
Q

The specialized type of propulsion seen in the small intestine is what? This process acts to do what to “food”?

A

segmentation - mixes food with digestive juices and increases the efficiency of nutrient absorption by repeatedly moving different parts of the food mass over the intestinal wall.

46
Q

Define “digestion” also called chemical digestion. How is it different from mechanical breakdown? List the major food molecules and what each is digested into.

A

Chemical digestion is the chemical alteration or breakdown of food whereas mechanical breakdown physically prepares the food for digestion by breaking it into smaller pieces.

  1. Proteins -> amino acids
  2. complex carbs -> glucose
  3. fats -> fatty acids
  4. DNA, RNA -> nucleotides
47
Q

Describe the general histology of the wall of the alimentary canal. (Name layers, sublayers, and functions)

A
  1. Mucosa (innermost layer): epithelium, areolar CT lamina propria, muscularis mucosae (smooth muscle)
    Function: absorbing nutrients, secreting mucus, defends against bacteria and other microorganisms, produces local movements to help dislodge sharp food particles that may become lodged in the mucosa.)
  2. Submucosa (layer of support CT just external to the mucosa): major blood and lymphatic vessels and nerve fibers, areiolar CT.
    Function: many elastic fibers enable the alimentary canal to return to its shape after food material passes through it.
  3. Muscularis externa (external to the submucosa): inner circular layer, outer longitudinal layer
    Function: peristalsis, segmentation
  4. Serosa or Adentitia (outermost layer): simple squamous epithelium underlain by a thin layer of areolar CT.
    Function: produces serous fluid to reduce friction of moving parts.
48
Q

Describe the gross anatomy of the esophagus, naming its 2 sphincter muscles.

A

has an upper esophageal sphincter towards the top near the pharynx and a lower esophageal or cardiac sphincter at the bottom near the stomach. It is made up of 1/3 skeletal muscle (top), 1/3 smooth muscle (bottom) and 1/3 mixture (middle)

49
Q

Describe the histology of the esophagus focusing on what makes it different from other alimentary canal organs. Explain why the differences are significant.

A

Mucosa of stratified squamous epithelium rather than simple columnar epithelium as it needs to be abrasion-resistant rather than secretory.
Submucosa of areolar CT as well as mucous glands, primarily compound tubuloalveolar glands, which are triggered when “food” passes through and secretes mucus.
*Mucosa and Submucosa also thrown into longitudinal folds when the esophagus is empty but flatten out during the passage of bolus.
Muscularis externa 1/3 skeletal, 1/3 smooth, 1/3 mix
Adventitia of fibrous CT - not a serosa because the thoracic segment of the esophagus is not suspended in the peritoneal cavity.

50
Q

The condition where the superior portion of the stomach is pushed up through the diaphragm is called a what?

A

hiatal hernia

51
Q

Explain why reflux from the stomach into the esophagus us dangerous.

A

After persistent exposure to the acidic stomach contents, the lower esophagus develops ulcers, and the epithelium there becomes abnormal and precancerous.

52
Q

State the primary functions of the stomach.

A
  1. Temp storage tank in which food is churned and turned into chyme
  2. breaks down food proteins by secreting pepsin
  3. destroys harmful bacteria in food by secreting hydrochloric acid.
53
Q

Explain how the stomach is protected from the acidic pH found within it.

A

The lining epithelium of the mucosa is simple columnar epithelium and consists entirely of cells that secrete a coat of bicarbonate-buffered mucus which protects the stomach wall.s

54
Q

The volume of Food a typical stomach may hold is about what?

A

1.5 to 4 liters max

55
Q

The ridges of the internal layers of the stomach wall are called what? What do these “ridges” permit?

A

gastric rugae which flatten out as the stomach fills resulting in expansion to accommodate increasing quantity of food.

56
Q

Explain what is different about the layers of muscle found in the stomach compared to other digestive organs.

A

the stomach contains an additional layer of smooth muscle. Deep to the circular and longitudinal layers lies an innermost layer of smooth muscle fibers that run obliquely.

57
Q

What is the function of parietal cells in the gastric glands? (two functions) Explain the significance of these functions.

A
  1. produces the stomach’s HCl which destroys harmful bacteria
  2. secrete gastric intrinsic factor (a protein necessary for the absorption of vitamin B12 by the small intestines)
58
Q

What is the function of chief cells in the gastric glands? Explain the significance of this function.

A

Make and secrete enzymatic protein pepsinogen which is activated to pepsin when it encounters acid in the apical region of the gland. (helps break down food)

59
Q

State the primary function of the small intestine.

A

the site of most enzymatic digestion and virtually all absorption of nutrients.

60
Q

List the 3 sections of the small intestine in order.

A
  1. duodenum
  2. jejunum
  3. ileum
61
Q

Describe the specializations in the anatomy of the small intestine for absorption (3) Explain how these help increase absorption.

A
  1. circular folds - increase the absorption surface area
  2. villi - covered by a simple columnar epithelium made up of primarily absorptive cells called enterocytes specialized for absorbing nutrients
  3. microvilli - plasma membranes of the microvilli contain enzymes that complete the final stages of the breakdown of nutrient molecules.
62
Q

Name the sphincters which guard the entry and exit point of the small intestines.

A

pyloric sphincter (entrance from stomach) and ileocecal sphincter (exit to lg intestines)

63
Q

Describe the primary functions of the large intestines.

A
  1. absorb water and electrolytes

2. produce stool

64
Q

Name and explain the function and importance of the specialized glands found in the first section of the small intestines.

A

duodenal glands - ducts open into the intestinal crypts. glands secrete an alkaline bicarbonate-rich mucus that helps neutralize the acidity of the chyme from the stomach and contributes to the protective layer of mucus on the inner surface of the small intestines.

65
Q

Describe the function of the appendix

A

functions as a safe haven for the beneficial bacteria that inhabit the large intestines.

66
Q

Describe the mucosa of the large intestine.

A

simple columnar epithelium with more abundant goblet cells than in the small intestines.
no villi
intestinal crypts are present as simple tubular glands containing many goblet cells.

67
Q

The condition where out-pockets of mucosa form in the large intestine is called what? Primary cause? Danger?

A

diverticulosis
Cause - diet lacking fiber.
danger - (minor) dull pain or ruptured artery producing bleeding from the anus (major) may develop diverticulitis in which the inflamed area becomes infected and may perforate leaking feces into the peritoneal cavity.

68
Q

What are the primary functions of the liver that we have discussed in this class?

A
  1. produce bile
  2. picks up glucose from nutrient rich blood returning from the alimentary canal and stores this carbohydrate as glycogen for subsequent use by the body.
  3. processes fats and amino acids and stores certain vitamins
  4. detoxifies many poisons and drugs in the blood
  5. makes the blood proteins
69
Q

Explain the significance of the arrangement of vessels of the hepatic portal system with respect to organs of digestion (2-3 reasons) and the spleen (1)

A

???

70
Q

What is the functional unit of the liver?

A

lobules (population of hepatocytes surrounding a central vien)

71
Q

Describe the functions of the gall bladder.

A
  1. store bile (releases it when needed)

2. concentrate bile

72
Q

Describe the digestive function of bile. Explain why this function is significant. What would happen if there was not enough bile?

A

bile salts emulsify fats in the small intestine (break up fatty nutrients into tiny particles that are more accessible to digestive enzymes from the pancreas.
Heartburn, poor digestion, toxicity

73
Q

Describe the microscopic anatomy of the pancreas.

A

???

74
Q

List the functions of the cells of the pancreas. explain the significance of each function.

A
  1. secretes two major hormones, insulin and glucagon which lower and raise blood sugar levels
  2. produces most of the enzymes that digest foodstuffs in the small intestine.

Anatomy (6 decks)

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