Chronic Myeloproliferative Disorders Flashcards

1
Q

What are the main chronic myeloproliferative disorders?

A
  • Chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML)
  • Polycythemia vera
  • Primary myelofibrosis
  • Essential thrombocytosis (platelets)
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2
Q

Certain features are common among the MPDs:

A
  • splenomegaly
  • propensity to terminate in a “spent phase” characterized by marrow fibrosis and peripheral blood cytopenias
  • ability to progress to acute leukemia
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3
Q

How do the myeloproliferative disorders differ from AML?

A

in MPD, cells can continue to differentiate

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4
Q

In general, the target of neoplastic transformation in myeloproliferative disorders is what? What is the exception?

A

a multipotent progenitor cell; CML is the exception (a pluripotent stem cell giving rise to both lymphoid AND myeloid cells is affected)

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5
Q

What is a common pathologic feature in MPDs?

A

presence of mutated, constitutively activated tyrosine kinases that lead to growth factor independent proliferation

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6
Q

What is the gene/mutation implicated in CML?

A

BCR-ABL fusion gene

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7
Q

What is the gene/mutation implicated in polycythemia vera?

A

JAK2 point mutations

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8
Q

What is the gene/mutation implicated in essential thrombocytosis and primary myelofibrosis?

A

JAK2, CALR, and MPL point mutations

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9
Q

Where does the chromosomal transformation occur in CML?

A

The Ph chromosome can be found in the dividing progeny of the multipotent myeloid stem cells but may occur as early as the pluripotent stem cells.

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10
Q

What does the BCR-ABL fusion gene do?

A

It encodes for the synthesis of a 210 kD fusion protein with tyrosine kinase activity.

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11
Q

What is the bone marrow composition of a patient with CML?

A

It is close to 100% cellular (no adiposity), with maturing granulocytic precursors comprising most of the cellularity.

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12
Q

Basophilia on peripheral blood smear is a clue for which disorder?

A

CML

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13
Q

What is the difference b/t CML and leukemoid reaction on peripheral blood smear?

A
  • CML: usually >50,000 WBCs/uL, cells at all stages of maturation, and reduced LAP score, marked splenomegaly, presence of Philadelphia chromosome
  • Leukemoid reaction: usually <50,000 WBCs/uL, almost all mature cells, elevated LAP score, variable splenomegaly, no Philadelphia chromosome
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14
Q

Describe the clinical course of CML.

A
  • Initial symptoms are non-specific (fatigue, weakness, weight loss, anorexia, abdominal discomfort, splenomegaly)
  • Progression is slow, but 50% of patients enter an “accelerated” phase with decreased response to treatment, increasing anemia and thrombocytopenia, and sometimes striking peripheral blood basophilia
  • Eventual transformation to “blast” phase/crisis in which clinical picture looks like AML
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15
Q

How is CML treated?

A
  • Previously: allogeneic BM transplantation and interferon-α, but these are difficult and not used as much anymore
  • Targeted biologic inhibitors of BCR-ABL are superior with dramatically improved outcomes (ex: Imatinib)
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16
Q

What is the difference b/t relative and absolute polycythemia vera?

A
  • Relative: caused by decreased plasma volume from dehydration
  • Absolute: caused by an increase in total RBC mass
17
Q

How do EPO levels change in polycythemia vera?

A

EPO levels are low or virtually undetectable, as PV progenitor cells have markedly decreased requirements for EPO

18
Q

What are common complications of polycythemia vera?

A

Thrombotic episodes leading to MI, stroke, DVT, hemorrhages (minor or life-threatening), and Budd-Chiari syndrome due to elevation in hematocrit, which promotes abnormal blood flow, vascular distension, and stasis.

19
Q

What is the treatment for polycythemia vera?

A

therapeutic phlebotomies to maintain red cell mass near normal

20
Q

When does polycythemia vera usually appear?

A

in late middle age (insidious onset)

21
Q

True or false: The majority of polycythemia vera patients are hypertensive.

A

True! 70% are hypertensive.

22
Q

How does primary myelofibrosis differ from the other CMPDs?

A

There is early and rapid progression to obliterating marrow fibrosis (morphologically similar to the “spent” phase of other CMPDs).

23
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of primary myelofibrosis.

A
  • Excessive collagen deposition in BM
  • Secretion of PDGF and TBF-β by neoplastic megakaryocytes
  • Displacement of stem cells/normal marrow elements
  • Extramedullary hematopoeisis in spleen, liver, and lymph nodes
24
Q

Describe the clinical course of primary myelofibrosis.

A

Patients are typically elderly and seek medical attention due to progressive anemia, splenic enlargement, or non-specific symptoms (ex: gout due to high cell turnover). Median survival is 1-5 years with complications such as infections, bleeding, and leukemic transformation in 5-20%.

25
Q

What are the key findings on a peripheral blood smear in primary myelofibrosis?

A

leukoerythroblastic blood picture with nRBCs, immature RBCs, and tear drop cells. Platelets may be abnormal in size, shape, or function.

26
Q

What are the key findings on a bone marrow biopsy in primary myelofibrosis?

A

thickened bony trabeculae (sclerosis) with hypercellular marrow

27
Q

What is the stain used to visualize the fibrosis in primary myelofibrosis?

A

reticulin stain

28
Q

Essential thrombocytosis involves proliferation of which cells?

A

predominantly megakaryocytic lineage cells (high platelet counts)

29
Q

What does bone marrow show in essential thrombocytosis?

A

mild to moderate increase in cellularity with increased large abnormal megakaryocytes

30
Q

What is the clinical presentation of essential thrombocytosis?

A

thrombosis/hemorrhage due to qualitative/quantitative platelet abnormalities

31
Q

Which type of cells primarily compose the BM cellularity in CML?

A

maturing granulocytic precursors

32
Q

What does peripheral blood show in CML?

A

marked leukocytosis with left shift to immaturity (basophilia)

33
Q

Polycythemia vera is driven by which mutation?

A

JAK2

34
Q

What is the typical disease course of essential thrombocytosis?

A

indolent course with median survival 12-15 yrs